Toxicology Flashcards

(53 cards)

1
Q

Toxidromes

A
  • Alpha and Beta Adrenergic
  • Anticholinergic
  • Cholinergic
  • Epileptogenic
  • Extrapyramidal
  • Hallucinogenic
  • Narcotic
  • Sedative/Hypnotic
  • Serotonin
  • Sympathomimetic
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2
Q

Toxidromes: Anticholinergic

saying to remember pt presentation

A
  • blind as a bat
  • hotter than hell
  • red as a beet
  • dryer than the desert
  • mad as a hatter
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3
Q

Anion gap

Gap is present if greater than __

cation - anions = gap
(Na+ + K+) – (Cl- + HCO3-)

A

14

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4
Q

Osmolar gap

Presence of additional unmeasured low molecular weight molecules that
are osmotically active (reference range: 285-300 mOSm/kg)

– Gap = Measured - Calculated
– Calculated = ( __ x Na+) + (BUN/ ___ ) + (Glu/ ___ ) + (EtOH/ ___ )
– Gap is present if greater than __

A
  • (2 x Na+) + (BUN/2.8) + (Glu/18) + (EtOH/4.6)
  • 10
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5
Q

Activated Charcoal

44-95% prevention of absorption

1-2 gm/kg ABW or 50-100 gm in adults

Pros:
- Decreases ___ related problems
- Absorbs most toxins

Cons:
- Difficult administration
- Should NOT be administered if airway is ___

COMMON DECONTAMINATION STRATEGIES

A
  • time
  • unprotected
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6
Q

Whole Bowel Irrigation: ____
- Sustained-release products, “body packers/stuffers”, ___ , ___
- Patient should remain seated on a bedside toilet
- Continue until presence of clear rectal effluent

COMMON DECONTAMINATION STRATEGIES

A
  • Polyethylene glycol
  • iron
  • lithium
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7
Q

Hemodialysis

Effective for the following medications (4)

COMMON DECONTAMINATION STRATEGIES

A
  • Alcohols
  • Lithium
  • Salicylates
  • Theophylline
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8
Q

SALICYLATE TOXICITY - Risk Factors

Salicylate Concentrations
- Mild toxicity: > ___ mg/dL (tinnitus, dizziness)
- Severe toxicity: > ___ mg/dL (CNS effects)

Mixed Acid/Base Disorders
- ↑ anion gap → metabolic ___
- Early respiratory ___ → hyperventilation

Electrolyte Disturbances
- Hypo ___
- Hypo/hypernatremia

A
  • 30
  • 80
  • acidosis
  • alkalosis
  • hypokalemia
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9
Q

Salicylates: Toxicity Signs and Symptoms

A
  • N/V
  • Tinnitus and diaphoresis
  • Decreased GI motility
  • Altered mental status
  • Seizures
  • Hyperventilation
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10
Q

Salicylates: Antidote

Sodium bicarbonate
MOA: Urine ___

Indications
- Serum salicylate level > __ mg/dL
- Anion gap metabolic ___
- Altered mental status

Dosing
- __ - __ mEq/kg (50 to 100 mEq) IV push over 1 to 2 minutes
- May consider continuous infusion and titrate to effect

Monitoring
- Serum pH
- Electrolytes ( __ , __ )

A
  • alkalinization
  • 30
  • acidosis
  • 1-2
  • K, Ca
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11
Q

Sedatives: Toxicity Signs and Symptoms

A
  • CNS depression
  • Respiratory depression
  • Hypotension
  • Bradycardia
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12
Q

Sedatives: Flumazenil ehhhhhhh

MOA: Competes with BZDs at BZD binding site of ___ complex
- use with caution in patients
with ___ (Can induce activity)
- can induce ___ symptoms (N/V, agitation)

A
  • GABA
  • seizures
  • withdrawal
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13
Q

TCAs: Clinical Practice

Indications
- Bed wetting
- ___
- Insomnia
- Migraines
- ___

Examples
- ___
- Desipramine
- Doxepin
- ___
- Nortriptyline

A
  • Depression
  • Neuropathy
  • Amitriptyline
  • Imipramine
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14
Q

TCAs: Pharmacokinetics

Initially, rapidly absorbed from the GI tract
- Anticholinergic effects may ___ GI motility ( ___ rate of absorption)

___ Vd (10-50 L/kg)

Acidemia increases the percentage of
___ TCA

Highly ___

t1/2 = __ - __ hours

A
  • slow, decrease
  • large
  • unbound
  • lipophilic
  • 4-93
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15
Q

TCAs: Pharmacology

  • ___ activity
  • ___ receptor blockade
  • Serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine inhibition
  • Sodium and potassium channel blockade
  • CNS and respiratory ___
A
  • Anticholinergic
  • alpha
  • depression
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16
Q

TCAs: Toxicity Signs and Symptoms

  • Altered mental status
  • ___ tension
  • ___ cardia
  • Prolonged ___
  • Seizures
  • ___ symptoms
A
  • Hypotension
  • Tachycardia
  • QRS
  • Anticholinergic
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17
Q

TCAs: Effects of QRS Prolongation

QRS interval> 100 msec
- Increased risk of ___ activity

QRS interval > 150 msec
- Increased risk of ___

Metabolic acidosis
- Promotes ___ of drug from proteins

A
  • seizure
  • arrhythmias
  • unbinding
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18
Q

TCAs: Antidote

  1. Sodium bicarbonate
    MOA: ___ sodium gradient of poisoned sodium channels

Indications
- QRS interval > ___ msec
- TCA induced ___ or ___
- Metabolic ___

Dosing
- __ - __ mEq/kg (50 to 100 mEq) IV push over 1 to 2 minutes
- May consider ___ infusion and titrate to effect

Monitoring
- Serum pH

D/C when
* QRS interval < ___ msec
* Resolution of ___ abnormalities
* Hemodyamically stable

A
  • increases
  • 100
  • arrhythmias, hypotension
  • acidosis
  • 1-2
  • continuous
  • 100
  • ECG
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19
Q

TCAs: Seizure Management

  • ___
  • ___
  • Phenytoin ?
  • Fosphenytoin ?
  • Levetiracetam ?
A
  • Benzodiazepines
  • Phenobarbital
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20
Q

Antipsychotics: Pharmacology

First Generation: ___ antagonism

Second Generation: ___ / ___ antagonism

A
  • D2
  • 5HT2A/D2
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21
Q

Antipsychotics: Toxicity Signs and Symptoms

  • Hypotension
  • Tachycardia
  • QT/QRS prolongation
  • ___ symptoms (EPS)
  • ___ ___ syndrome (NMS)
  • Sedation
A
  • Extrapyramidal
  • Neuroleptic malignant
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22
Q

Extrapyramidal Symptoms

___ 2 mg IM
- Onset ~ 15 - 20 minutes
- Longer half life

___ 1- 2 mg/kg IV/IM (up to 50 mg) over several minutes
- Onset ~ 5 minutes
- Continue oral therapy for 3 - 4 days: Diphenhydramine 50 mg PO TID

A
  • Benztropine
  • Diphenhydramine
23
Q

Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)

___ up to 42.2C (108F) with altered mental status (delirium or coma) and “lead pipe” muscular ___

Occurs __ - __ days after initiating therapy or after adding a second agent

Often these patients are less than 40 years of age and more often males

Complications continue for 5-10 days
- 84% of cases: Haloperidol, depot fluphenazine, or chlorpromazine use
- Death is secondary to rhabdomyolysis, renal failure, cardiovascular collapse, respiratory failure, arrhythmias, or thromboembolism

A
  • Hyperpyrexia, rigidity
  • 3-9
24
Q

NMS: Treatment

  • D/C offending agent
  • Rapid external cooling
  • ___

___ - Initial dose of 2.5 mg/kg to a maximum of 10 mg/kg
- Maintenance dose is 2.5 mg/kg Q6H until resolved

___ has also been utilized
- 2.5 mg BID initially, increasing to 5 mg TID
- Doses as high as 60 mg/day have been used

A
  • Benzodiazepines
  • Dantrolene
  • Bromocriptine
25
# Serotonin Syndrome Toxic hyperserotonergic state - Excessive stimulation of the post-synaptic receptors in the CNS Triad of symptoms - Altered ___ status - ___ instability - ___ abnormalities Development of serotonin syndrome is rapid - Within 6 hours of an increase in the precipitating medication
- mental - Autonomic - Neuromuscular
26
# Serotonin Syndrome: Pharmacology Direct agonists
Buspirone Lithium LSD Sumatriptan
27
# Serotonin Syndrome: Pharmacology Increased release of serotonin
Amphetamines Cocaine Mirtazapine MDMA (“ecstasy”)
28
# Serotonin Syndrome: Pharmacology Inhibitors of serotonin metabolism
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors Linezolid
29
# Serotonin Syndrome: Pharmacology Reduced uptake of serotonin
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) * Citalopram, fluoxetine, sertraline, paroxetine Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) * Amitriptyline, imipramine, nortriptyline Serotonin norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) * Duloxetine, Venlafaxine Trazodone Dextromethorphan
30
# Serotonin Syndrome: Treatment - D/C offending agent - Benzodiazepines - Aggressive cooling ___ (Periactin®) – 1st generation histamine receptor blocking agent – Non-specific 5-HT1A and 5-HT2A receptor blocking effects * 4 mg PO Q1H * Maximum dose: 16 mg
Cyproheptadine
31
# Serotonin Syndrome vs NMS Serotonin syndrome – Lower fever – Myoclonus, hyperreflexia – Lasting < ___ hours – Responds to ___ – ___ limbs are more affected than upper limbs NMS – ___ fever – Lasting > ___ hours – Responds to bromocriptine – ___ lead pipe rigidity
- 24 - cyproheptadine - lower - higher - 24 - diffuse
32
# Digoxin: Clinical Practice Indicated for the treatment of atrial fibrillation (AF) and heart failure (HF) Monitored with serum concentrations due to narrow therapeutic index - Goal range usually 0.8 to 2 ng/mL - May be 0.5 to 1 ng/mL in HF - Must be drawn at least __ hours after previous dose Digitalis inhibits ___
6 Na/K ATPase
33
# Digoxin: Toxicity Signs/Symptoms Non Cardiac * Nausea/vomiting * Abdominal pain * Anorexia * Confusion * ___ changes Cardiac * ___ cardia * 2nd or 3rd degree heart block * Arrhythmias * ___ kalemia – 5 to 6.4 mEq/L ~ 35% mortality – > 6.4 mEq/L ~ 90% mortality
- Vision - bradycardia - Hyperkalemia
34
# Digoxin: General Management - D/C digoxin - ABC management - Obtain serum digoxin concentration, BMP - Monitor vital signs and ___ changes (arrhythmias, bradycardia) - Administer activated charcoal (if presentation within __ hours of ingestion) - Consider administration of ___ - ___ is NOT effective
- ECG - 2 - Digibind - Hemodialysis
35
# Digoxin: Antidote Digoxin Immune Fab (Digibind®) MOA: Binds free digoxin and tissue bound digoxin released during equilibrium state Indications - Ventricular arrhythmias, bradycardia/2nd or 3rd degree heart block not responsive to atropine - ___ (K > 5.5 mEq/L) with signs/symptoms of toxicity - Serum digoxin concentrations > __ - __ng/mL drawn at least 6 hours after time of ingestion - Ingestion > __ mg in adults, > __ mg in children
- Hyperkalemia - 10-15 - 10, 4
36
# Digibind® Dosing Each vial binds approximately ___ of digoxin Based on acute ingestion of known amount - Total body load (TBL) = mg digoxin ingested x 0.8 - TBL/0.5 mg = # Digibind vials to administer Based on serum digoxin concentrations in adults – # Digibind vials = digoxin concentration (ng/mL) x patient’s weight (kg) / 100
- 0.5 mg
37
# Digoxin: Toxicology Tidbits T or F: Toxicity can occur with acute ingestion and chronic therapy
TRUE
38
T or F: Serum digoxin concentrations are clinically useful after Digibind administration
FALSE useless
39
# Toxicity Signs and Symptoms - CCBs and BBs CCBs - ___ glycemia - metabolic ___ - pulmonary edema - ileus BBs - ___ glycemia - ___ Both - hypotension - bradycardia - ___ - cardiogenic shock - CNS depression
CCBs - hyperglycmeia - acidosis BBs - hypoglycemia - bronchospasms Both - arrythmias
40
# General Management - Monitor vital signs and ECG changes (arrhythmias, bradycardia) - Administer ___ ___ (depending on dosage form and time of presentation) Potential antidotes: - ___ - Calcium - ___ Therapy - Glucagon - High Dose ___ Therapy - Lipid Emulsion Therapy
- activated charcoal - Atropine - Vasopressor - Insulin
41
# Atropine MOA: Blocks ___ activity to ___ heart rate Dosing - 0.5-1 mg IV push - Maximum dose: 3 mg **Readily available, but usually not effective in CCB and BB overdoses**
- parasympathetic, increase
42
# Calcium More effective in ___ overdose MOA: Opens calcium channels and promotes ___ of calcium from sarcoplasmic reticulum resulting in myocardial ___ Dosing (Note: calcium ___ has 3x more elemental calcium than calcium gluconate)
- CCB - release - contractility - chloride
43
# Vasopressor Therapy Binds beta receptors not occupied by BB as well as Gs receptors to eventually stimulate ___ and ___ release to improve ___
cAMP, Ca contractility
44
# Vasopressor Therapy May require higher doses to overcome receptor blockade - Medication selection depends on clinical presentation - Review patient’s ingestion history and monitor vital signs to select appropriate agents Vasodilatory shock → ___ cardiogenic shock → ___
- Norepinephrine - Epinephrine
45
# Glucagon MOA: Stimulates contractility by ___ beta receptors and binding to Gs receptors to activate conversion of ATP to ___ Dosing - Adults: 3-10 mg IV bolus - Children: 50-150 mcg/kg IV bolus - Infusion: initiate infusion at same dose as effective bolus dose (in mg/hr) May need to pre-medicate with ___ and add PRN regimen due to nausea/vomiting with glucagon
bypassing cAMP ondansetron
46
# CCBs and BBs: High Dose Insulin Therapy MOA: Increased ___ and increased intracellular glucose transport Dosing - Insulin drip at 0.5 to 1 unit/kg/hr IV - ___ at 0.5 gm/kg/hr IV - Titrate to ____ > 90 to 100 mm Hg or effect every 30 to 60 minutes (improved contractility, decreased symptoms) Monitoring – Improved contractility within 15 to 60 minutes – Goal glucose: 100 to 250 mg/dL – Serum electrolytes every 1 to 2 hours (glucose, potassium)
- inotropy - Dextrose - SBP
47
# Lipid Emulsion Therapy MOA: Limits ___ of lipophilic medication by creating a “lipid sink” Maximum = ___ mL/kg total dose
bioavailability 10
48
# Toxicology Tidbits - ___ - Not likely to be effective in either CCB or BB overdoses - ___ - More likely to be effective with CCB overdoses vs. BB overdoses. Chloride has 3x more elemental calcium vs. gluconate, but extravasation more likely with chloride form - ___ therapy - Should utilize high doses to overcome beta receptor blockade - ___ May need to pre-medicate with ondansetron and add PRN regimen due to nausea/vomiting - High Dose ___ Therapy - Communicate with healthcare providers to address patient safety - ___ Emulsion Therapy - Depending on infusion pump and dose, may need multiple pumps to administer therapy. Total dose maximum: 10 mL/kg
- atropine - calcium - vasopressor - glucagon - insulin - lipid
49
# Iron: Toxicology Tidbits Toxicity can occur at 10 to 60 mg/kg of elemental iron - Prenatal vitamins contain approximately 65 mg of elemental iron - Children’s vitamins contain approximately 10 to 18 mg of elemental iron Concern is absorption of iron into ___ - Can still experience toxicity with normal serum iron concentrations Human body has no natural mechanism to handle iron overload – Excretion * Male = 1 mg daily * Female = 2 mg daily
tissues
50
T or F: activated charcoal is effective against Fe overdose
FALSE
51
# Iron: Whole Bowel Irrigation Whole Bowel Irrigation: ___ - Procedure usually takes 4 to 6 hours - Patient should remain seated on a bedside toilet - Continue until presence of clear rectal effluent
Polyethylene glycol
52
# Iron: Antidote ___ (Desferal) MOA: ___ iron and enhances ___ elimination Indications - Metabolic acidosis or other signs of shock - Clinical deterioration despite IV fluid administration - Presence of iron tablets on ___ - Serum iron concentration > 500 mcg/mL
Deferoxamine - Chelates, renal - KUB
53
# Deferoxamine Dosing Start at 15 mg/kg/hour - May increase to ___ mg/kg/hour for patients with severe poisoning - Decrease rate if patient experiences ___ Usually continued for __ - __ hours May titrate down based on resolution of symptoms and/or absence of ___ urine
45 hypotension 12-24 vin rose