Trans Checkride GK Flashcards

Question

ST READY (green)

Answer 1

PCL positioned for auto start

Answer 2

(1) BOOST PUMP switch selected (2) PCL positioned for auto start (3) low pressure switch

Answer 3

PROBES ANTI-ICE switch on

Answer 4

Rudder trim aid device off

Answer 5

TRIM DISCONNECT switch activated

Answer 6

IDARS has failed; notify mx - IDARS = Integrated Data Acquisition Recorder

Answer 7

IDARS memory is 80% full or over-G may have occurred; notify mx

Answer 8

An emergency shall be declared & landing accomplished at nearest suitable landing area - consider emergency severity, wx, field facilities, lighting, command guidance

Answer 9

- Emergency conditions less urgent - mission should be terminated - immediate landing may not be necessary

Answer 10

hard surface runway, taxiway, over/underrun - unprepared surface or ditching not recommended

Answer 11

- ldg gear ctrl/indication INOP - trim & TAD INOP - hydraulic px INOP - HYD FL LO annunciator INOP Use emergency landing gear extension

Answer 12

- gear & flap indications normal - bat bus will still be powered if bus tie still working

Answer 13

HYDR FL LO (<1 qt) / hydraulic px < 1800 psi - landing gear INOP - flaps INOP - speed brake INOP - NWS INOP EHYD PX LO: emergency landing gear & flap extension INOP if < 2400 ± 150 psi

Answer 14

- AOA indexer INOP - no stick shaker - aural tones/warnings for CWS INOP - aural tones/warnings for landing gear INOP **- fly known pitch & power**

Answer 15

- loss of power & airspeed - rapid decay of N1, torque, & ITT - propeller moves toward feather due to loss of oil px - N1 may indicate 0% within 5 sec (even if not seized) - GOOF lights: GEN, FUEL PX, OIL PX, OBOGS FAIL (PMU FAIL & CKPT ALT)

Answer 16

- service oil level within 30 minutes of engine shutdown - most accurate results: 15-20 min after engine shutdown - normal oil level: between ADD & MAX HOT - only use dipstick to ascertain

Answer 17

- 23.5 V: do not attempt battery-powered start (use external power) - < 22.0 V: don't use external pwr - starter duty cycle: 4 20-sec cycles (20-sec motor cycles) - cooling periods: 30-sec | 2 min | 5 min | 30 min

Answer 18

Prohibited range for sustained ground operation: 62-80% Propeller overspeed limit (max Np): 110%

Answer 19

V(MO) = 316 KIAS ≤ 18, 769' MSL M(MO) = 0.67 mach > 18,769'

Answer 20

Turbulence penetration speed = 180 KIAS (recommended) 195 KIAS (max)

Answer 21

V(O) = 227 KIAS the speed above which full or abrupt control movements in 1 axis can result in structural damage * below 227 KIAS, aircraft will stall before over-G * full rudder deflection above 150 KIAS will exceed limits of rudder control system*

Answer 22

5 seconds *gage tolerances: 0-G may occur at -0.25 to +0.25 G*

Answer 23

60 seconds (including inverted) * follow neg-G maneuvers with 60-sec upright (+G) flight * don't exceed -2.5 G for more than 30 sec

Answer 24

1. Inverted stalls 2. Inverted spins 3. Aggravated spins past 2 turns 4. Spins with PCL above idle 5. Spins with the landing gear, flaps, or speed brake extended 6. Spins with PMU off 7. Spins below 10,000 feet PA 8. Spins above 22,000 feet PA 9. Abrupt cross-controlled (snap) maneuvers 10. Aerobatic maneuvers, spins, or stalls with a fuel imbalance >50 lbs between wings 11. Tail slides

Answer 25

Clean, sym: -3.5 to 7.0 Gs Gear/flap, sym: 0 to 2.5 Gs Clean, asym: -1.0 to 4.7 Gs Gear/flap, asym: 0 to 2.0 Gs **limit AOB to 180° changes for uncoordinated rolling maneuvers initiated at -1G

Answer 26

Max ramp weight: 6550 lbs Max TO/LDG weight: 6500 lbs Max 0-fuel weight: 5500 lbs Max weight in baggage compartment: 80 lbs Max weight on glareshield: 8.5 lb

Answer 27

* NWS & Defog OFF for landing & takeoff Touchdown max VSI: - 600 fpm (3.7 Gs) [tire pressure 185 ± 5 psi] - 780 fpm (5.1 Gs) [tire pressure 225 ± 5 psi]

Answer 28

- taxi slowly over arresting cables; power IDLE & no braking - avoid gear contact with cable support donuts - don't taxi over with main gear doors open - takeoff & land beyond cables - eject or steer around raised net barriers

Answer 29

- PROBES ANTI-ICE switch ON in visible moisture (prevent freezing of AOA vane & pitot tubes) - Limit: 5,000' band of light rime - ascend/descend to sublime/melt - aerobatics after icing prohibited until ice melts/sublimates - Maneuvers w/ ice accumulation restricted to 30° AOB & 0-2Gs up to stall warning - +10 KIAS to approach speed w ice accumulation

Answer 30

- aerobatic maneuvering: 150 lbs minimum per side - max lateral imbalance: 50 lbs - engine operation w only engine-driven high-pressure fuel pump: 10 hours - max fuel flow: 799 PPH

Answer 31

-23° to 43°C **taxiing aircraft to parking allowed in temps >43°C for <15 minutes

Answer 32

3.6 ± 0.2 psi

Answer 33

4.0 psi **overpressurization safety valve opens at 4.0 psi**

Answer 34

Nude: 103 - 231 lbs Gear: 131.8 - 265.4 lbs

Answer 35

Lightweight: - increased risk of spinal injury - seat less stable; rotation increases - drogue chute correction more severe Heavyweight - increased risk during parachute landing - ejection seat performance for 0-alt, 0-airspeed degraded/lost

Answer 36

positive stability in all configurations throughout flight envelope

Answer 37

Clean: 125 KIAS | 1250 fpm Gear: 105 KIAS | 1500 fpm

Answer 38

Artificial - stick shaker (activated by AOA system) ~ 5 knots before stall Natural - light aerodynamic buffet ~ 3 knots before stall

Answer 39

Power-off: right roll-off occurs near full aft stick Power-on: left roll-off before full aft stick (engine torque) *above 60% torque: full right rudder & full right aileron may not prevent a left roll-off at stall*

Answer 40

landing gear → little effect flaps → aggravates roll-off tendency speed brake → negligible fuel imbalance → negligible

Answer 41

OCF - seemingly random motion of aircraft about 1 or more axes, usually resulting from stall in which inertial forces on aircraft exceed authority of aerodynamic controls - when aircraft doesn't respond immediately to flight controls

Answer 42

Post-stall gyrations - motions of aircraft about 1 or more axes immediately following stall and prior to incipient spin - uncommanded motions about any axis - controls no longer effective - stalled/near stall AOA - erratic airspeed indications - random turn needle deflections

Answer 43

rolling or yawing motion of the aircraft - not steady-state - increasing through 160 KIAS - motions are oscillatory

Answer 44

High stress on propeller occur during spin with RPM below 80% PMU artificially maintains propeller RPM at 80% with PCL at IDLE when aircraft is above 10,000' PA to prevent high stress on propeller

Answer 45

- Airspeed 120-135 KIAS - spin rotation rate: 2-3 sec/turn - altitude loss: 400-500 feet/turn - AOA: 18+ units - Needle: fully deflected in direction of spin

Answer 46

Altitude loss: 400-500 feet/turn Dive recovery: 1500-2000 feet Steady-state spin: ~4,500 feet for 6-turn spin

Answer 47

RCR: - Dry → decreases TOLD - Wet/Icy → increases TOLD Headwind: - HW → decreases - TW → increases Temperature: - Hot/high → increases - Cold/low → decreases Pressure altitude: - High PA → increases - Low PA → decreases

Answer 48

Runway Condition Reading - measure of braking friction coefficient (2 - 26) Dry = 23 - Good Wet = 12 - Medium Icy = 5 - Poor

Answer 49

Max Braking Speed (V(B)) - max speed from which the aicraft can be brought to a stop without exceeding the max design absorption capability of the brakes (3.96 million foot-pounds) *used to calculate abort speed*

Answer 50

the max speed at which an abort may be started and the aircraft stopped within the remaining runway length Assumptions: (1) 3-sec reaction at Max Abort Speed to recognize decision to abort & select idle (2) 3-sec period to apply brakes after idle power selected (3) 20-knot increase during 6-sec period of recognition to braking *when abort speed is above rotation speed, rotation speed becomes abort speed*

Answer 51

Max Endurance - greatest flying time (endurance) per pound of fuel remaining [8.8 units] Max Range - greatest flying distance (range) per pound of fuel remaining [4.9 units]

Answer 52

the level flight speed above the max range speed which yields 99% of max range

Answer 53

(1) 3° approach to 50' obstacle (2) Idle power and threshold speed determined by chart at 50' (3) 2-sec delay from touchdown to initiation of braking (4) Max braking obtained once aircraft on ground & continues to full stop (5) Braking coefficient for dry rwy corresponds to RCR of 23

Answer 54

Staggered - 75 feet In Trail - 150 feet Ice/snow or night - 300 feet

Answer 55

Any time the canopy is closed *wear clear visor at night * optional during period of low visibility

Answer 56

when anticipating 2 or more Gs during any portion of a sortie * aircrews will have a hook blade knife when G-suit not worn

Answer 57

(1) from engine start until engine shutdown (2) flight gloves should be worn during exterior inspections

Answer 58

(1) not approach or allow others to approach an operating engine (2) avoid using excessive power (3) avoid prop or jet blast from other aircraft (4) ensure loose items are secure in the cockpit before opening the canopy (5) do not place objects on canopy transparency

Answer 59

the brevity term for pre-briefed fuel quantity above Bingo at which separation, bug out, or event termination should begin and proceed with the remainder of the mission

Answer 60

the brevity term for a pre-briefed fuel quantity that allows the aircraft to return to the base of intended landing or alternate using preplanned recovery parameters and arriving with normal recovery fuel

Answer 61

fuel on initial or at FAF at the base of intended landing or alternate *200 lbs or whatever is established locally (whichever is higher)

Answer 62

when it becomes apparent that the fuel remaining at final touchdown will be less than the required *after declaring, add fuel status call & amount of fuel remaining (minutes) to each new ATC facility

Answer 63

Crosswind limit (steady state or gusts) > 10 knots *Use LDG flaps for full-stops when heavy weight flaps up landing distance ≥ 80% of actual field length

Answer 64

Low Approach - aircraft will not touch down Restricted Low Approach - will not descend below 500' AGL (or altitude specified)

Answer 65

Normal: 4,000 feet x 75 feet OR heavy weight flaps up landing ground roll plus 500 feet (whichever is greater) Emergency: consider winds, runway conditions & environment, energy state, etc.

Answer 66

* 7,000 feet of airspace & clear of clouds below entry altitude required to remain out of IMC during recovery * OCF recoveries should occur at least 3,000 feet above clouds

Answer 67

(1) perform all parts of aerobatic maneuvering & simulated EPs above 6,000' AGL (2) do not begin OCF spin training below 13,500 feet MSL (3) minimum solo enroute altitude = 5,000' AGL (4) VFR non-local, point-to-point navigation min alt = 3,000' AGL (5) complete slips by 300' AGL

Answer 68

(1) rolling takeoffs (2) stalls (3) slow flight (4) stability demo (5) contact recoveries (6) intentional spin entry (7) simulated EPs (8) straight-in approaches (9) low-closed patterns (10) uncontrolled airfield ops

Answer 69

RNAV: day VMC * cannot fly SIDs, STARs & DPs with RNAV in the title

Answer 70

- check Jeppesen NAVDATA alerts, change notices & NOTAMs before each flight - if database is expired, GPS cannot be used as primary source of IFR navigation

Answer 71

FDE = Fault Detection Exclusion - check FDE before using GPS as primary course of IFR navigation - loss of FDE = unacceptable degradation of system performance

Answer 72

4 total (military or civilian)

Answer 73

- left turns unless otherwise indicated - no overhead patterns with civilian traffic in pattern - instrument approaches, overheads, rectangular patterns & ELPs may be flown

Answer 74

- 200 KIAS or less for the pattern - approach operations within 1,500' AGL & 3 NM of field

Answer 75

Max: 35 knots (steady state) *requires OG/CC approval: - wave heights > 10 feet - surface winds > 25 knots

Answer 76

over-water flights with forecasted or actual wave heights > 10 feet

Answer 77

Engine Malfunction → PEL Engine Failure → strongly consider ejection; may attempt FL if min runway requirements are met

Answer 78

Local - no red chord O&B - no chord XC - tread remaining Nose - tread remaining

Answer 79

* insert after landing & clearing runway, prior to taxiing onto parallel taxiway * fully inserted at all times under covered area

Answer 80

- complete After Landing checklist, - ISS - SOLO, - have Redstick coordinate maintenance to marshal to uncovered parking - shutdown and run normal checklists - open canopy enough to retrieve auxiliary pin

Answer 81

Contact: 1, 2, 6, 7, 9, 10 Instrument: 3, 4, 5, 9, 10 Formation: 3, 4, 5 All: 8 Burr areas used for overflow

Answer 82

Low: 7,000' - 12,000' High: 15,000' - 22,000' altimeter 28.92-29.41: 21,000' altimeter 29.42-29.91: 21,500'

Answer 83

can proceed to lateral confines if (1) established on PIIPE/FORDE & (2) level at 13,000' Proceed Direct: proceed direct at last assigned altitude & request climb/descent within lateral confines

Answer 84

- expect altitude assignment prior to leaving area - High RIO (14,000'): low areas 4/5/7/8/9/10 - Low RIO (6,000'): low areas 1/2/3/6

Answer 85

1. Emergency 2. Min Fuel 3. Formations 4. Radar Entries 5. Established in pattern 6. VFR entry

Answer 86

1. Safety of flight / emergency / deconfliction / separation 2. Clearances or acknowledgements 3. Gear down calls 4. Position reports 5. Requests

Answer 87

Dep Leg: ½ mi past DER - 1 mi past DER BP St-Thru: DER - DER Offset: DER - ½ mi past DER Center: cleared - breakout point

Answer 88

No Break (1) conflict on inside downwind (2) 5-mi & 2-mi on straight-in (3) between "report HK" & LK (4) orbiting HK No Closed: (1) between initial & break (2) 5-mi & 2-mi on straight-in (3) between initial & halfway between HK & LK

Answer 89

(1) no more than 3 (Honcho)/5 (Wizard) in pattern (2) no one breaking out (3) no one between "report HK" & "report LK"

Answer 90

- exiting runway gives way taxiing on parallel runway - aircraft on taxiway returning gives way to aircraft taxiing to depart

Answer 91

- T-6/T-1: 4 (combined) - T-38: 6 (3 per side); only 2 aircraft max on a given side

Answer 92

VMC in MOA: 3 SM visibility / clear of clouds - advise controller - IFR separation will be provided until pilot advises 3 SM & clear of clouds

Answer 93

Reduced Same Runway Separation - T6/T6: 3,000' - low approach behind T&G, T&G behind full stop, full stop/T&G behind formation (both cold) - formation, T38, T1/T6: 6,000' - other trainer/T6 formation: 6,000' - no RSRS: 6,000'

Answer 94

(1) between trainer & non-trainer aircraft (2) "cleared for the option" (3) between departure following arrival aircraft (4) wet runway; 47 OG/CC approves ops on wet runway conditions (5) safety of aircraft (determined by Tower Watch Supervisor)

Answer 95

- UNRESTRICTED - SOLO (Inner Rings, Formation, Pattern Only): 3100/5 - DUAL: 3100/3 - RESTRICTED PATTERNS: 2600/3 - SIMULATANEOUS INSTR: 2100/3 - ALTERNATING INSTR: ≥ approach mins - STOP LAUNCH: local launches stopped - WX RECALL: recover 250 KIAS - 47 OG RECALL: recover 200 KIAS - STANDBY: awaiting improving conditions - TERMINATED: all local flying complete

Answer 96

- full use of MOA & Honcho's pattern - XW within solo limits - solos can mx visual reference with ground during dep, area work & recovery - Honcho controls pattern

Answer 97

*3100 MSL/ 5SM* - XW within solo limits - Honcho controls pattern * INNER RINGS: - limited to specified areas - mx visual reference during dep, area & recovery * FORMATION ONLY - mx VMC during dep, area work & recovery with sufficient ground references to visually navigate * PATTERN ONLY - solos can only fly in the pattern

Answer 98

* 3100 MSL / 3 SM * - no solos allowed

Answer 99

* 2600 MSL / 3 SM * - no solos - pattern entry via (1) initial takeoff, (2) straight-in, (3) closed/crosswind from center - no breakouts - 8 aircraft max

Answer 100

* better than 2100 MSL / 3 SM, but less than Restricted Patterns* - ATIS will inform recovery - T6 recover via GBS-B unless coordinated with SOF & approved by RAPCON

Answer 101

* suitable approach minimums * - all aircraft recover for instrument approach - multiple radar patterns allowed during T6 window with prior approval

Answer 102

- all local launches are stopped - O&B/XC may launch with SOF approval

Answer 103

- SOF can full stop/recall acft to VFR/radar pattern - flying status & nearest suitable alternate will be announced on GUARD - discontinue profiles & await sequencing for recovery - climb to top of assigned altitude block & hold at max endurance speed - priority: solos, divert fuel - recover @ 250 KIAS - status changes to STANDBY once all aircraft have landed; PATTERN ONLY once aircraft est in pattern

Answer 104

- recover same as WX RECALL - recover @ normal airspeeds (200 KIAS) - don't contact SOF unless special handling required

Answer 105

- awaiting improving conditions - all local aircraft have recovered - Wx ships, O&B, XC sorties have launch with SOF approval

Answer 106

- all local sorties are complete (including off-station returns) through scheduled start time of launches the next day

Answer 107

- Closed - In Place - Restricted Patterns - Restricted Patterns/Uncontrolled - Uncontrolled - Dual - AHC Sterile - Solo In Pattern

Answer 108

Honcho: 3100 MSL / 5 SM Wizard 13: 3100 MSL / 5 SM Wizard 31: 5500 MSL / 5 SM * requires VFR operations to & from Wizard & Rio One arrival

Answer 109

- climb/descend to 2600' MSL & turn to the WEST - contact RSU: "insufficient radar separation, proceeding to VFR entry" - do not cross ground tracks until at 2600' MSL - enter pattern through VFR entry

Answer 110

- maintain 2100' & turn toward corner of crosswind & outside downwind - contact RSU: "insufficient radar separation, proceeding towards outside downwind - enter patterns on crosswind/ODW - maneuver to avoid conflict or perform 360° turn to the west

Answer 111

@ RCT: - climb to breakout altitude - maintain pattern groundtrack - exit 90-to-initial (turn away from pattern) - descend & re-enter for new runway

Answer 112

- PF = only 1 actively controlling aircraft at a time - PF responsible for completion of all checklists - attempt to complete checklist without interruptions - restart checklist at first step or 2-3 steps prior to missed or interrupted step - do not start new checklist until completing previous checklist

Answer 113

- continue through initial at TPA & 200 KIAS - @ end of break zone, call: break point straight through" - @ DER: turn crosswind (clear for other aircraft)

Answer 114

- max power - climbing turn away from conflict - raise gear & flaps & confirm before 150 KIAS - level off at breakout altitude & fly to VFR entry - make radio call when able - arrive at VFR entry at TPA with wings level ** never breakout from final turn, perform a go-around **

Answer 115

> 500' AGL: power as required ≤ 500' AGL: power as required; wait for positive climb indication before raising gear & flaps * landing phase: PCL - MAX; mx landing attitude; positive climb before raising gear & flaps * Offset to avoid overtaking aircraft on runway performing TO/T&G - turn ~20° away from runway & parallel - add "offset" to C/S for RSU requests

Answer 116

* used for Forced Landing * O - On profile for field of intended landing R - Runway in sight M - in a position to safely Maneuver & land 3: 300' AGL - final decision to continue or eject 2: 200' AGL - confirm & report gear down 1: 100' AGL - centerline

Answer 117

- trade airspeed for altitude - initiate 2-G pull-up to a 20° angle of climb until approaching 20 KIAS above desired glide speed - 0.5-G bunt-over to capture desired glide speed * TCCCBIP *

Answer 118

½ DME + Key = (distance to field/2) + HK (3000') or LK (1500') ** add field elevation **

Answer 119

Determine Max Glide Distance: [current MSL alt - Key - field elevation] x 2 / 1000 = Max Glide Distance (NRST)

Answer 120

* HK: 3000' AGL - 120 KIAS - gear down - ⅓ down runway - runway heading - wings level ** ORM 3-2-1 ** * XC: 2200-2300' AGL - 120 KIAS - gear down - perpendicular to runway heading * LK: 1500' AGL - 120 KIAS - gear down + flaps TO - ⅔ WTD abeam intended point of touchdown - fuel filler cap on runway * BK: 600-800' AGL - 120 KIAS - gear + flaps LDG * Final: 110 KIAS - gear down + flaps LDG - plan for 1,000' final prior to intended point of touchdown

Answer 121

CLEF check: - C: Clear the area & CWS panel - L: Loose items stowed - E: Engine within limits - F: Fuel balance within 50 pounds

Answer 122

- 1 hour before to 1 hour after estimated time of arrival - at or above lowest compatible approach minimums - TEMPO lines may be below minimums - straight-in or sidestep: must meet required mins - circling approach: must meet ceiling & prevailing visibility minimums

Answer 123

- compatible instrument approach not available at destination - predicted weather from 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA (including TEMPO) are less than indicated - ceiling of 2,000' AGL & 3 SM visibility - forecasted crosswinds outside of limits

Answer 124

- all compatible approaches require unmonitored NAVAID - airfield does not report weather observations - alternate not authorized on all compatible approaches - any not disqualifying airfield or compatible approaches in "IFR Alternate Mins" section

Answer 125

1. ESTABLISH pitch & power 2. TRIM 3. CROSSCHECK 4. ADJUST

Answer 126

18 NM within 10° sector 10 NM for remainder of coverage

Answer 127

Localizer offset > 5° from centerline = instrument guidance system Localizer offset > 3° from centerline = Localizer Type Directional Aid (LDA)

Answer 128

- VOR & VOR/DME: TO-FROM indicator makes first positive change indicating FROM - TACAN: range indicator stops decreasing - ADF: bearing pointer passes 90° to inbound course

Answer 129

- ½ scale deflection - LOC: full-scale deflection - RNAV: 1x required accuracy - NDB: ± 5° of required bearing

Answer 130

A: < 90 KIAS B: 91 - 120 KIAS C: 121 - 140 KIAS D: 141 - 165 KIAS E - 166+ KIAS H - Helicopters (may use Cat A minima)

Answer 131

- don't begin descent/approach if wx < mins - St-in/sidestep: use prevailing vis or RVR - Circling: use ceiling & vis in parentheses - if wx drops below mins during approach, continue to MAP - do not fly to airport if hazardous wx reported

Answer 132

- review IAP - review weather - check heading & attitudes - coordinate lost comm procedures - reduce to maneuvering airspeed prior to IAF

Answer 133

* in addition to VFR CTAF calls * - established on final approach or released by ATC - departing FAF inbound - completion/termination of approach - executing missed approach

Answer 134

/ = more than 1 type required - additional equipment may be needed to accomplish other portions of procedure - notes will list other equipment needed - Plan View indicates equipment required for transition from enroute to IAP

Answer 135

- 45/180 - 80/360 - Base Turn/Teardrop

Answer 136

SNERT S - Straight-In N - NoPT E - Established on inbound course R - Radar vectors to final approach course T - Timed approached from holding fix

Answer 137

- type of course reversal - holding pattern printed in heavy black line in plan view & established over IF or FAF

Answer 138

DA = Decision Altitude - specified altitude (MSL) on an IAP in which the pilot decides whether to continue approach or initiate missed approach MDA = Minimum Descent Altitude - lowest altitude (MSL) to which descent is authorized on final approach of a IAP with not electronic glideslope is provided

Answer 139

VDP = Visual Descent Point - defined point on final approach course of non-precision straight-in IAP from which normal descent from MDA to runway touchdown may be commenced (as long as runway enviro is in sight) VDP = HAT/(descent angle x 100)

Answer 140

Do not descend below MDA, DA or DH unless runway environment is in sight: - runway & rwy markings - runway end identifier lights - runway lights - visual glideslope indicator (VGSI) - threshold/threshold markings/threshold lights - TDZE , markings or lights - approach lighting system (ALS) Do not descend below 100' above TDZE unless red terminating bars or red side row bars visible

Answer 141

Ground: within 4° of designated radial 0.5 NM of posted distance Air: within 6°

Answer 142

BEFORE-Time - Battery Bus - ELT - FDR Maintenance - OBOGS - RAM Air Valve - Emergency Flaps - Clock

Trans Checkride GK Flashcards

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