transfer of title #1 Flashcards

(97 cards)

1
Q

Title insurance

A

protects buyers and lenders agains any financial loss that might be incurred beacause of title defects discoverd after closing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Abstract of title

A

is a summary of thee title history.e

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

chain of title.

A

history of ownership which shows conveyances and encumbrances. the chain beguins with the current owner and works backwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

markatable titile

A

is a clean title has no deffects or clouds to which a reasonable buyer would object. it is not necesseraly a perfect title.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

insurable title

A

its one agains there may be known deffects such as easment, but the title compays have notify the parties of the defect and has a greed to insure against it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

a clound on the title (aka title defect)

A

is any encumbrances, such as a lien or inheritance claim, that prevent the seller from having a clear, marketable title.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

mechanics lien

A

A lien created by statute for the purpose of securing priority of payment for the price or value of work performed and materials furnished in construction or repair of improvements to land, and which attaches to the land as well as the improvements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

property tax liens

A

A tax lien is a legal claim against the property of an individual or business that fails to pay taxes owed to the government

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

covenant of seisin

A

the grantor holds title and possession of the property. he has legal Rights that he owns it. The grantor’s warrants that there are no encumbrances and is free of liens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

convenient of right to convey

A

the grantor has the right to convey both titles to and possession of the property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

convenant agains encombranses

A

the grantors assure the grantee that there are no encumbrances against the title other than those identified in public records or the deed itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

the real property owner is called…?

A

grantor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

the new owner of a house is called …?

A

grantee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

convenient of further assurances

A

the grantor promises to take whatever actions necessary within his power to correct any title defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

convenient of warranty or warranty forever

A

its the most important convenant, the grantor promises to protect and defend the title against lawful claims made by others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

general warranty

A

seller warrants or guarantees the title against defects that may have arisen during
the entire life of the property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

special warranty

A

seller only warrants or guarantees the title against defects that may have arisen during the period of ownership of the property.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

QUITCLAIM deed

A

transfers the title of a property from one person to another, with little to no buyer protection. The grantor, the person giving away the property, gives their current deed to the grantee, the person receiving the property. The title is transferred without any amendments or additions.

deed releasing a person’s interest with no warranties. Typically in non-sale situations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

special warranty deed

A

offers protection to the buyer through the seller’s guarantee that the title has been free and clear of encumbrances during their ownership of the property.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

bargain a sale deed

A

indicates that only the seller of a property holds the title and has the right to transfer ownership. This type of deed offers no guarantees for the buyer against liens or other claims to the property, so the buyer could be responsible for these issues if they turn up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

habendum clause

A

states the property is transferred without restrictions. This means the new owner has absolute ownership of the property upon satisfying their conditions (usual payment in full) and has the right to sell or bequeath the property to an heir and so on.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

acknowledgment

A

means that the party signing the deed indicates that the signature is their own and they signed voluntarily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

constructive notice

A

Signifies that a person should have known as a reasonable person would have.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

actual notice

A

is when a person actually knows about the existence of a fact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
real estate settlement procedures act (RESPA)
ensures that buyers receive an estimate of closing cost at least 3 business days before closing
26
the closing disclosure (CD)
is a five-page form that provides final details about the mortgage loan you have selected. It includes the loan terms, your projected monthly payments, and how much you will pay in fees and other costs to get your mortgage (closing costs). lenders must provide this at least 3 days before closing
27
Loan Estimate (LE)
a three-page form that you receive after applying for a mortgage. The Loan Estimate tells you important details about the loan you have requested. The lender must provide you a Loan Estimate within three business days of receiving your application
28
Prorations
share expenses that either party own at closing are prorated ( divided between) the parties depending on when closing occurs
29
foreclosure
is a property being sold by the lender due to buyers default
30
debit is a ...?
the charge that a party must pay
31
credit is a ...?
a charge that a party has already paid, an amount that will be reimbursed, or an amount that is promised
32
property taxes are calculated based on...?
properties assessed value
33
the first course of action for disputed home warranty claims is typical...?
meditation
34
if it is unsuccessful the course of action for disputed homes to go through meditation, disputed claims will go to.....?
arbitration
35
short sale
is a property that the seller, with the lender's permission, is selling for less than the seller owes against the property
36
acceleration clause
maybe in effect once a borrower defaults. this clause allows the lender to make the entire loan amount due immediately.
37
real estate owned (REO)
is the term for a property owned by a lender because it failed to sell in a foreclosure auction after the borrower defaulted on their mortgage
38
accrued expenses
items that the seller owes on the closing day but that will eventually be paid by the buyer and appears in the seller debit column and the buyer's credit column
39
prepaid expenses
are those already paid by the seller but that the buyer should pay a portion of .these items are credited to the seller and debited to the buyer.
40
Convenient of right to convey
Grantor has the title to convey
41
Convenient against encumbrances
Title has no encumbrances excepted for those specified
42
Survey
Shows boundaries and proves no encroachment exist
43
Bargain and sale deed
Implied good title but no warranties to protect the grantee
44
A legal description can contain
3 primary types of legal description are Metes and bounds, lot and block and rectangular government survey system (description of real estate that identifies its precise location, boundaries and any easements for the purpose of a legal transaction, such as a transfer of ownership
45
A testator
Person who drafts a will
46
Recording provides
Constructive notice
47
Schedule of exceptions
The list of items a title insurance policy does not cover
48
Tax relief act of 1997
Allows buyers to use retirement funds for closing costs in certain circumstances
49
Tax relief program are available for
First time Maryland home buyers
50
What does property taxes pay for?
They pay for schools, police, roadways basically everything that keeps a town running
51
For incoming producing residential property, the investor would use the _____ years depreciation schedule
27.5
52
For incoming producing COMERSIAL property, the investor would use the ____ year depreciation schedule
39 years
53
What forms the boundaries of a township?
Township lines and range lines
54
What type of value is of interest to taxing authorities?
Assessed value
55
What are the two types of physical depreciation?
Curable nad incurable
56
Local authorities lack police power over which of the following?
Federal government construction projects
57
When a mortgage is used as a security instrument, who holds the mortgage and the promissory note?
The lender hold the mortgage and the note
58
The ____ lients take priority over all other liens
HOA
59
Title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 states that its purpose, in part, is to require that real estate appraisals used in connection with federally related transactions be performed ______.
In writing and in accordance with the uniform standard
60
a valuation is another term for a _______ appraisal
Formal appraisal
61
Mortgage value
The price of lender believes a property will bring at a foreclosure sale
62
Insured value
The cost to replace a destroyed building
63
Investment value
Expected rate of return on an investment property
64
Value in use
What a property's Worth to the person using it
65
Assessed value
What the local taxing authority thinks it's worth
66
Market value ( also called fair market value)
The price at wish a buyer and seller will agree to under usual market conditions
67
Indirect cost
Fees and administrative cost
68
Direct cost
Labor and materials
69
Value
What the property is worth
70
Price
What the seller accepts and the buyer pays
71
Cost
What will take to recreate the property
72
Demand
How attractive and move in ready is the property, are there more buyers and sellers or more sellers than buyers
73
Utility
Low utility = lower demand = downward pressure on value, and vice versa
74
Scarcity
Related to the man, and reflects the supply or lack of supply of property
75
Transferability
How easily a property can be transferred to another, if a property can be easily transferred, it's value falls
76
The replacement cost
Reflects the cost to build a functionally equivalent improvement
77
The reproduction cost
Is the cost to build an exact replica of the subject, with the same materials and deficiencies
78
Physical depreciation
Is a loss and value caused by deterioration and physical condition, may be curable or incurable Wear and tear
79
Functional obsolescence
Is a loss and value caused by defects in the sign, such as poor floor plan or A typical or incompetent sizes/types of rooms
80
External depreciation or economic obsolescence
Is it loss and value caused by an undesirable or hazardous influence of sight
81
A CMA comparative market analysis determines the ____
Appropriate listing price range
82
If a listing reads "cash sell only" it's likely the home____
Can't be financed because it needs major repairs
83
Appraiser Independence requirements (AIR)
to insure that no person applies any pressure on the appraiser to report a value other than the fair market value opinion developed and reported by the appraiser.
84
The uniform standard of professional appraiser practice (USPAP) use 4 steps which are ....
1. State the problem 2. Identified data needed 3. gather and analyze data 4. Determine highest and best use
85
Curable depreciation
Refers to an item of physical deterioration or functional options where the cost to cure the item is less than or the same as the anticipated increase in the properties value after the item is cured Is the cost to correct the condition or defect is less than the amount of value restore
86
The reproduction cost
Approach determines the cost to build an exact replica of the property with the same materials and deficiencies
87
The replacement value
Approach bases value on the cost to build a functionally equivalent property
88
Incurable depreciation
Includes items not practical to correct
89
Capitalization rate or cap rate
It's an annual rate of return from an income producing property. Used by a pricers to estimate value of rent generating properties.
90
Bracketing
Refers to selecting properties with features that are inferior, similar, and superior to the subject property to determine a probable range of values for property
91
The principal of regression
It's a decline in value due to the decline in value of neighboring properties
92
The principal substitution
A reasonable person will not pay more for a property if a comparable one can be had for less
93
The principal of assemblage
The process of combing the parcels
94
The principle of progression
The increase in value from increased surrounding property values
95
The principle of anticipation
is a method used by an appraiser where the appraiser uses the income approach to determine the value of a property. The appraiser will estimate the present worth of future benefits for the property.
96
Real estate licenses perform comparative Market analysis CMAs to help client ____
Make price decision
97
A miner can transfer a title but, such a transfer can only be voidable by....
The minor