Transfusion Flashcards

1
Q

Symptomatic anemia

A

<7g/dl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Thrombocyte count when platelet concentrate should be administered

A

Less than 50,000/uL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

1 unit of whole blood or packed RBC can increase hematocrit by___

A

3% hematocrit or

1.0-1.5 g/dL hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Storage time of CP2D

A

21 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Additive solution content

A

Saline
Adenine
Glucose
Mannitol

SAGM /MAGS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Purpose of Mannitol in additive solutions

A

Stabilizing agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Content of Rejuvenating Solutions

A

PIGPA OR PIPA

Phosphate
Inosine
Glucose
Pyruvate
Adenine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

light spin speed

End product

A

3200 xg for 2-3 mins
Or
2000 xg for 3 minutes

Product: platelet Rich Plasma
Temp: 22 deg Celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Heavy spin speed
End product
Temperature

A
5000 xg for 5 minutes
Or 
3600 RPM for 5 minutes
Platelet poor plasma
4 deg Celsius
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Platelet concentrate should contain at least _____

And ph

A

5.5 x 10 ^10 platelets

pH: greater than or equal to 6.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Agitation of platelets purpose

A

Prevent aggregation and to promote gas exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How many units can platelet concentrate be pooled

A

6-8

6-10 (Turgeon)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How many mL of plasma should be left after removal of platelets

A

50 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

One RDP unit should increase px platelet count by

A

5,000 to 10,000 uL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

One SDP can increase px platelet count by

A

30,000 to 60,000/uL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

SDP unit should contain at least

A

3.0 x 10 ^11 platelets per unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Failure to yield an increase in recipient’a platelet count leas than 5,000/uL

A

Platelet refractoriness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Cryoprecipitate contains (factors)

A
Factor VIII
Factor XIII
vWF Factor
Fibrinogen
Fibronectin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Cryoprecipitate + Thrombin =

A

Fibrin glue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How many mL of plasma removed in preparation of cryoprecipitate

A

10-15 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Method used to irradiate blood components

A

Cesium ^137 source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

WBC products aka

And examples

A

BRMs - biologic response modifiers

Cytokines and complement fragments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

2 methods to reduce leukocytes

A

Pre-storage leuko-reduction

  • removed prior storage
  • prevent febrile transfusion caused by both WBCs and BRMs

Post-storage leuko-reduction

  • removed prior to issuing the unit
  • can prevent febrile transfusion by WBCs but not by BRMs (BRMs have accumulated during storage)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Removal and storage of blood work or blood components before an elective procedure for reinfusion during or after the procedure

A

Preoperative Collection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Blood collected before a surgical procedure and simultaneously replaces a comparable volume of crystalloid or colloid solution
Acute Normovolemic Hemodilution
26
Collection and reinfusion of blood lost by a px during surgery Device that utilize vacuum used to collect shed blood
Intraoperative Collection
27
Blood is collected from a drainage tube placed at the surgical site Used microaggregate filter to screen our debris
Postoperative Collection
28
General requirements for autologous donation
Age (no requirements) Hb (11g/dl) Hct (33%) 3 day intervals (3 day before surgery)
29
Most common anticoagulant for apheresis
Acid Citrate Dextrose (ACD)
30
Platelet count of donor for plateletpheresis
150 x10^3/uL
31
Requirements for erythracytopheresis Male Female
Male 5’1” 130 lbs hct 40% | Female 5’5” 150 lbs hct 40%
32
Mendel’s Law First Second Third
First Law: Law of Segregation Second Law: Law of Independent Assortment Third Law: Law of Dominance
33
Only blood group antigen that has been shown to be sex-linked
Xg
34
Mathematical formula that explains Mendelian Inheritance
Hardy-Weinberg Principle p+ q = 1 p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1
35
Trisomy 18
Edward’s Syndrome
36
Trisomy 13
Patau Syndrome
37
Anti-A1 Lectin
Dolichos biflorus
38
Anti-B Lectin
Griffonia (Bandeiraea) simplicifolia
39
Anti-H lectin
Ulex europaeus
40
Greatest amount of H Ag to Lowest amount of H ag
O > A2 > B > A2B > A1 > A1B
41
similar to Bombay except that there is normal ABH expression in secretions and body fluids
Para-Bombay phenotype | Genes: hh, Se
42
What microorganism associated with acquired B phenomenon
Proteus vulgaris (sometimes E.coli)
43
Bacterial enzyme associated with acquired B
Deacetylase
44
Treatment for RBCs with acquired B phenomenon
Acetic Anhydride
45
ISBT # of Rh
004
46
Immunogenicity of Rh antigens
D > c > E > C > e
47
Individuals do not possess the genes needed to synthesize Cc or Ee
D Deletion (D- -)
48
Antigen expressed when both c and e in the cis position or located in the same haplotype
f (ce)
49
Who developed Hybridoma technology
Kohler and Milstein
50
Antibody associated with Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria and demonstrated by Donath Landsteiner test
Autoanti-P
51
Second rated to D in terms of immunogenicity
Kell Ag
52
What phenotype has - an X linked inheritance - rbcs are acanthocytic in nature - wbcs are def of NADH-oxidase enzyme - associated with CGD - rbcs lack Kx and Km
McLeod phenotype
53
Confers to resistance against Plasmodium vivax infections
Duffy null phenotype (anti-Fy3)
54
Disappear rapidly both in vivo and in vitro thats why they are notoriously known for association with DHTR - demonstrate dosage - resist lysis in 2M Urea
Kidd Antibodies
55
Can produce mixed field agglutination
Anti-Lua
56
Incomplete antibody best demonstrated in AHG phase
Anti-Lub
57
Time for centrifugation in serofuge
20 seconds
58
Presence of two cell populations in a single individual
Chimerism ``` True chimerism (twins) Mosaicism (dispermy) - two sperm cells fertilized one egg ```
59
Gel Card centrifugation time
10 minutes
60
``` Sulfhydryl agents (2) And purpose ```
2-mercaptoethanol (2-ME) Dithiothreitol (DTT) - destroys pentameric structure of agglutinating IgM
61
Lectins is to plants as | Prolectin is to
Snails
62
Specific gravity of copper sulfate hemoglobin determination and equivalent hemoglobin Time for reading
1.053 (12.5 g/dL) 15 seconds
63
How many times blood bank is inspected each year
Once per year
64
Temperature of storage of antisera
2-6 deg Celsius
65
Indications of Exchange Transfusion
0.5 mg/dl/hr rise in bilirubin or | Rise of 10 mg/dl in the first 24 hours
66
Intrauterine transfusion is done by (2)
Intraperitineally | Cordocentesis
67
Indications of Intrauterine transfusion
- amniotic fluid A450 results are in high zone II or zone III - hb level < 10g/dl - fetal hydrops on ultrasound examination
68
Post thaw storage of FFP
1-6 deg C, transfuses within 24 hours
69
Purpose of plastic bag in thawing FFP
Prevent water contamination of the entry port
70
Examples of crystalloid
Ringer’s lactate solution | 7.5% normal saline