Transfusion Transmitted Diseases (TTD) Flashcards
(81 cards)
1
Q
The following are confirmatory tests used to detect false-positives EXCEPT?
- PCR
- Western Blot
- RIPA
- RIBA
- None of the above
A
None of the above
2
Q
Hepatitis is inflammation of the liver?
True / False
A
True
3
Q
The following are classic symptoms of hepatitis EXCEPT?
- Jaundice
- Dark urine
- Splenomegaly
- Malaise
A
- Splenomegaly
- Classic symptoms: Jaundice, dark urine, hepatomegaly, anorexia, malaise, fever, nausea, abdominal pain and vomiting.*
4
Q
Which of the following Hepaptitis viruses are transmitted via the fecal/oral route?
- HAV
- HEV
- HCV
- HBV
A
- Hep A and Hep E
- HAV and HEV
5
Q
Which of the following Hep. viruses are transmitted parenterally?
- HBV
- HCV
- HDV
- HGV (HB-C)
- All of the above
A
All of the above
6
Q
What testing is used to detect non-A and non-B Hepatitis?
- PCR
- WB
- ALT
- RIPA
A
ALT (Alanine aminotransferase testing)
7
Q
Belongs to the Picornaviridae family of viruses?
- Hep B
- Hep C
- Hep A
- Hep D
A
Hep. A
8
Q
Hep. A virus is shed in the feces during the incubation period of?
- 30 days
- 14 days
- 28 days
- 21 days
A
28 days
9
Q
Belongs to the Hepadnaviridae family of viruses?
- Hep C
- Hep E
- Hep A
- Hep B
A
Hep B
10
Q
The first marker to appear in Hep B infection is?
How is this detected?
A
HBV DNA
PCR
11
Q
Which of the following regarding Hep. B antigens is INCORRECT?
- HBsAg: On the outer envelope of the environment and is detectable 2 - 12 weeks after exposure and undetectable 12 - 20 weeks after HBsAb production.
- HBcAg: Present in serum but detectable
- HBeAg: Disappears before HBsAg in recovering patients (convalescence)
- None of the above
A
HBcAg: Present in serum but UNdetectable
12
Q
The HBIG and vaccine are administered after ______ and within _____ of birth.
A
- exposure
- 12 hours
13
Q
What has been used as the first pathogen intervetion and used to treat albumin since 1948?
- Heat activation
- Heat treatment
- Heat inactivation
- Heated detergent
A
Heat inactivation
14
Q
This is the most common for of Hepatitis?
A
Hep A
15
Q
60 - 70% develop chronic liver disease
A
Hep C
16
Q
Can be transmitted via needle stick, hemodialysis, human bite, tattoo, body piercing, transplant, transfusion, perinatally.
A
Hep C
17
Q
Compared to HBV alone, this causes a more severe acute disease, with a higher risk of fulminant hepatitis with a lower risk of chronic hepatitis.
A
Hep D
18
Q
Which of the following statesments regarding HIV is NOT true?
- HIV 1 & 2 recognized as etiologic agents of AIDS
- Retrovirus with an envelope of glycoproteins, core proteins, inner viral RNA core and reverse transciptase.
- Enters cells by binding virus glyocoprotein 120 to cell receptors.
- CD4+ lymhs, monocytes and other non-antigen presenting cells have glycoprotein 120 receptors.
A
CD4+ lymhs, monocytes and other non-antigen presenting cells have glycoprotein 120 receptors.
Correct statement is: CD4+ lymhs, monocytes and other antigen presenting cells have glycoprotein 120 receptors.
19
Q
When is a patient calssified as having clinical AIDS?
- CD4 count <200/uL
- CD4 count <100/uL
- CD4 count <300/uL
- CD4 count <1000/uL
A
CD4 count <200/uL
20
Q
What test is used for the qualitative detection of HIV 1 and HIV 2?
- RIBA
Western Blot - RIA
- EIA
A
EIA
21
Q
What are the confirmatory tests for HIV 1 and HIV 2?
- HIV-2 EIA combo test
- HIV-1 Indirect immunoflourescence assay
- HIV RNA NAT
- All of the above
A
All of the above
22
Q
What HIV markers are detected together? During which phases?
A
- Anti-p24
- Anti-gp41
- Acute to AIDS
23
Q
Human T-cell Lymphotropic Viruses (HTLV) Type I & II are best described as?
- Retroviruses
- DNA Viruses
- RNA Retroviruses
- RNA Viruses
A
RNA Retroviruses
24
Q
HTLV-I and HTLV-II are associated with the following infections EXCEPT?
- Pneumonia
- Tachycardia
- Bronchitis
- Unrinary infections
A
Tachycardia
25
Is associated with a progressive neurological disoder known as ______ \_\_\_ associated myelopathy or tropical spastic paraparesis.
HTLV-I
26
HTLV-II is linked with uvetis, infective dermatitis of children, Sjorgens syndrome, polymyositis, and facial nerve palsy?
True / False
FALSE
**HTLV-I** is linked with uvetis, infective dermatitis of children, Sjorgens syndrome, polymyositis, and facial nerve palsy
27
HTLV-I is transmitted?
* Parenterally (blood transfusion/drug abuse)
* Sexually (most common)
* Vertically (breast feeding)
* All of the above
All of the above
28
WNV is a member of the Flaviviridae virus family?
True / False
False
WNV is a member of the **Flavivirus** family
29
West Nile Virus can be described as?
* Member of the the Flavivirus family
* Human, avian, and equine neuropathogen
* A ss RNA lipid-enveloped virion
* All of the above
All of the above
30
West Nile Virus is capable of crossing the blood-brain barrier and causing?
* West Nile Encephalitis
* West Nile menigitis
* West Nile menigoencephalitis
31
How is WNV transmitted?
Mosquito bites human after feeding from infected birds
32
Once infected with WNV there is no treatment only supportive therapy?
True / False
True
33
Cytomegalovirus is a member of which virus group?
Herpes virus group
34
CMV can remain latent in tissues and leukocytes for years?
True / False
True
35
All of the following are individuals at moderate risk of CMV EXCEPT?
* Solid organ transplant recipient
* Persons w/ HIV
* May require allogenic BM transplant
* Fetuses
Fetuses and poeple who have had an allogenic BM transplant are **HIGH RISK**
36
How is CMV transmitted?
Contact with infected body fluids
37
Antibodies to CMV last a lifetime and cn be detected by?
* ELISA
* Flourescence assays
* Hemagglutination
* Latex agglutination
* All of the above
All of the above
38
Active CMV infection can be detected by?
Viral culture of urine, throat swabs and tissue samples.
39
There is a commecially available treatment for CMV?
True / False
False
40
EBV belongs to which virus family?
Herpes
41
EBV is known as?
* The kissing disease
* infecious mononuclosis
* Fifth disease
* The 1st and 2nd choice are correct
* All of the above
* The kissing disease
* infecious mononuclosis
42
True or False
EBV is not detected by current technques and could cause severe consequences in immunocompromised and organ transplant patients
True
43
Human Parvovirus (B19) is what type of virus?
* ss DNA enveloped
* ss DNA non-enveloped
* ss RNA enveloped
* ss RNA retrovirus
ss DNA non-enveloped
44
This virus is also known as "Fifth's Disease"?
What else is this diease known as?
* Human Parvovirus (B19)
* Slapped cheek syndrome
45
B19 is able to invade what type of cells in bone marrow?
RBC precursor cells
46
What antigen is the receptor for the Parvovirus B19?
* P antigen
* D antigen
* E antigen
* C antigen
P antigen
47
The followinf statements regarding parbovirus are true EXCEPT?
* Infection is sometimes complicated by severe aplastic anemia caused by lysis of erythroid precursors
* Spread through respiratory droplets / aerosols
* Often spead by bood borne transmission
* No vaccine is available
**Rarely** spead by bood borne transmission
48
Which human herpes virus causes 6th disease?
What is this also known as?
HHV-6
exanthum subitum
49
Human herpes virus 8 (HHV-8) is associated with?
* Karposci's sarcoma (KS)
* effusion lymphoma
* multicentric Castleman Disease
50
What is the most freq. source of septic transfusion reactions?
PLTs
51
The following are all common symptoms of transfusion associated sepsis.
* Rigirs
* fever
* tachycardia
What are other symptoms?
* Shock
* lower back pain
* DIC
* increase/decrease in systolic pressure
52
Bacterial contanination starts with who and how?
The donor though skin contamination at the phlebotomy site or an asymptomatic bacteria
53
Which of the follwing are treatmen options for bacterial contamination?
* Use of apheresis plts
* careful phlebotomy techniques
* phelbotomy diversion
* all of the above
all of the above
54
What is the causative agent of syphilis?
Treponema Pallidum, is a spirochete
55
The standarrd serologic tests for syphilis do nto usually detect a donor in the spirochetemia phase who has not yet seroconverted.
True/ False
True
56
This is a zoonotic disease and is usually transmitted by the bite of an infected Deer tick?
Babesia Microti (Babesiosis)
57
People with Babesiosis are at risk of developing sever complications such as?
* Tachycardia
* Liver failure
* Heart disease
* Respiratory distress syndrome
Who is at greatest risk?
Respiratory distress syndrome (also at risk of DIC and renal failure)
Elderly, asplenic and immunocompromised
58
Transmission of Babesiosis is endemic in? (3)
* Northeast
* mid-Atlantic
* upper Midwestern states
* East Coast
* Westnern regions
* Northeast
* mid-Atlantic
* upper Midwestern states
59
As there is no specific test for Babesiosis, how is this diagnosed?
Geisma or Wright stained thick/thin blood smears cn be examined for intraerythrotic orgnisms
60
How is Babesiosis treated?
Antibiotics
Quinine and Clindamycin are very effective
61
What is Trypanasome Cruzi?
A flagellate protozoan that is the etiologic cause of Chagas Disease (American Trypanosomiasis)
62
What are the phases of Chagas Disease?
Acute
Latent
Chronic
63
In the chronic phase of Chagas disease asymptomatic patients have parasities circulating in the blood stream?
True/ False
False
In the **latent phase**, asymptomatic patients have parasities circulating in the blood stream
Symptoms in the chronic phase - chills, intermittent fever, edema, lymphadenopathy, myocardiitis, GI symptoms.
64
How is the Acute phase of Chagas identified?
Giesma / Wright stained blood smears
65
How is the Chronic phase of Chagas identified?
Serological test like complement fixation, immunoflouresence, and ELISA
66
What test is FDA approved to screen blood, tissue and organ donors?
Abbott Prism Chagas, detects Abs to T. Cruzi
67
How is disease aquired?
Reduviid bug
68
Where is Chagas disease endemic to?
Central and South America
and some areas of Mexico
69
How is medication for Chagas obtained?
By contacting the CDC
70
This is an intra-erythrocytic protozoan infection?
Malaria
71
Malaria is caused by serveral forms of Plasmodium which are?
* P. malaria
* P. falciparum
* P. vivax
* P. ovale
* All of the above
All of the above
72
How is Malaria transmitted?
Female Anophelese mosquito
73
How is malaria diagnosed?
Blood smear
74
Chloroquine is effective for chemoprophylaxis and treatment of all four species of Plasmodium EXCEPT?
* P. malaria
* P. falciparum
* P. vivax
* P. ovale
* All of the above
P. vivax
75
One of the transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSE)?
What is the causative agent of all TSEs?
CJD
Prion
76
Classic CJD is ?
Sporadic
Inherited
Iatrogenic
All of the above
All of the above
77
What is the most common form of CJD?
Sporadic - 85 - 90% generally occuring in middle age
78
How is iatrogenic CJD aquired?
Through contaminated neurosurgical equipment, cornea or dura mater transplants or humaam derived pituary growth hormones.
79
What are the lipid enveloped viruses?
* HIV
* HBV
* HCV
* HTLV
* EBV
* CMV
* HHV - 6
* HHV - 8
80
What inactivates the lipid enveloped viruses?
Organic solvents and detergents
81
Heat treatment, solvent/detergent treatment and nanofiltration are not effective against?
HAV and Parvovirus (non-lipid enveloped)
