Trauma Flashcards

1
Q

for penetrating trauma, energy is transferred to the body when? (ATOI)

A

at time of impact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

for perforating trauma, energy is deposited where? (ITT)

A

in the tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what cervical spine number is the most commonly injured?

A

C7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the 6 P’s of SCI?

A

pain, paralysis, paresthesia, position, ptosis, priapism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

high SCI can result in knocking out the sympathetic mediated fibers resulting in no opposition of vagal innervation when the injury is greater than what thoracic number?

A

T6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Succs is okay in the first how many hours after SCI?

A

48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the 5 S/S of spinal shock below the level of the lesion? (B, A, GA, H, H)

A

bradycardia, atony, GI atony, hypotension, hypothermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the “drug of choice” for spinal shock?

A

dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

short term high dose therapy of what improves neurological outcomes in SCI?

A

steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the methylprednisolone dose for first hour after SCI? (mg/kg/hr)

A

30 mg/kg/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the methylprednisolone dose for last 23 hours after SCI? (mg/kg/hr)

A

5.4 mg/kg/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

where is the trigger located that causes autonomic hyper-reflexia?

A

below the level of injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the 3 treatment options for autonomic hyper-reflexia? (RS, DA, AV)

A

remove stimulus, deepen anesthetic, administer vasodilator (nicardipine, nitroglycerine, nitroprusside)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

autonomic hyper-reflexia: vasoconstriction above or below SCI?

A

below

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

autonomic hyper-reflexia: vasodilation above or below SCI?

A

above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the cardinal sign of autonomic hyper-reflexia?

A

paroxysmal HTN with severe bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

autonomic hyper-reflexia happens in pts with a chronic spinal injury above what thoracic level?

A

T5-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the preferred means to maintain a patent airway in a trauma pt? (JTWIS)

A

jaw thrust with inline stabilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

do you avoid N2O in trauma pts?

20
Q

what should FiO2 always be at?

21
Q

what 2 scans are the “gold standard” for SCI?

22
Q

what are the 2 views for preliminary C-spin fx?

A

lateral and swimmer’s view

23
Q

what is the ketamine trauma dose? (mg/kg)

A

0.5-1 mg/kg

24
Q

what is the etomidate trauma dose? (mg/kg)

A

0.1-0.2 mg/kg

25
what is the thiopental dose? (mg/kg)
0.5-2 mg/kg
26
what induction agent causes hypotension?
thiopental
27
what induction agent causes enhanced C/V stability and decreases CMRO2, CBF and ICP?
etomidate
28
what induction agent increases CMRO2, CBF, and ICP?
ketamine
29
what 2 muscle relaxants cause histamine release?
atracurium, mivacurium
30
what are 7 signs of a pneumothorax? (H, SQE, IP, IBS, HR, TS, DNV)
1. hypotension 2. SQ emphysema 3. increase PIP 4. ipsilateral breath sounds 5. hyper-resonance 6. tracheal shift (late sign) 7. distended neck veins
31
what is a temporary fix for a pneumothorax?
14 gauge IV 3-6 cm long into 2nd ICS midclavicular line
32
what are the 3 signs of Beck's triad?
neck vein distention, hypotension, muffled heart tones (also widened mediastinum)
33
for a flail chest is there inspiratory or expiratory retraction?
inspiratory
34
is a hemothorax dull or hyperresonant?
dull
35
Blood volume deficit for these: 1. unilateral hemothorax 2. hemoperitoneum with abd distention (range) 3. pelvic fx (range) 4. femur fx (range) 5. tibia fx (range)
1. 3000 mL 2. 2000-2500 mL 3. 1500-2000 mL 4. 800-1200 mL 5. 350-650 mL
36
Hemorrhage classifications (% of TBV and mL) 1. Class 1 2. Class 2 (range for both) 3. Class 3 (range for both) 4. Class 4 (range for both)
1. 15%, 750 mL 2. 20-25%, 1000-1250 mL 3. 30-35%, 1500-1800 mL 4. 40-45%, 2000-2500 mL
37
HR and RR > what for these hemorrhage classes: 1. class 2 2. class 3 3. class 4
1. HR > 100, RR > 20 2. HR > 120, RR > 30 3. HR > 140, RR > 35
38
SBP for these hemorrhage classe: 1. class 2 (> what?) 2. class 3 (< what?) 3. class 4 (< what?)
1. 100 2. 90 3. 60
39
Whose law says flow is directly proportional to the 4th power of the radius and inversely related to length?
Poiseuelle's law
40
what is the replacement ratio of crystalloid to blood loss?
3:1
41
what is the IV solution for head trauma?
NS
42
what is the IV solution for trauma resuscitation?
LR
43
what is the replacement ratio of colloid to blood loss?
1:1
44
what are the 4 S/S of TRALI? (RD, H, H, LGF)
resp distress, hypoxemia, hypotension, low grade fever
45
the ratio of 1:1:1 for blood product transfusion is for what products?
PRBC:plts:FFP
46
what 2 ion concentrations increase after a massive blood transfusion?
K+ and H+