Trauma and Burns Flashcards

(60 cards)

1
Q

Most common indication for intubation

A

Altered Mental Status

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2
Q

Always your first priority in the primary survey

A

Securing airway

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3
Q

Signs of basilar skull fracture

A

CSF rhinorrhea
Raccoon eyes
Battle’s sign

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4
Q

Narrowest part of adult airway

A

Glottis

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5
Q

Narrowest part of child airway

A

Cricoid cartilage

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6
Q

Preferred age for tracheostomy

A

Under 11 years old

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7
Q

This endotracheal intubation is done usually in pre hospital setting

A

Nasotracheal

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8
Q

Where do you insert your needle tension pneumothorax for adult and children?

A

Adult: 4th to 5th ICS MAL
Child: 2nd ICS MAL

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9
Q

Indications for emergency endotracheal intubation (6)

A

Acute airway obstruction
Hypoventilation
Severe hypoxemia despite supplemental oxygen
Altered mental status
Cardiac arrest
Severe hemorrhagic shock

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10
Q

Occurs when 3 or more contiguous ribs are fractured in at least 2 locations

A

Flail chest with underlying pulmonary contusion

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11
Q

Free communication between pleural space and atmosphere

A

Open pneumothorax (sucking chest wound)

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12
Q

Collection of blood in the space between the chest wall and pleural cavity

A

Massive Hemothorax

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13
Q

Definitive treatment for open pneumothorax

A

Closure of chest wall defect and closed tube thoracostomy remote from the wound

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14
Q

Treatment for flail chest

A

Presumptive intubation and mechanical ventilation (PEEP)

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15
Q

Types of tracheobronchial injury

A

Type 1 - within 2 cm of carina
Type 2 - almost always accompanied by pneumothorax

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16
Q

Classic description of neurogenic shock (4)

A

Paralysis
Warm and pink extremities
Bradycardia
Hypotension

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17
Q

At which class of shock will you start transfusing blood products?

A

Class III

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18
Q

Initial fluid resuscitation for shock patients

A

20 mL/kg intravenous bolus isotonic crystalloid

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19
Q

Where do you perform intraosseous infusion?

A

Proximal tibia or distal femur

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20
Q

Cardiac tamponade occurs more commonly in what type of injury?

A

Penetrating thoracic injury

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21
Q

Amount of pericardial blood that may cause tamponade

A

Less than 100 mL

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22
Q

Beck triad

A

Hypotension
Dilated neck veins
Muffled heart tones

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23
Q

Cardiac tamponade with an SBP of < 60 mmHg will warrant ____.

A

Emergency department thoracotomy

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24
Q

EDT is best accomplished using ____.

A

Left anterolateral thoracotomy

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25
Preferred test for diagnosis of cardiac tamponade
Echocardiography
26
Hard Signs for Vascular Injury (3)
Acute ischemia Absent pulse Pulsatile hemorrhage
27
Distal radius fracture with dorsal angulation (“dinner-fork”)
Colle's fracture
28
Distal radius fracture with volar angulation (“Reverse Colle’s”)
Smith's Fracture
29
Fracture at the base of 5th metatarsal diaphysis
Jone's Fracture
30
Fracture of the metacarpal neck
Boxer's fracture
31
Ulnar fracture
Nightstick fracture
32
Fracture of C6-C7 spinous processes
Clay shoveler's fracture
33
Fracture at C2 pedicles
Hangman's fracture
34
Fracture at C1 ring
Jefferson fracture
35
Fracture of the proximal third of the ulna with dislocation of the radial head
Monteggia fracture
36
Fracture of the middle-distal third of radius with dislocation of the radioulnar joint
Galeazzi fracture
37
dislocation of the radioulnar joint
Piedmont fracture
38
Fracture of distal fibula
Pott's fracture
39
Indications for Damage Control Surgery (3)
▪️refractory hypothermia (<35 C) ▪️profound acidosis (pH <7.2 or base deficit > 15mmol/L) ▪️refractory coagulopathy
40
Most commonly from ruptured middle meningeal artery
Acute Epidural Hematoma
41
Lentiform and hyperdense hematoma in between the inner table of the skull and the dura
Acute Epidural Hematoma
42
Crescentic and hyperdense hematoma in between the dura and the arachnoid covering the brain
Acute Subdural Hematoma
43
Crescentic and hypodense (liquefied) hematoma
Chronic subdural hematoma
44
Most common finding in fatal head trauma
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
45
Widespread shearing of axons due to forces with severe angular acceleration-deceleration
Diffuse axonal injury
46
Bleeding usually from torn bridging veins
Acute subdural hematoma
47
Most common facial fracture
Condyle
48
Most common cause of burn injury for hospital admission
Flame burn
49
Identify the degree of burn: Painful No blisters Blanching
1st degree (Superficial)
50
Identify the degree of burn: Extremely painful Blister formation Blanching
Second degree (Partial thickness)
51
Identify the degree of burn Less painful White or pale
Second degree (Partial thickness)
52
Identify the degree of burn Painless Feathery Non-blanching
Third degree (Full thickness)
53
Identify the degree of burn: Affects the underlying tissue
4th degree burn
54
Identify the degree of burn: Goes through muscle to bone
5th Degree Burn
55
Identify the degree of burn: Charring of bone present
6th Degree Burn
56
Used primarily as a prophylactic agent against burn wound infection
Silver sulfadiazine
57
Can cause neutropenia
Silver sulfadiazine
58
Effective in the presence of an eschar
Mafenide acetate
59
Can cause metabolic acidosis (due to carbonic anhydrase inhibition)
Mafenide acetate
60
Can cause hyponatremia and methemoglobinemia, black stains
Silver nitrate