Trauma - CORTEXT Flashcards

1
Q

true or false: when spinal shock occurs, loss of motor function and sensation occurs above the level of the injury

A

false

occurs below the level of the injury

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2
Q

what normal body reflex is absent in spinal shock?

A

bulbocavernosus reflex

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3
Q

describe complete spinal cord injury

A

no sensory or voluntary motor function below the level of injury

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4
Q

describe incomplete spinal cord injury

A

some neurologic function present distal to the level of injury

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5
Q

true or false: the presence of sacral spinal cord sparing in spinal cord injury suggests a better prognosis

A

true

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6
Q

in which age groups are pelvic fractures more common?

A

young patients (high energy trauma)

old patients (osteoporosis)

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7
Q

name the bones that form the pelvic ring

A

sacrum
ilium
ischium
pubic bones

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8
Q

how is the pelvic ring like a polo mint?

A

if it breaks in one place, it will also break in another

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9
Q

what happens in a lateral compression fracture of the pelvis?

A

one half of the pelvis is displaced medially

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10
Q

what happens in a vertical shear fracture of the pelvis?

A

one half of the pelvis is displaced superiorly

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11
Q

what happens in an anteroposterior compression injury of the pelvis?

A

disruption of the pubic symphysis

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12
Q

what neurovascular structures are at risk in pelvic fractures?

A

branches of the internal iliac artery
venous plexus
lumbosacral plexus

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13
Q

true or false: a PR exam is mandatory in pelvic fractures

A

true

to assess sacral nerve root function and to check for blood

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14
Q

what is the most common mechanism of injury in proximal humerus fractures?

A

low energy osteoporotic injury due to FOOSH

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15
Q

what does FOOSH stand for?

A

fall onto out stretched hand

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16
Q

which part of the proximal humerus is most commonly fractured?

A

the surgical neck

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17
Q

in which direction does the humeral shaft usually displace in proximal humerus fractures and why?

A

medially

due to the pull of pectoralis major

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18
Q

what is the mainstay of treatment for proximal humerus fractures?

A

sling immobilisation

internal fixation if there is recurrent displacement

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19
Q

which direction of shoulder dislocation is most common?

A

anterior

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20
Q

what is a Bankart lesion?

A

anterior shoulder dislocation that causes detachment of the glenoid labrum and capsule

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21
Q

what is a hill-sachs lesion?

A

posterior humeral head impacts the anterior glenoid

causes an impaction fracture of the posterior humeral head

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22
Q

which nerve is at risk in shoulder dislocation?

A

axillary nerve

nerves of the brachial plexus

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23
Q

what is the characteristic sign on an x-ray of a posterior shoulder dislocation?

A

lightbulb sign

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24
Q

what is the principle sign of axillary nerve injury?

A

loss of sensation in a badge-patch area

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25
what is the mainstay of treatment for anterior shoulder dislocation?
closed reduction under sedation sling for two to three weeks
26
describe the relationship between risk of recurrent shoulder dislocation and the age of the patient
under 20 = 80% | over 30 = 20%
27
what is involved in Bankart repair?
reattach the torn labrum and the capsule via arthroscopy or open repair
28
how do injuries of the ACJ usually occur?
fall onto the point of the shoulder
29
in subluxation of the ACJ, what is usually ruptured?
the acromioclavicular ligaments
30
in dislocation of the ACJ, what is usually ruptured?
the coracoclavicular ligaments
31
up to how many degrees of angulation is accepted in a humeral shaft fracture and why?
30 the mobility of the shoulder and elbow joint aid union
32
which nerve is susceptible to injury in humeral shaft fractures?
radial nerve
33
what pathology can be caused by damage to the radial nerve?
wrist drop | loss of sensation in the first dorsal web space
34
how are intra articular fractures usually treated?
open reduction, internal fixation (ORIF)
35
describe the usual mechanism of injury in olecranon fractures
fall onto point of the elbow | contraction of the triceps
36
which direction of elbow dislocation is most common?
posterior
37
the forearm acts as a ring due to the ligaments around the radio-ulnar joints, what does this mean for fractures?
if one bone fractures, there is usually a fracture in the other bone too
38
what is a nightstick fracture?
fracture of the ulnar shaft
39
how is a diaphyseal fracture of both forearm bones treated?
ORIF with plates and screws IM nail if very unstable
40
what is ORIF?
open reduction and internal fixation
41
describe a monteggia fracture
fracture of the ulna | dislocation of the radial head at the elbow
42
describe a galeazzi fracture
fracture of the radius | dislocation of the ulnar at the distal radioulnar joint
43
what is the usual mechanism of injury in distal radial fractures?
FOOSH
44
describe a colles fracture
extra articular fracture of the distal radius (within an inch of the articular surface), with dorsal displacement
45
which nerve can be damaged in colles fractures?
median nerve
46
describe a smith's fracture
extra-articular fracture of the distal radius with volar displacement
47
what treatment should be done for all smith's fractures?
ORIF with plate and screws
48
describe a barton's fracture
intra articular fracture of the distal radius where carpal bones sublux
49
what is another name for a dorsal barton's fratcure?
intra articular colles fracture
50
what is another name for a volar barton's fracture?
intra articular smith's fracture
51
name two clinical signs of a scaphoid fracture
tender anatomical snuffbox | pain on compressing the thumb metacarpal
52
how many x-ray views are taken of a suspected scaphoid fracture?
four | AP, lateral and two oblique views
53
how are undisplaced scaphoid fractures usually treated?
plaster cast for six to twelve weeks
54
how do fractures of the fifth metacarpal usually occur?
punching injury | hence why they are called boxer's fractures
55
how many degrees of angulation can be tolerated in a boxer's fracture?
up to 45
56
what is the most common cause of hip fractures in the elderly?
osteoporosis
57
true or false: the majority of hip fractures occur in males
false
58
true or false: nearly all patients with hip fractures have surgery
true
59
what are the two broad categories of hip fractures?
intracapsular | extracapsular
60
what is the blood supply to the head of the femur?
branch of the obturator artery
61
what is the blood supply to the neck of the femur?
femoral circumflex artery
62
true or false: the arterial supply of the femoral head is more at risk of disruption in extracapsular fractures
false
63
describe the position of an intracapsular hip fracture
above the trochanteric line
64
what is the mainstay of treatment for intracapsular hip fractures?
hemiarthroplasty | THR
65
true or false: extracapsular hip fractures can be repaired with internal fixation
true if there is a high union rate and low risk of AVN
66
which type of embolism can occur with femoral shaft fractures?
fat embolism
67
which type of splint is recommended for femoral shaft fractures?
Thomas splint
68
true or false: a knee injury is a surgical emergency
true due to high risk of neurovascular injury
69
which direction do the vast majority of patellar dislocations occur in?
lateral
70
true or false: patellar dislocation is more common in females
true
71
are proximal tibia fractures intra or extra articular?
intra
72
which nerve could be damaged in proximal tibia fractures?
common fibular nerve
73
which fracture is the most common cause of compartment syndrome after trauma?
tibial shaft fracture
74
what is the extent of displacement and angulation acceptable for conservative management of tibial shaft fractures?
up to 50% displacement and 5% angulation
75
what is the most common method for surgical stabilisation of tibial shaft fractures?
IM nail
76
what is another name for a distal tibia fracture?
pilon fracture
77
how are pilon fractures generally treated?
ORIF
78
what is the most common mechanism of injury in ankle fractures?
inversion injury
79
name the lateral ankle ligaments
anterior talofibular posterior talofibular calcaneofibular
80
what is another name for a midfoot fracture?
lisfranc fracture
81
describe a lisfranc fracture
fracture of the base of the 2nd metatarsal with/without dislocation of other metatarsals at the TMJ's
82
which tendon is involved in an avulsion fracture of the 5th metatarsal?
peroneus brevis