TRI assessment Flashcards
(102 cards)
1
Q
How many slats does the A320 have and how are they called?
A
The A320 has 5 slats on each wing, they are numbered 1 to 5 starting inboard.
2
Q
What is the difference between GPWS und EGPWS?
A
EGPWS is a modern, more advanced system that addresses many of the limitations of the original GPWS, by adding a terrain database, GPS, and predictive capabilities, providing advanced warnings and terrain displays beyond the immediate vicinity of the aircraft
3
Q
Please state the ground spoiler logic during landing.
A
Ground spoilers armed:
* Both main landing gears on ground,
* Both thrust levers at or below Idle position, or Reverse selected on at least one engine (and the other thrust lever below MCT position).
Ground spoilers not armed:
* Both main landing gears on ground,
* Reverse selected on at least one engine (and the other thrust lever below MCT position)
4
Q
What is the German RESCUE frequency?
A
121.555 MHz
5
Q
Up to which height is a windshear being reported?
8.3.4.17.4 Windshear
A
Between runway level and 1600 ft (500 m)
8.3.4.17.4 Windshear
6
Q
What effects does the GEN1 line PB have?
A
GEN 1 line contactor is opened, GEN 2 supplies AC Bus 1, however one fuel pump in each tank is still supplied by GEN 1 (smoke configuration)
7
Q
ECAM F/CTL page: What is the difference between an amber arrow and an amber number on the spoiler display?
A
- Amber arrow: faulty & extended
- Amber number: faulty & retracted
Amber X: Position not clarified
8
Q
What are the conditions for alternate braking with A/S?
A
Braking uses this mode when green hydraulic pressure is insufficient, and :
* Yellow hydraulic pressure is available
* A/SKID & N/W STRG switch is ON
* Parking brake is not ON.
Autobrake is NOT available.
9
Q
Hydraulic pressure normal/with RAT?
A
3000 psi/2500 psi (blue only)
10
Q
What is the call-out during stall warning at liftoff?
A
STALL, TOGA 15°!
11
Q
How do you shut down the engines after a DC ESS BUS FAULT and why?
A
Fuel shutoff valves are not powered, so the engines have to be shut down using the fire PBs: [QRH] On Ground - Non ENG Shutdown after ENG Master OFF
12
Q
What is the max. CWC on wet runways (contamination < 3 mm)?
A
25 kts incl. gusts
13
Q
Hydraulic distribution: NWS?
A
Yellow
14
Q
A320: Fuel Feed Sequence
except -QS and -ZA to -ZZ
A
- The center tank : Fuel transfers into the inner tanks.
- The inner tanks : Each inner tank empties down to 750 kg (1650 lb).
- The outer tanks : Fuel transfers into the inner tanks.
A319: Center tank empties first
15
Q
Electric distribution: ACP 1
A
DC Ess Bus
16
Q
Which emergency procedures contain memory items?
A
- LOSS OF BRAKING
- EMERGENCY DESCENT
- STALL RECOVERY
- STALL WARNING AT LIFTOFF
- UNRELIABLE SPEED INDICATION
- (E)GPWS CAUTIONS/WARNINGS
- TCAS CAUTIONS/WARNINGS
- WINDSHEAR WARNING
17
Q
What is the required RVR if the complete ALS fails?
A
1200 m
18
Q
What is the minimum RVR for visual approach operations?
A
800 m
19
Q
What is the planning minimum for an airport with one Type B approach?
A
DA/H + 150 ft
RVR + 450 m
20
Q
RTO A320: When do the EMER EXIT signs become amber on the door page?
A
When the handle cover is removed
21
Q
What are the conditions for normal braking?
A
Normal braking is operative when:
* Green hydraulic pressure is available
* A/SKID & N/W STRG switch is ON.
During normal braking, antiskid is operative and autobrake is available.
22
Q
What are the conditions for Aileron Anti Droop?
A
- ground spoilers fully extended
- not clean
- pitch < 2,5 deg.
- manual flight
- normal law
23
Q
Please state the ground spoiler logic during an RTO.
A
- If the ground spoilers are armed and the wheel speed exceeds 72 kt, the ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as both thrust levers are reset to idle.
- If the ground spoilers are not armed and the wheel speed exceeds 72 kt, the ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as reverse is selected on one engine (the other thrust lever remains at idle).
24
Q
When are TCAS RA messages inhibited?
A
< 1100 ft in climb
< 900 ft in descent
25
What is the differency between an emergency descent and a rapid descent?
An emergency descent (above FL160) is an abnormal procedure and depends on the structural condition of the aircraft whereas a rapid descent is a descent with an increased ROD without any structural limitations after coordination with ATC - reasons could be medical, smoke, fire, bomb threat.
26
Do you need RCLL for take-off/landing at night?
No, except for CAT III DH < 50 ft
27
What is the planning minimum for an airport with one Type A approach?
DA/H or MDA/H + 400 ft
RVR/VIS + 1500 m
28
What are the basic modes of GPWS?
Five basic modes active up to radio height of 2500 ft:
* Excessive rate of descent (Mode 1): SINKRATE, SINKRATE / PULL-UP
* Excessive terrain closure rate (Mode 2, submodes depending on configuration): TERRAIN, TERRAIN / PULL-UP
* Altitude loss after takeoff or go-around (Mode 3): DON'T SINK
* Terrain clearance not sufficient, if not in landing configuration (Mode 4, submodes depending on configuration): TOO LOW TERRAIN/GEAR/FLAPS
* Excessive descent below the glide slope (Mode 5): GLIDESLOPE, GLIDESLOPE
29
Hydraulic distribution: LG?
Green
30
PTU Logic?
PTU pressurises Green via Yellow or vv. if pressure difference is 500 psi or greater.
31
What is the order of flaps and slats extension?
1. slats
2. stats & flaps
3. flaps
4. slats & flaps
| "vorne - beide - hinten - beide"
32
ND Rose Mode: Which ILS is shown on which display?
ILS 1 information appears on PFD 1 and ND 2.
ILS 2 information appears on PFD 2 and ND 1.
33
What are the conditions for alternate braking **without** A/S?
The antiskid system is either deactivated:
* Electrically (A/SKID & N/W STRG sw OFF, or power supply failure, or BSCU failure), or
* Hydraulically (Y + G system low pressure, the brakes are supplied by the brake accumulator only).
**Autobrake and antiskid are inoperative.**
34
Hydraulic distribution: Elevator
Left Elevator: Blue & Green
Right Elevator: Blue & Yellow
35
How many UMs on the A320?
Max. 10 UM, but not more than two unter 8 years
(min. 5, max. 12 years)
36
When does the autobrake activate during RTO?
Only above 72 kts as the command for ground spoiler extension is required.
37
Hydraulic distribution: Rudder
Green, Blue, Yellow
38
Which AFS modes are allowed when flying an approach to LNAV minimums?
* FINAL APP
* NAV/FPA
39
What are the conditions for the low energy warning?
The aircraft’s energy level is going below a threshold under which the flight crew has to increase thrust. Available in CONF 2, 3, FULL in normal law between 100 ft and 2000 ft RA. Calculated by FAC.
40
Hydraulic distribution: THS
Green & Yellow (also needed for mechanical control!)
41
What are the conditions for Alpha FLOOR?
- between lift-off and 100 ft RA on approach
- normal law
- AOA is between Alpha_Prot and Alpha_Max (Alpha FLOOR)
42
When is the windshear detection function available?
* At takeoff, 3 s after liftoff, up to 1300 ft RA
* At landing, from 1300 ft RA to 50 ft RA
* With at least CONF 1 selected.
| * A visual “WINDSHEAR” red message
* “WINDSHEAR” three times.
43
What is the max. CWC on dry and wet runways (no contamination)?
35 kts incl. gusts
44
Which inputs are needed to calculate the GPWS geometric altitude?
* Pressure altitude
* Radio altitude
* Temperature
* Barometric references
* GPS altitude for predictive GPWS
* Data from the GPWS database for predictive GPWS
45
What is the difference between black squares and black dots in the QRH?
* black squares: several procedures under one title, only one is applicable
* black dots: If an action depends on a precondition, a black dot identifies the precondition (displayed in LARGE LETTERS on ECAM)
46
Which slats are heated by wing anti-ice?
Slats 3, 4, 5 on each wing are heated (outboard slats).
47
What are the actions if the ground crew reports a fuel leak during engine start (ceo/neo)?
* Ceo: continue running the engine in idle for 5 minutes. If leak disappears, no maintenance action is required.
* Neo: Abort engine start, call maintenance
48
A321: Fuel Feed Sequence
1. Center tanks transfer into the wing tanks via a jet pump
2. Wing tanks
49
What are the minimum distances for a jetway during engine start on position and what has to be done if those distances cannot be obtained?
* distance: 5 m away (door level) or 1 m sidewards
* if unable: jetway remains connected, but door 1L is closed, all doors in FLIGHT
50
What is the maximum altitude with flaps or slats extended?
20000 ft
51
Does Alpha FLOOR work in alternate or direct law?
No.
52
What is the maximum tailwind component
* for takeoff?
* for landing?
* 15 kts
* 10 kts
53
Electric distribution: ACP 2
DC Ess Bus
54
What is the max. CWC on contaminated runways > 3 mm (BA medium)?
| except dry snow
15 kts incl. gusts
55
What are the reaction times for a normal RA/a reversal RA?
5 s/2.5 s
56
RA1+2 fault: What limitations do you have to expect during approach?
* no auto call-outs
* direct law (when LDG gear down)
* GPWS & TCAS inop
* ILS appr mode INOP, LOC only (AP possible)
* CAT 1 only
57
What is the circling minimum?
600 ft/2400 m
58
Above to which altitude should an emergency descent be performed?
> FL160
59
What are the wind limits for
* cargo door operation?
* passenger door operation?
* 40 kts (50 kts if nose into the wind or cargo doors are on the leeward side)
* 65 kts
60
How do you calculate the MSA?
The lowest altitude which may be used which will provide a minimum clearance of 300m (1000ft) above all objects located in an area contained within a sector of a circle of 46km (25NM) radius centered on a significant point or the Aerodrome Reference Point (ARP).
61
What are the prerequisites for fuelling with passengers on board?
* 1 pilot in the cockpit
* seat belt signs OFF
* information to pax and crew
* inform fire brigade (if applicable)
* FA at left stations (not below MinCAB), doors in PARK
* generally: 2 doors open with stairs/jetway, fuelling from the right
* space for slides: 8 m
* fuel supervision
62
What is audio switching and when is it required?
* The crew can switch to the third ACP if ACP1 or ACP2 fails -> ACP 3 is connected to RMP1/2, VHF1/2 and headset/loudspeaker 1/2.
* If ACP1+2 fail (e. g. DC ESS bus FAULT), only one CM is able to communicate - both loudspeakers on!
63
How do you deal with different RWYCC on a runway?
Calculate the LDTA with the most conservative value **along the required runway length**.
64
When does the autobrake activate during landing?
Command for ground spoiler extension (and speed > 72 kts)
65
What are the oxygen requirements acc. OM-A?
continuous oxygen > 13000 ft cabin altitude or > 10000 ft for more than 30 minutes
| *Above FL410 if only one pilot at the station*
66
Which influence does a blocked **pitot**-system have on IAS, ALT and V/S?
* IAS: During a climb, IAS will increase as static pressure decreases. During a descent, IAS will decrease as static pressure increases.
* ALT: no effect
* V/S: no effect
67
What are the pitch and bank call-out limits during landing and go-around (A320/A321)?
* Landing: 10°/7,5°
* Go-around: < 10° and > 20°
* Bank: 7°
68
Hydraulic distribution: normal/alternate/parking brake?
* Normal brake: Green
* Alternate/parking brake: Yellow
69
What is the planning minimum for an airport without any IFR procedure?
* Ceiling: not below the highest Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA)
* Visibility: 8 km or more
70
Please state the reverser logic.
Deployment requires :
* One FADEC channel, operating with its associated throttle reverse signal ;
* Right and left main gear compressed signal from the corresponding LGCIUs ;
* A Thrust Lever Angle (TLA) reverse signals from at least one Spoiler Elevator Computer (SEC).
71
Can you perform a flight if you only have an "INFO ONLY" OFP?
Yes, if dispatch confirms that the OFP number is still valid.
72
Hydraulic distribution: Slats
Green & Blue
73
What are the limitations of the APU envelope for
- ELEC only
- Bleed and ELEC
- APU BAT Start
- Air conditioning 1 pack/2 packs
* ELEC only: > FL200
* Bleed and ELEC: < FL200
* APU BAT start: < FL250
* AirCon 1 pack: < FL200
* AirCon 2 packs: < FL150
74
What is the safe sector of a LOC approach?
+/- 1 dot
75
What are the extensions of EGPWS?
* Terrain awareness and display
* Obstacle database
* Terrain clearance floor (enhanced Mode 4)
76
Which minima apply for a take-off alternate?
* RVR/VIS above applicable minimum
* for Type A: ceiling at or above MDA
* time: +/- 1 h
* distance: 375 NM
77
What is the capacity of the potable water tank?
200 l (some only 135 l)
78
Hydraulic distribution: Spoilers?
GYBYG
79
What is the recommended RFF for A319/320 and A321 and the minimum for departure and destination?
* recommended: 6/7
* Minimum for dep. and dest.: 5/6 (4/5 in case of a temp. downgrade for max. 72 h)
80
Hydraulic distribution: Flaps?
Green & Yellow
81
Hydraulic distribution: Ailerons?
Green & Blue
82
What do you have to consider concerning cold temperature correction during RNAV approaches?
* Temperature limits according IAC - obstacles are considered
* No 3D ops if correction is applied -> NAV/FPA & LNAV minimum
83
What is the minimum RFF for A319/320 and A321 for alternates?
4/5
84
A319: Fuel Feed Sequence
| including -QS and -ZA to -ZZ
1. The center tank.
2. The inner tanks: Each inner tank empties down to 750 kg (1650 lb).
3. The outer tanks: Fuel transfers into the inner tanks.
| A320: Center tank empties into inner tanks
85
How do you calculate the MGA?
The MGA represents the lowest safe altitude which can be flown off-track. The MGA is calculated by rounding up the elevation of the highest obstruction within the respective grid area to the next 100ft and adding an increment of
* 1000ft for terrain or obstructions up to 6000ft; or
* 2000ft for terrain or obstructions above 6000ft.
The lowest MGA that is displayed is 2000 ft.
86
When does a predictive windshear warning occur during take-off and what are your actions?
Predictive windshear warnings during take-off occur < 100 kts and > 50 ft
* If triggered before T/O: delay T/O
* If triggered during T/O run: RTO
* If triggered when airborne: apply windshear procedure (TOGA, follow SRS, maintain config)
87
Hydraulic distribution: Rudder?
Green, Blue, Yellow
88
Hydraulic distribution: Reversers?
Rev. 1: Green
Rev. 2: Yellow
89
What is documented when signing the aircraft acceptance box in the TLB?
* Assessment of the technical status of the aeroplane and cabin was done according OM-A
* Accomplishment of preflight inspection
* Acceptance of aeroplane by the commander as ready for flight
90
Which influence does a blocked **pitot- & static**-system have on IAS, ALT and V/S?
* IAS: frozen
* ALT: frozen
* V/S: zero
91
Maximum tire speed
195 kts
| Groundspeed!
92
Will the slides deploy if you open the emergency exit windows on A319 from outside?
Yes, these exits are always in FLIGHT.
93
The THS is controlled by which computers?
1. ELAC2
2. ELAC1
3. SEC1/2
94
What is the altitude reference for circling approaches?
AAL
95
Is the isolated aerodrome procedure allowed?
No.
96
Is there a cold temperature correction for the acceleration altitude in TOPA?
Yes, if the acceleration altitude is deemed obstacle critical.
97
What is the minimum RVR for raw-data?
750 m, but requires meteorological conditions significantly better than the minimum requirements.
98
Which influence does a blocked **static**-system have on IAS, ALT and V/S?
* IAS: During a climb, IAS will read lower than actual airspeed because the trapped static pressure does not decrease. During a descent, IAS will read higher than actual airspeed for the same reason.
* ALT: frozen
* V/S: zero
99
Take-off EDDF, RWY 18. Tower reports a wind of 360/12G16. What do you do?
A take-off is possible as the gusts for tailwind only have to be considered if they differ more than 10 kts from the mean wind. Exception: if smaller gusts are considered "operationally significant" (e. g. on short runways).
100
What are the engine damage criteria?
* **V**ibration
* **E**GT high
* **H**ydraulic loss
* **R**PM of engine absent
* **S**tall
101
What is the initial pitch for WINDSHEAR if no SRS is available?
17,5 °
102
What is the initial pitch during engine failure?
12,5 °
