Trivia Flashcards
(251 cards)
1
Q
What is a tuft fracture?
A
nail bed fracture
2
Q
What do tuft fractures get? Why?
A
Abx
osteo
3
Q
How long does it take for the tibia to heal?
A
10 weeks
4
Q
What are the three sites for classic non-union?
A
anterior tibia
scaphoid
lateral femoral neck
5
Q
What surgery screws with bone healing? What electrolyte is involved?
A
gastric bypass
calcium absorption
6
Q
Is the tensile side of the tibia the anterior or posterior side?
A
posterior
7
Q
What is SONK? Where does it happen? What type of fracture?
A
spontaneous osteonecrosis of the knee
medial femoral condyle
insufficiency
8
Q
What bone in the foot is similar to scaphoid in its risk for AVN? Eponym for kids? Eponym for adults?
A
Navicular
kohler = kids
muller weiss = adults
9
Q
Do calcaneal stress fractures occur parallel or perpendicular to the trabecular lines?
A
perpendicular
10
Q
What metatarsal is highest risk for high risk stress fracture?
A
5th metatarsal
11
Q
What is a SLAC lesion? What causes it?
A
scapho-lunate advanced collapse
CPPD arthropathy
12
Q
What is the first joint in the wrist to develop OA?
A
radio-scaphoid
13
Q
What is DISI? What carpal bone is involved? What direction?
A
dorsal intercalated segment instability
lunate
dorsal tilt
14
Q
What is a SNAC wrist? What causes it?
A
scaphoid non-union advanced collapse
scaphoid fracture
15
Q
Perilunate dislocation is associated with a fracture of what carpal bone?
A
scaphoid
16
Q
Greater displacement than what in the scaphoid may get a screw?
A
> 1mm
17
Q
Which scapholunate ligament is most important for stabiity? what condition occurs if this breaks?
A
dorsal
DISI
18
Q
What is the eponym for scaphoid AVN?
A
Prieser disease
19
Q
Without a ligament, the lunate wants to rock dorsal or volar?
A
volar
20
Q
What maneuver can worsen scapho-lunate dissociation?
A
fist clench
21
Q
Which bones move during a peri-lunate dissociation? Which stays still?
A
lunate doesnt move
capitate is displaced.
22
Q
Is the ulnar or radial side of the TFC more likely to heal?
A
ulnar
23
Q
Which carpal bone develops cystic changes during ulnar impaction syndrome?
A
lunate
24
Q
Is a colles a dorsal or volar angulation of the distal radius?
A
dorsal
25
Is a Smith a dorsal or volar angulation of the distal radius?
volar
26
What other fracture is associated with a smith or colles facture?
ulnar styloid
27
What is a barton fracture?
intra-articular fracutre of the distal, DORSAL radius
28
What is a reverse barton fracture?
intra-articular fracture of the VOLAR distal radius
29
What two ligaments are affected by de quarvain tenosynovitis?
aBductor pollicis longus
extensor pollicus brevis
30
Which extensor tendon can be affected by rheumatoid?
extensor carpii ulnaris
31
What three tendon groups are in the carpal tunnel?
FDP
FDS
FPL
32
Which FLEXOR tendon is not in the carpal tunnel?
flexor carpii radialis
33
What structure of the carpal tunnel will be enlarged on US?
median nerve
34
What bones make up guyons canal?
pisiform and hamate
35
Where are rice bodies found? Caused by what bug?
Within the fluid of a tendon sheath
TB
36
What is a rolando fracture?
comminuted fx of of base of the first metacarpal
37
What is a bennett fracture?
non-communinuted fx of the base of the 1st metacarpal
38
What tendon pulls on rolando and bennett fx?
aBductor pollicus longus
39
What is game keepers thumb? What ligament disruption is associated?
avulsion of base of 1st proximal phalanx
ulnar collateral ligament of thumb
40
What is a stener lesion?
when adductor aponeurosis gets caught in UCL of thumb
41
What is a Monteggia fracture?
1. fracture of proximal ulna
| 2. dislocation of radial head.
42
What is a Galeazzi fracture?
1. radial shaft fracture
| 2. dislocation of distal RU joint
43
What is Essex-Lopresti fracture?
1. fracture of radial head
2. dislocation of DRUJ
3. interosseus membrane rupture
44
Epitrochlear lymphadenopathy is indicative of what disease?
cat scratch
45
What two fractures are most often associated with elbow dislocation?
radial head
coronoid process
46
What bundle of the UCL is most important?
anterior
47
Internal or external rotation to visualize a Hill Sachs?
Internal
48
What type of avulsion can occur with anterior dislocations?
greater tuberosity avulsion
49
What is the trough sign?
anterior impaction of humeral head 2/2 posterior dislocation
50
What is light bulb sign? When can it be seen?
internal rotation on all views
posterior dislocation
51
What direction of shoulder dislocation can cause nerve damage? What nerve?
inferior
axillary
52
What is a reverse bankart? When can it be seen?
posteior glenoid rim fx
posterior dislocation
53
Air hip dislocations anterior or posterior most often? Why?
posterior
dashboards
54
What component is most likely to loosen in a total shoulder?
Glenoid
55
What is an anterior escapse? What muscle has failed?
anterior migration of humeral head
subscapularis
56
Does a reverse total shoulder require an intact cuff? What muscle is used for stability?
no
Deltoid
57
What fracture can occur with a reverse total shoulder? Why?
posterior acromion
excessive deltoid tugging
58
A 'hooked' acromion is what type? What is the eponym?
Type III
Bigliani
59
What ligament degenerates during subacromial impingement?
coraco-acromial
60
What two structures pinch during a sub-acromial impingement?
lesser tuberosity and coracoid
61
Where is the critical zone of the supraspinatus? Why?
within 1-2 cm of footplate
relatively avascular
62
What two rotator cuff tendons make up the rotator cuff interval?
Supraspinatus
subscapularis
63
What rotator cuff structure is most often affected by adhesive capsulitis?
rotator cuff interval
64
What cuff structure inserts on a SLAP lesion?
long head of biceps
65
What is a Buford complex?
absent anterior/superior labrum at 1-3 o clock
thickened middle glenohumeral ligament
66
What ligament is thickened in a Buford complex?
Middle glenohumeral
67
What is a GLAD lesion? Stable or unstable?
Gleno-labral articular disruption
stable
68
What is a Perthes lesion? Periosteum intact or not?
detachment of anterior/inferior labrum
periosteum is intact
69
What is ALPSA?
Anterior Labral Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion
70
What is a Bennett LESION ?
mineralization of the posterior aspect of the inferior glenohumeral ligament
71
What does HAGL stand for?
humeral avulsion of the glenohumeral ligament
72
What most often causes a HAGL?
anterior shoulder dislocation
73
What is the transverse ligament?
portion of subscapularis that keeps biceps tendon in place
74
What is more superior, suprascapular notch or spinoglenoid notch?
Suprascapular
75
What muscle (s) will be affetcted by a lesion in the suprascapular notch?
supraspinatus
infraspinatus
76
What muscle (s) will be affetcted by a lesion in the spinoglenoid notch?
infraspinatus
77
What are the four borders of the quadrilateral space?
teres major
humeris
teres minor
long head triceps
78
What muscle will classically atrophy during quadrilateral space syndrome?
teres minor
79
What muscle (s) attaches to the ASIS?
sartorius
TFL
80
What muscle (s) attaches to the ASIS?
sartorius
TFL
81
What muscles originates at the AIIS?
rectus femoris
82
Where is the most common location for a hip labral tear?
anterior/superior
83
Is a cam type deformity an issue with the femur or acetabulum?
femur
84
Is a pincer type deformity an issue with the femur or acetabulum?
acetabulum
85
What is the sign for pincer type deformity?
cross over sign
86
What are the three classic associations for FAI?
1. os acetabuli
2. peri-labral cysts
3. early arthritis
87
What is an os acetabuli?
unfused secondary ossification center
88
What group of patients are prone to heterotopic ossification?
Ank Spon
89
What is the threshold for aseptic loosening?
> 2mm
90
What is it called if a hip arthroplasty slides downwards?
subsidence
91
What distance defines subsidence?
>1cm along femoral component
92
Does wear or creep occur along the long axis of the femoral component? Normal or not normal?
creep
normal
93
Does wear or creep occur along the superior aspect of the acetabular component? Normal or not normal?
wear
not normal
94
What is the primary underlying factor of particle disease?
Wear
95
Does particle disease occur in cemented or non-cemented hips?
non-cemented
96
What will be seen on an xray of particle disease?
endosteal scalloping
97
Will particle disease produce sclerosis?
no
98
Does a segond fracture happen with internal or external rotation?
internal
99
Where is a reverse segond located? Avulsion of what ligament?
medial tibial plateau
MCL bitch
100
What ligament is affected with a reverse segond?
MCL
101
Does a reverse segond occur with internal or external rotation?
external
102
What is the arcuate sign? What ligament is associated?
avulsion of fibular head
PCL
103
The deep intercondylar notch sign is indicative of what type of ligamentous tear? Medial or lateral plateau?
ACL
lateral
104
What two structures form the conjoint tendon of the knee?
LCL and biceps femoris
105
What inserts on Gerdy's Tubercle?
IT band
106
Is magic angle seen on sequences with short TE or long TE?
short
107
Mucoid degeneration of the ACL predisposes to what lesion?
ganglion cyst
108
The tibial tunnel of the ACL repair should parallel what structure?
roof of femoral intercondylar notch
109
Does a cyclops lesions limit flexion or extension ?
extension
110
What four structures compose the posterolateral corner?
1. LCL
2. biceps femoris
3. IT band (???)
4. popliteus tendon
111
What is the most common finding on MRI for a posterior corner injury?
edema of fibular head
112
Is the peripheral zone of the meniscus the red or white zone?
red
113
Is the central zone of the meniscus the red or white zone?
white
114
Is a discoid meniscus a variant of the medial or lateral meniscus? Prone to?
lateral
tear
115
Double PCL sign proves what strcuture is intact?
ACL
116
Is the ligament of humphrey anterior or posterior?
anterior
117
Is the ligament of wrisberg anterior or posterior?
posterior
118
Does the patella usually dislocate medially or laterally?
laterally
119
What ligament can be torn with a lateral patellar dislocation?
medial patello-femoral ligament
120
What is the opposite of patella alta?
patella baja
121
What disease is associated with patella alta?
SLE
122
"Bilateral patellar rupture" is associated with what condition?
chronic steroids
123
Are medial or lateral plateau fractures more common?
lateral
124
A tillaux fracture is what type of salter harris?
three
125
Does a tillaux fracture require an open physis on the lateral or medial tibia?
Lateral
126
Does the distal tibia fuse from medial to lateral or lateral to medial?
medial to lateral
127
What type of salter harris fracture is a triplane fx?
SH four
128
A triplane fx is a Tillaux plus what?
veritcal fracture through metaphysis
129
What two structure can be involved distally in a Maisonneuve fracture?
medial tibial malleolus
distal tibial/fibular syndesmosis
130
What is a casanova fracture? Other fracture associated with this?
bilateral calcaneal fractures
thoraco/lumbar compression fractures
131
What is a normal Bohler's angle? Would a fracture indicate greater or lesser degree?
20-40
<20 = fracture of calcaneus
132
What fracture is associated with a lis franc ligament injury?
base of 2nd meta-tarsal (fleck sign)
133
Does TDH occur A-->P or P-->A?
anterior to posterior
134
Is the peroneus longus or brevis lateral?
Longus = lateral
135
What is the Master Knot of Henry?
where FDL crosses FHL at ankle
136
What tendon rupture can cause acute flat foot? Where does this insert?
posterior tibial tendon
navicular
137
Sinus tarsi space is located between which two bones?
calcaneus and lateral talus
138
How is sinus tarsi syndrome diagnosed on MRI?
obliteration of fat
139
Spring ligament complex connects which two bones?
calcaneus to navicular
140
Mortons neuroma occurs between which two bones?
3rd and 4th metaatrsal heads
141
What two issues cause a Haglunds Deformity?
calcaneal bony prominence and achilles tendon bursitis
142
What are the two most common locations of Looser Zones?
femoral neck and pubic ramus
143
What is Z score adjusted for?
Age
144
What is Osteochondritis Dissecans?
aseptic loosening of osteochondral fragment
145
What is the age range for O.D. of the elbow? What specific part of the elbow?
12-16
capitellum
146
What bone is affected by Kohler disease? What is the disease process?
Navicular
juvenile osteonecrosis
147
What is the adult equivalent of Kohler disease?
Muller Weiss
148
What bone is affected by Freiberg Infraction? What age group?
2nd metatarsal head
juvenile girls
149
What is Sever's disease?
calcaneal apophysitis
150
Scheurmann's Disease has to have a thoracic kyphosis greater than what angle?
40 degrees
151
Which months do the physeal vessels close?
18 months
152
What part of the vertebral body is vascular?
end plate
153
What is better in the spine, gallium of In-111?
Gallium
154
Which two infectious bugs spare the disc space?
TB
Brucella
155
What are rice bodies?
infarcted, sloughed synovium
156
What bug can cause dactylitis?
TB
157
What two joints can get septic arthritis?
SI
sternoclavicular
158
Where does a periosteal osteosarcoma like to grow from?
medial, distal femur
159
What are the three diagnostic considerations for a fluid/fluid level on MRI?
1. ABC
2. Telangiectatic osteosarc .
3. GCT
160
What are the four epiphyseal lesions?
1. Giant cell
2. Chondroblastoma
3. Infection
4. ABC
161
What is the normal angle of the femoral neck with the femur?
130
162
Is coxa vara less then or greater than 130 degrees?
less than 130
163
Is coxa valga less then or greater than 130 degrees?
greater than
164
WHat are the two polyostotic fibrous dysplasia syndromes?
-McCune Albright
Mazabroud
165
What are the cutaneous issue for McCune ALbright?
cafe au lait
166
What are the cutaneous issue for Mazabraud?
soft tissue myxomas
167
What can happen to the bone lesions in Mazabraud compared to McCune albright?
mazabraud = increased risk of malignancy
168
Where is an adamantinoma located? What is it? What is the risk?
- tibia
- fibrous dysplasia
- malignant transformation
169
What joint do NOFs most commonly occur?
knee
170
What size is an NOF?
> 3cm
171
A 'Floating Tooth' should make you think what disease?
LCH/EG
172
Giant cell tumor needs to meet what two conditons?
1. Closed physis
| 2. abuts articular surface
173
Painful scoliosis should make you think what lesion?
Osteoid osteoma
174
Does the osteoid osteoma spinal convexity point towards or away from the lesion?
Convexity = away from lesion
175
An osteoblastoma is bigger than what size?
2 cm
176
What are the four epiphyseal equivalents?
1. patella
2. calcaneus
3. carpals
4. all the apophysis
177
Is carcinoid blastic or lytic?
blastic
178
Is medulloblastoma blastic or lytic?
blastic
179
What is trevor diease?
multiple osteochondromas that point towards a joint
180
What ligament is associated with an avian spur? What nerve can this compress?
ligament of struthers
median nerve
181
What muscle in the neck can have hydroxyappatite deposition?
longus colli
182
What are osteopoikilosis? What forms in the soft tissues over them?
bunch of bone islands
keloid
183
Which anemia will obliterate the sinuses?
Thalassemia
184
What are the three stages of pagets disease?
lytic --> mixed --> blastic
185
What is the most common non-cancerous complication of pagets?
deafness
186
Does fibrous dysplasia involve the inner or outer table?
outer
187
Does pagets involve the inner or outer table?
both
188
What bone gets spared during pagets?
fibula
189
What long bone can bow during pagets?
tibia
190
Is pagets a picture frame or rugger jersey vertebral body?
picture frame
191
Is renal osteodystrophy a picture frame or rugger jersey vertebral body?
rugger jersey
192
What is the differential for 'H-Shaped' vertebral body?
sickle cell
Gaucher
193
What MRI sequence will differentiate pagets from osteosarc?
T1 pre gad
194
What soft tissue tumor can be dark on T2?
MFH/PUS
195
What is MFH/PUS prone to do?
spontaneously hemorrhage
196
What are the two components of mazabraud?
1. polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
| 2. intramuscular myxomas
197
What do giant cell tumors require?
resection and arthroplasty
198
Does PVNS have erosions?
no
199
How is PVNS treated?
synevectomy
200
Where are giant cell tumors of the tendon sheath usually located?
Palm
201
Are giant cell tumors of the tendon sheath T2 dark or bright?
T2 dark
202
Is PVNS or synovial chondromatosis associated with hemoarthrosis?
PVNS
203
Which may calcify, PVNS or synovial chondromatosis?
synovial chondromatosis
204
What are the two most common locations for diabetic myonecrosis? Biopsy?
thight and calf?
never biopsy
205
Where is the most common location for lipoma arborescens?
supra-patellar fat pad
206
Where is the typical location of a cortical desmoid?
posterior medial epicondyle of distal femur
207
What two muscles contribute to a cortical desmoid?
medial head of gastroc
aDDuctor magnus
207
What two muscles contribute to a cortical desmoid?
medial head of gastroc
aDDuctor magnus
208
Where is a synovial herniation pit typically seen?
superior femoral neck
209
Gull Wing deformity is indicative of what type of arthritis? What joint?
Erosive
DIP
210
What joint does RA classically avoid?
DIP
211
What is the first joint in the foot affected by RA?
5th metatarsal head
212
What is caplan syndrome?
RA + pneumoconiosis
213
What comes first, skin findings or osseus findings of RA?
skin
214
Does RA or psoriasis have bone proliferation?
215
Which favors the IP joints, RA or psoriasis?
psoriasis
216
Is reiters syndrome common in the hands?
no
217
What type of inflammatory arthritis can have lung findings? What are the lung findings?
A.S.
Upper lobe, cystic changes
218
What type of inflammatory arthritis can have lung findings? What are the lung findings?
A.S.
Upper lobe, cystic changes
219
What is the first joint hit by ank spon?
SI, bilaterally
220
What two diseases can produce asymmetric SI inflammation?
psoriatic
reiter
221
What two diseases can produce symmetric SI inflammation?
inflammatory bowel
A.S.
222
Will gout tophus enhance?
yes?
223
What is the first sign of gout?
joint effusion
224
What are the two components of pseudogout?
synovitis
CPPD
225
"Degenerative change in an uncommon joint" is indicative of what disease?
CPPD
226
SLAC is commonly caused by what diease? What specific ligament is affected?
CPPD
Scapholunate ligament
227
What two diseases have 'hooked' osteophytes? Where are these found?
CPPD and hemophilia
MCP
228
What causes Milwaukee shoulder?
hydroxyappatite
229
What osseus abnormality does hyper-PTH produce? Where?
subperiosteal bone resorption
radial aspect of 2nd and 3rd fingers?
230
Brown Tumor are histologically identical to what other osseus lesion?
giant cell tumor
231
'Shiny Corners' are indicative of what disease? Where are these loacted?
Early AS
Vertebral bodies
232
What disease prodocues a bridging lateral osteophyte?
Psoriatic
233
What two disease can cause cervical spine fusion in kids?
Klippel Feil
JRA
234
What two disease can cause dens erosions?
RA
CPPD
235
Does DISH effect the ALL or PLL?
ALL
236
Does DISH effect the disc space?
no
237
What part of the spine is effected by OPLL? Typical patient population?
cervical
old asian men
238
What part of the spine is effected by destructive spondyloarthropathy? Caused by?
cervical
amyloid/dialysis
239
What joint is most likely to become dislocated during SLE?
patella
240
What is Jaccoud's arthropathy similar to? What is it most commonly caused by?
SLE
post-rheumatic fever
241
JIA has to occur by what age?
16
242
Epiphyseal overgrowth is indicative of what disease?
JIA
243
Is amyloid arthropathy usually unilateral or bilateral?
bilateral
244
Does red marrow convert to yellow from distal to proximal or proximal to distal?
distal to proximal
245
Within the long bones, what is the order of conversion of red to yellow marrow?
epi/apo --> diaphysis --> metadiaphysis
246
What two places can red marrow be found normally in adults?
femoral and humeral heads
247
What is tendon anisotropy on US?
tendon will look hypoechoic if sound beam isnt perpendicular
248
How is tenosynovitis diagnosed on US?
fluid in tendon sheath
249
How much Gd is used for joint infection?
0.1 cc
250
What does air cause on MR?
blooming artifact
