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Obgyn > TrueLearn > Flashcards

TrueLearn Flashcards

1
Q

What treatment for zoster reduces new lesion formation, total number of lesions and improved constitutional symptoms of started within 24 hrs l

A

Acyclovir

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2
Q

How much of an Increased risk of wound infection in diabetic patients compared to non diabetics

A

50%

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3
Q

What percentage of women experience fetal-maternal hemorrhage when giving birth in the third trimester

A

45%

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4
Q

Definition of failed induction of labor

A

failure to generate adequate contractions and cervical change after 24 hours with rupture of membranes if feasible

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5
Q

Birads 2

A

Mass benign

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6
Q

Birads 3

A

Lesion likely benign

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7
Q

Birads 1

A

No abnormality identified

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8
Q

Absolute contraindications to UAE

A

current pregnancy, pelvic inflammatory disease, uterine malignancy, and asymptomatic fibroids.

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9
Q

When do you start screen for elder abuse

A

65

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10
Q

Sexual aversion disorder

A

a persistent or recurrent aversive response to genital contact with a sexual partner that causes marked distress or interpersonal difficulty.

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11
Q

Unilateral cryptorchism fertility rate

A

80%

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12
Q

Most common infectious cause of fetal anemia

A

Parvovirus

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13
Q

Half life of rhogam

A

23 days. Redose after 3 wks

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14
Q

At what endometrial thickness in the setting of pmb should sampling occur.

A

4 mm

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15
Q

Miranda iud failure rate

A

.5 per 1000 after 1 year. 1.1 after 5

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16
Q

Essure failure rate per 1000 procedure

A

2.6 after 5 years

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17
Q

Who needs stress dose steroids

A

Patients are at risk for HPA suppression when taking more than 20 mg/day of prednisone for more than 3 weeks or who have Cushing syndrome.

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18
Q

Effect of fetal exposure of flouroquinolones

A

Fetal cartilage development

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19
Q

Effect of fetal exposure to aminoglycosides

A

Ototoxicity

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20
Q

Effect of fetal exposure to tetracycline

A

Tooth discoloration

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21
Q

Max benefit rhogam

A

72 hrs

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22
Q

Latest time evidence for protective benefit rhogam

A

28 days

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23
Q

Medication to treat OAB

A

Mirabegron

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24
Q

Medication to treat urge in continence

A

Oxybutinin

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25
Q

Medication to treat interstitial cystitis

A

Amitryptoline or pentosan polysulfate sodium

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26
Q

Most common identified mutation in women who have VTE in pregnancy

A

Heterozygous factor V Leiden. Testing IS reliable furing pregnancy and acute thrombosis

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27
Q

When is periviable period

A

periviable period as a delivery that occurred between 20 weeks 0/7 days and 25 weeks 6/7 days

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28
Q

Acog definition of discriminatory zone

A

3500

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29
Q

Risk of preterm birth after CKC

A

Double background risk , 6.6%

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30
Q

When is aCvs performed

A

Between 10-12 wks

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31
Q

When is amnio performed

A

After 15 weeks

32
Q

MOA of asa

A

Irreversible binds Cox 1! inhibit platelet activation by preventing the synthesis of the intermediates leading to thromboxane A2. It inhibits aggregation by decreasing the expression of COX-1

33
Q

When is vicryl fully absorbed

A

60-70 days

34
Q

When does vicryl lose full tensile strength

A

28 days

35
Q

What percentage of women are readmitted with post embolization syndrome

A

10%

36
Q

What symptoms encompass post embolization syndrome

A

pelvic pain, cramping, nausea/vomiting, low-grade fever, and malaise

37
Q

Pathophys of primary dysmenorrhea due to

A

increased prostaglandins E2 and F2 alpha. Leads to uterine contractions, increased pressure , temporary ischemia and activation of pain fibers

38
Q

the recommended age for a risk-reducing bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy in women with a BRCA 1 gene mutation who have completed childbearing

A

35-40

39
Q

the recommended age for a risk-reducing bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy in women with a BRCA 2gene mutation who have completed childbearing

A

40-45

40
Q

Most reliable test to assess if ovulation ocurred

A

A serum progesterone level is the most reliable and objective way to assess whether ovulation has occurred. Levels greater than 3 ng/mL signify ovulation when checked approximately one week prior to the next anticipated menstrual cycle.

41
Q

What is Allen-Masters window associated with

A

defect or pocket in the peritoneal surface where endometrial cells have been trapped. These “windows” may appear as shallow defects or openings into the peritoneal surface. Like other pathognomonic findings, they are often found near the cul-de-sac or uterosacral ligaments.

42
Q

What is GIFT

A

oocytes and sperm are deposited within the fallopian tube via laparoscopy, allowing fertilization to occur in vivo.

43
Q

Gadolinium exposure in pregnancy

A

Gadolinium exposure in the first trimester is associated with a higher risk of any rheumatologic, inflammatory, and infiltrative skin disorders.

44
Q

At what percentage is a pregnant patient’s total blood volume expanded above that found in nonpregnant women?

A

30-50

45
Q

Umbilical vein drains into what by way of ductus venosus?

A

IVC

46
Q

percentage lifetime risk of ovarian cancer in the general population?

A

1.43

47
Q

What GA start screening TTTS?

A

16

48
Q

what gestational age does the fetal thyroid gland begin producing thyroid hormone?

A

12 w

49
Q

How to differentiate between CAH and PCOS?

A

CAH Will have elevated 17 OHP ( above 200 suspicious, above 1500 diagnostic )

50
Q

Most likely malignant component of a mature dermoid cyst

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

51
Q

Post maturity syndrome

A

decreased subcutaneous fat, decreased vernix, decreased lanugo, meconium-stained amniotic fluid, and oligohydramnios.

52
Q

Gnrh independent precocious puberty

A

Mccune Albright

53
Q

Max dose of lidocaine with epi

A

7 mg/kg

54
Q

Max dose of lidocaine without epi

A

4.5 mg/kg

55
Q

Most common cause of ambiguous genitalia

A

CAH

56
Q

What percent of the female population is seropositive for HSV-2.

A

26

57
Q

Klinefelter phenotype

A

long limbs, primary hypogonadism, severe oligospermia or azoospermia, and greater learning intellectual disability

58
Q

Most common chromosomal abnormality in infertile men

A

Klinefelter

59
Q

Erb palsy

A

C5 and c6

60
Q

Klumpke palsy

A

C8 and t1

61
Q

How do you manage transaction of ureter at pelvic brim

A

Ureteroureterostomy

62
Q

Max dose of lidocaine with epi

A

7 mg per kg

63
Q

Stage II gtn

A

Extend outside uterus it limited to genital structures

64
Q

Stage iii gtn

A

Extends to lungs with it without genital involvement

65
Q

Dose limiting side effect of cisplatin

A

Nephroyoxicity

66
Q

What level of DHEAS is concerning for adrenal tumor

A

Greater than 700

67
Q

Presacral neurectomy can help with what type of endometriosis pain

A

Midline

68
Q

What is the most thrombogenic thrombophilia

A

Antithrombin iii Thrombosis risk of 11-40% in preg.

69
Q

Normal blood gas change in preg

A

Respiratory alkalosis due to increased minute ventilation and blowing off co2.

70
Q

Daily suppressive therapy reduces Hsv outbreak recurrence by

A

70-80

71
Q

Daily suppressive therapy for HSV decreases recurrences by ?

A

70-80%

72
Q

Daily suppressive Hsv therapy decreases sexual transmission by

A

50%

73
Q

Main blood supply to anterior abdominal wall

A

Deep inferior epi gastric

74
Q

Elevated AFP and acetylcholinesterase

A

NTD

75
Q

Cystometry urge incontinence

A

No abdominal pressure with increased detruser pressure and leaking

Obgyn (3 decks)

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