Tuberculosis Drugs Flashcards

(65 cards)

1
Q

How many individuals died of TB infection in 2015?

A

1.8 million

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2
Q

How many individuals died of MDR in 2016?

A

240,000

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3
Q

XDR has been observed in how many countries?

A

117 countries

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4
Q

How many individuals were infected with TB in 2015?

A

10.4 million

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5
Q

Why is TB increasing in the UK?

A
  • Immigration
  • Drug resistance
  • Worldwide travel
  • HIV co-infection
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6
Q

When was the first TB antibiotic identified, what was it?

A

Streptomycin 1943

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7
Q

What are symptoms of TB infection?

A
  • Chills
  • Coughing for over 3 weeks
  • Coughing up blood
  • Fever
  • Night sweats
  • Unintentional weight loss
  • Chest pain
  • Difficulty breathing
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8
Q

How can TB be diagnosed?

A
  • Mantoux TST
  • Chest X-ray
  • Alere Determine TB LAM Ag
  • IGRA: QuantiFERON TB Gold
  • Sputum smear microscopy
  • 16S rRNA probes
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9
Q

TST results can be obtained within?

A

48-72 hours

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10
Q

Sputum smear microscopy results can be obtained within?

A

3-6 weeks

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11
Q

Chest X-ray results can be obtained within?

A

Immediately

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12
Q

IGRA results can be obtained within?

A

24 hours

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13
Q

What is IGRA?

A

Interferon Gamma Release Assay

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14
Q

Main issue with TST?

A

False positives due to BCG vaccination

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15
Q

Which test is not impacted by BCG vaccination?

A

Interferon gamma release assay

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16
Q

Main issues with chest X-ray?

A

X-ray exposure is not ideal

Can only identify the late stages of infection

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17
Q

16S rRNA is associated with?

A

30S ribosomal subunit

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18
Q

Prokaryotic ribosome structure?

A

30S small subunit
50S large subunit
70S ribosome

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19
Q

16S rRNA structure?

A

Has conserved regions

Has variable regions which are species/genus specific

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20
Q

How can 16S rRNA be used to identify bacteria?

A
  • Primers to the conserved regions which amplify the variable regions
  • Compare the sequence of the variable regions to known sequence databases
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21
Q

What is used to stimulate the T cell IFN-g production in vitro in the interferon gamma release assay?

A

CFP-10
TB 7.7
ESAT-6

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22
Q

What can detect IFN-G in the IGRA?

A

ELISA technology

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23
Q

Why does is QuantiFERON TB Gold not impacted by BCG?

A

As attenuated mycobacterium bovis has an RD1 deletion which means it lacks the CFP-10 and ESAT-6

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24
Q

Can IGRA distinguish between latent and active infection?

A

No

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25
Can Mantoux TST distinguish between latent and active infection?
No
26
What are we looking for in an effective diagnosis?
- Fast - High sensitivity - High specificity - Reliable - Cost effective - Safe - Easy to perform - Can be transportable - Not impacted by vaccination - Non-invasive - Can diagnose infection in children
27
Why can LAM be detected in the urine of HIV+ TB co-infected individuals?
As they have a low CD4+ cell count, TB infection could not be contained, results in disseminated TB disease. LAM is shed by the bacteria in the kidneys and is released into the urine
28
What were the earliest TB treatments?
Purple bugle to encourage individuals to cough up blood | TB sanatoriums
29
When was the first TB drug identified and what was it?
WWII 1943 Streptomycin
30
DOTS is?
Directly Observed Treatment, short course
31
DOTS is how long?
6 months
32
2 months with?
Rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide and ethambutol
33
4 months with?
Rifampicin and isoniazid
34
Which drugs are cell wall synthesis inhibitors?
Isoniazid and ethambutol
35
Which drugs are prodrugs?
Isoniazid and pyrazinamide
36
Which drug can penetrate into the caseum?
Pyrazinamide
37
Which drug stays in the rim of the granuloma?
Clofazimine
38
What does isoniazid do?
Prevents mycolic acid synthesis
39
What does ethambutol do?
Inhibits arabinosyl transferases | Prevents arabinogalactan synthesis
40
What does pyrazinamide do?
Energy inhibitor De-energises the membrane Collapses the proton motive force
41
What does streptomycin do?
Protein synthesis inhibitor | Blocks 30S ribosomal subunit and associated 16S rRNA
42
What do fluoroquinolones do?
DNA synthesis inhibitor, inhibits DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV activity
43
What does bedaquiline do?
ATP synthase inhibitor
44
Promising new drug?
Bedaquiline
45
What is required to activate isoniazid prodrug?
KatG | Catalase peroxidase
46
What is required to activate pyrazinamide prodrug?
Pyrazinamidase
47
What encodes catalase peroxidase?
katG gene
48
What encodes pyrazinamidase?
pncA gene
49
Resistance to isoniazid?
Overexpression of InhA | Mutations in katG or inhA genes
50
Resistance to pyrazinamide?
Mutations in pnca
51
Resistance to ethambutol?
Mutations in arabinosyl transferases
52
Resistance to rifampin?
Mutations in rpoB
53
rpoB gene?
DNA dependent RNA polymerase
54
Rifampin action?
Prevents transcription by inhibiting the DNA dependent RNA polymerase
55
Resistance to streptomycin?
Mutations in the 16S rRNA gene
56
Resistance to fluoroquinolones?
Mutations in the DNA gyrase
57
How does pyrazinamide work?
Transformed into pyrazinoic acid by pyrazinamidase In acid pH the uncharged protonated pyrazinoic acid can cross the membrane along with protons, this can de-energise the membrane and lead to collapse of the proton motive force
58
What are drug tolerant bacteria?
These are persisters | They have phenotypic resistance
59
What is phenotypic resistance?
Same genome as susceptible cells but able to tolerate certain levels of antibiotics
60
What can drive phenotypic resistance?
The lack of vascularisation in the caseum | Low nutrients and low oxygen can cause cells to become metabolically inactive and dormant
61
Many antibiotics rely on cells being?
Metabolically active
62
Which antibiotic is ineffective on dormant cells?
Isoniazid
63
Which type of resistance is genetic?
MDR and XDR
64
Types of genetic resistance?
Natural intrinsic | Acquired
65
Why is combination therapy required?
No single antibiotic in our current arsenal can penetrate every area of the granuloma and target all the different types of bacteria present To prevent resistance developing