Tuesday [23/11/2021] Flashcards

(104 cards)

1
Q

Define AKI [3]

A

A rise in serum creatinine of 26 micromol/L or greater within 48 hours.
Be aware that in the absence of a baseline creatinine value, a high serum creatinine level may indicate AKI, even if the rise in creatinine over 48 hours is less than 26 micromol/L (particularly if the person has been unwell for a few days).
A 50% or greater rise in serum creatinine (more than 1.5 times baseline) known or presumed to have occurred within the past 7 days.
A fall in urine output to less than 0.5 mL/kg/hour for more than 6 hours (if it is possible to measure this, for example, if the person has a catheter).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Concern with using SGLT-2 inihibitors [1]

A

Euglycaemic DKA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What to assess in pt with AKI? []

A

Volume status:

  • checking fluid intake/loss
  • peripheral perfusion
  • HR/BP
  • JVP
  • peripheral oedema, pulmonary crackles

Renal function and serum pot level [to excl/ hyperkalaemia]

Drug history, Sx underyling inflammatory disease

Urine dipstick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Stage 1 AKI

A

Creatinine rise of 26 micromol or more within 48 hours OR

Creatinine rise of 50–99% from baseline within 7 days* (1.50–1.99 x baseline) OR

Urine output** < 0.5 mL/kg/h for more than 6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Stage 2 AKI

A

100–199% creatinine rise from baseline within 7 days* (2.00–2.99 x baseline) OR

Urine output** < 0.5 mL/kg/hour for more than 12 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Stage 3 AKI

A

200% or more creatinine rise from baseline within 7 days* (3.00 or more x baseline) OR

Creatinine rise to 354 micromol/L or more with acute rise of 26 micromol/L or more within 48 hours or 50% or more rise within 7 days OR

Urine output** < 0.3 mL/kg/hour for 24 hours or anuria for 12 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When to discuss Mx of AKI with a nephrologist [4]

A

Stage 4 or 5 chronic kidney disease. For more information, see the CKS topic on Chronic kidney disease.
A possible diagnosis that may need specialist treatment, for example, tubulointerstitial nephritis, glomerulonephritis (indicated by haematuria/proteinuria), systemic vasculitis that may also be affecting the kidney, or myeloma.
Inadequate response to treatment.
Other complications associated with acute kidney injury.
A renal transplant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When to urgently admit people with AKI [4]

A

Likely stage 3 acute kidney injury.
An underlying cause that requires urgent secondary care management such as when an obstructed, infected kidney is suspected.
No identifiable cause for acute kidney injury.
A risk of urinary tract obstruction (for example known prostate or bladder disease; abdominal or pelvic cancer; known previous hydronephrosis; recurrent urinary tract infections; or other conditions consistent with possible obstruction, for example, anuria, single functioning kidney, neurogenic bladder).
Sepsis.
Evidence of hypovolaemia and a need for intravenous fluid replacement and monitoring.
A deterioration in clinical condition or a need for observation or monitoring of a frequency which is impractical in primary care.
A complication of acute kidney injury requiring urgent secondary care management such as pulmonary oedema, uraemic encephalopathy or pericarditis, or severe hyperkalaemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How ot Mx patient with stage AKI who don;t have any indication for admission? [4]

A

Manage the cause, if the expertise and resources are available in primary care.
Offer supportive measures such as advice on maintaining appropriate hydration.
Consider stopping potentially nephrotoxic medications (for example angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and diuretics) or adjusting the doses of medication in relation to renal function. Seek specialist advice if unsure.
For more information, see the Think Kidneys documents Acute kidney injury - potentially problematic drugs and actions to take in primary care and Guidelines for medicines optimisation in patients with acute kidney injury.
Information on dose adjustment in renal impairment is available from the British National Formulary (BNF) or the manufacturers’ Summary of Product Characteristics (available at www.medicines.org.uk/emc).
Monitor creatinine regularly, using clinical judgement to determine frequency.
Be aware that even small increases in creatinine can be significant.
Reconsider the need to admit to hospital or discuss with a specialist if there is deterioration in the person’s condition, or an inadequate response to treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

First line Mx of AKI [10]

A

Find and treat the underlying cause.
Prevent fluid overload, and correct electrolyte imbalances—particularly hyperkalemia.
If patient is oliguric and not volume overloaded, a monitored fluid challenge may help.
Furosemide is ineffective in preventing and treating AKI but can (judiciously) be used to manage volume overload and/or hyperkalemia. Furosemide stress test may predict the likelihood of progressive AKI, need for RRT, and mortality (4)[B].
Dopamine, natriuretic peptides, insulin-like growth factor, and thyroxine have no benefit in the treatment of AKI.
Fenoldopam, a dopamine agonist, has been equivocal in decreasing risk of RRT and mortality in AKI; not currently recommended (1)[C]
Hyperkalemia with ECG changes: Give IV calcium gluconate, isotonic sodium bicarbonate (only if acidemic, and avoid use of hypertonic “amps” of NaHCO3), glucose with insulin, and/or high-dose nebulized albuterol (to drive K+ into cells); sodium polystyrene (Kayexalate) and/or furosemide (to increase K+ excretion); hemodialysis if severe/refractory
Fluid restriction may be required for oliguric patients to prevent worsening hyponatremia.
Metabolic acidosis (particularly pH <7.2): Sodium bicarbonate can be given (judiciously); be aware of volume overload, hypocalcemia, and hypokalemia.
Effective strategies for AKI prevention: isotonic IVF, once-daily dosing of aminoglycosides; use of lipid formulations of amphotericin B, use of iso-osmolar nonionic contrast media
Risk of contrast-induced AKI is reduced by avoidance of hypovolemia: isotonic saline 1 mL/kg/hr morning of procedure and continued until next morning or isotonic NaHCO3 3 mL/kg/hr × 1 hour before and 1 mL/kg/hr × 6 hours after contrast administration; N-acetylcysteine not of benefit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

WHy is furosemide not very good to treat AKI [2]

A

Furosemide is ineffective in preventing and treating AKI but can (judiciously) be used to manage volume overload and/or hyperkalemia. Furosemide stress test may predict the likelihood of progressive AKI, need for RRT, and mortality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

2nd line for AKI [2]

A

Tamsulosin or other selective α-blockers for bladder outlet obstruction secondary to BPH
Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers may have a protective effect in posttransplant ATN.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Dietary changes for patients with AKI [4]

A

Total caloric intake of 20 to 30 kcal/kg/day (1)
Restrict Na+ to 2 g/day (unless hypovolemic).
Consider K+ restriction (2 to 3 g/day) if hyperkalemic.
If hyperphosphatemic, consider use of phosphate binders, although no evidence of benefit in AKI.
Avoid magnesium- and aluminum-containing compounds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Indications for emergent haemodialysis [3]

A

Indications for emergent hemodialysis: severe hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis, or volume overload refractory to conservative therapy; uremic pericarditis, encephalopathy, or neuropathy; and selected alcohol and drug intoxications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Causes of prerenal kidney disease

A

Decreased renal perfusion (often due to hypovolemia) leads to a decrease in glomerular filtration rate (GFR).
Caused by hypotension, volume depletion (GI losses, excessive sweating, diuretics, hemorrhage); renal artery stenosis/embolism; burns; heart/liver failure. Also hypercalcaemia, sepsis
If decreased perfusion is prolonged or severe, can progress to ischemic acute tubular necrosis (ATN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Causes of intrarenal kideny disease

A

ATN (from prolonged prerenal azotemia, radiographic contrast material, aminoglycosides, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs [NSAIDs], or other nephrotoxic substances), glomerulonephritis (GN), acute interstitial nephritis (AIN; drug induced), arteriolar insults, vasculitis, accelerated hypertension, cholesterol embolization (following an intra-arterial procedure), intrarenal deposition/sludging (uric acid nephropathy and multiple myeloma [Bence Jones proteins])

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Causes of postrenal kidney disease

A

Extrinsic compression (e.g., benign prostatic hypertrophy [BPH], carcinoma, pregnancy); intrinsic obstruction (e.g., calculus, tumor, clot, stricture, sloughed papillae); decreased function (e.g., neurogenic bladder), leading to obstruction of the urinary collection system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

ABCDE approach to managing unwell patient [5]

A

A – airway patent [can they respond verbally]
B – sats, RR [>94 aimed for, >92 in hypoxic drive COPD, some COPD pts 88-92], respiratory effort [accessory muscle]
C – ECG, pulses, listen to chest
D – pupils, AVPU, GCS, glucose
E – exposure/everything else

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are airway adjunts? [2]

A

Adjuntcs: guedel, O2 mask, nasopharyngeal airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When would you not use an nasopharyngeal airway adjunct? [1]

A

Not use nasopharyngeal airway in skull base fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Features of airway collapse [4]

A

Reduced movement affected side, trachea moved toward affected side, dull percussion, bronchial/reduced breath sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Features of consolidation [4]

A

Reduced movement affected side, trachea central, dull percussion, bronchial breath sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Features of pneuothorax [4]

A

Reduced movement affected side, trachea moved away affected side or central, hyper-resonant percussion, /absent reduced breath sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Plueral fluid features [4]

A

Reduced movement affected side, trachea moved away from affected side or central, stony dull percussion, reduced breath sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
How to manage patient with low sats? [1]
Apply 15l NRM
26
What are some signs of organ perfusion impaired in circulation abcde? [1]
COnfusion, reduced urine output
27
What clinical skills can do in circulation
Bloods, insert 2x wide bore cannula, IVI resus
28
When to consider giving the patient a fluid bolus
If systolic was below 90 or 100
29
What to give patient fluid bolus if low systolic?
500ml crystalloid saline, over 3-5m
30
Everything else in ABCDE
rashes, cellulitis, injury, bleeeding, other causes illness, document, handover [SBAR]
31
Dx anaphlactixis [1]
Sudden onset of airway and/or breathing and/or circulation problems, and usually skin changes [e.g. itchy rash]
32
First line Mx of anaphlaxis
call for help, remove trigger, lie patientflat [with or without leg raised] - sitting posiiton may make breathing easier - if pregnant then lie on LHS may be eaiser
33
Where ot give IM adrenlaine
anterolateral aspect of thigh
34
What to do after giving adrenaline
establish airway, HF oxygen, apply monitoring, pulse ox etc. [ABC]
35
If no response to ABC in anaphylaxis
repeat IM adrenaline after 5m, IV fluid bolus
36
If no response after 2 doses IM adrenaline?
call resus team | follow refractory anaplhyaxis alogrithsm [i think that;s give IV adrenaline]
37
Child under 6m to up to 6y adrenaline dose? [2]
under 6m then 100-150mcg | 6m-6y then 150mcg
38
child 6y-12y vs over 12y for adrenaline [2]
6y then 300mcg, over 12 then 500mcg [same adult]
39
What classification system used for anaphylaxis? [1]
Coombs and Gell classficiation
40
type 1 sesntivity reactions
IgE antbodies, mast cells, allergy and anaplhyaxis
41
type 2 hypersensensitivity
IgM and IgG -> haemolytic disease newborn, trnafusion reactions
42
type 3 hypersenstivity
immune complexes accumulate and cause damage: SLE, RA, HSP
43
type 4
cell, mediated caused by T-lymphocytes causing inflammation and damage local tissues -> organ transplant and contact dermatitis
44
Which blood is given if the patient;s blood group unknown? [1]
O negative
45
managing the bleeding patient [6]
``` ABCDE, correct hypoxaemia seek senoir support ensure IV access [wide bore cannula] activate major haemorrhage protocal [RBCs, FFP, target Hb] resus with blood products tranexamic acid if active bleeding ```
46
what is the target Hb for trnafusion?
think it's 70-90 [>80 if IHD]
47
resus with what in bleeding pt
clear fluids if blood not avaialble | vasopressors [e.g. noradrnelaine] may be required
48
how to reverse warfarin OD
IV vitamin K+ prothrombin complex [/FFP], think also known as beriplex
49
How to reverse dabigatran
idarucimab
50
How to reverse apixaban/rivaroxaban
coagulation factor Xa [andexanet alfa]
51
Ix to do for patient with DKA
ABG, glucoe, ketones, identify cause, ABCDE, rU and E, BP, GCS
52
Dx criteria DKA
capillary glucose >11mol/L known DM capillary/serum ketones >=3 or urine 2_ venous pH >7.3 or bicarbonate <15mmol/L venous pH <7.3 or bicrabonte <15mmol/L
53
When to suspect DKA? [1]
Significant hyperglycaemia [BG>11mmol/l] and increased thirst and urinary frequerncy, weight loss, inability to tolerate fluids, abdo pain, visual distruabnce, ketones breath, lethargy/confusion, breathing, dehydration, shock
54
Mx of DKA
normal saline via large bore cannula _ IV potassium [if <5.5mmol/l] once dehydration corrected + IV insulin septic screen [if unsure about cause]
55
POtential causes of DKA
infection, injury/surgery, medciations [incl. steroids], poor insulin compliance, binge drinking
56
Mx of opiate OD
1. Ventilation - maintain sats 94-98% 2. Naloxone
57
How to give naloxone for DKA
0.4 to 2mg IV/IM/SC repeat every 2-3m titrate in 0.2-0.4mg intervals, max 10mg total endpoint restoration of adequet spontaneous ventilation duration: 30-90m
58
How does naloxone work?
Competitively binds to opiod receptors
59
Reversal of benzos
Flumanezil [caution in long term benzos abusers]
60
Aspirin OD
activated charcoal if <125mg/kg ingested <1h ago gastric lavage if >500mg/kg ingested <1h ago aggressive rehydration
61
Mx of paracetamol if more than 8h ago
NAC if <12g or 150mh/kg parcetamol ingested regardless of plasma level AND 5% dextrose
62
Mx of paracetamol if less than 8h ago
activated charcoal if <12g or 150mg/kg pararcetamol and <2h after OD; NAC if plasma paracetamol obtained and patient above Tx line
63
Revrersal of amitriptyline
sodium bicarbonate
64
reversal of BB
glucagon
65
reversal of cyanide
hydroxocobalamin/nitrates [inhaled]
66
reversal of digoxon OD
digoxon antibodies
67
reversal heparin
protamine
68
reversal of hydrofluoric acid
calcium
69
reversal of iron
desferrioxamine
70
reversla of methanol
ethanol
71
reversal organophosphates
atropine
72
reversal of verapamil
calcium
73
Age group children have similar vital signs as adults?
12 and over
74
What will a chronic subdural haematooma appear on a CT?
On CT imaging, a chronic subdural haematoma will appear as a hypodense (dark), crescentic collection around the convexity of the brain
75
How will EDH appear?
Extradural haematomas show up as biconvex 'lemons'. This is because their spread is limited by the sutures, unlike subdural haematomas
76
Causes of purpura in children
Meningococcal septicaemia • Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia * Congenital bleeding disorders * Immune thrombocytopenic purpura * Henoch-Schonlein purpura * Non-accidental injury
77
causes of purpura in adults
* Immune thrombocytopenic purpura * Bone marrow failure (secondary to leukaemias, myelodysplasia or bone metastases) * Senile purpura * Drugs (quinine, antiepileptics, antithrombotics) * Nutritional deficiencies (vitamins B12, C and folate)
78
Which malignancy can cause pain on alcohol consumtpion? [1]
HL
79
Features of HL [4]
lymphadenopathy (75%) - painless, non-tender, asymmetrical systemic (25%): weight loss, pruritus, night sweats, fever (Pel-Ebstein) alcohol pain in HL normocytic anaemia, eosinophilia LDH raised
80
Defien HTN in pregnancy [2]
systolic > 140 mmHg or diastolic > 90 mmHg | or an increase above booking readings of > 30 mmHg systolic or > 15 mmHg diastolic
81
Define pre-eclampsia
Pregnancy-induced hypertension in association with proteinuria (> 0.3g / 24 hours) Oedema may occur but is now less commonly used as a criteria Occurs in around 5% of pregnancies
82
Features of lichen slcerosus
Lichen sclerosus was previously termed lichen sclerosus et atrophicus. It is an inflammatory condition which usually affects the genitalia and is more common in elderly females. Lichen sclerosus leads to atrophy of the epidermis with white plaques forming Features itch is prominent
83
What's the most common causes of BL hilar lypmhadenopathy? []2
The most common causes of bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy are sarcoidosis and tuberculosis. Other causes include: lymphoma/other malignancy pneumoconiosis e.g. berylliosis fungi e.g. histoplasmosis, coccidioidomycosis
84
Acute Mx of migraine
acute: triptan + NSAID or triptan + paracetamol
85
Prophylaxis of mgraine
Topiramte or propanolol
86
RFs for transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder
Smoking Exposure to aniline dyes in the printing and textile industry: examples are 2-naphthylamine and benzidine Rubber manufacture Cyclophosphamide
87
RFs for squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder
Schistomiasis | smoking
88
Inducers of teh P450 system [cuasing the INR to decrease on warfarin]
antiepileptics: phenytoin, carbamazepine barbiturates: phenobarbitone rifampicin St John's Wort chronic alcohol intake griseofulvin smoking (affects CYP1A2, reason why smokers require more aminophylline)
89
Inhibitors of the P450 system [cuasing the INR to increase]
``` antibiotics: ciprofloxacin, clarithromycine/erythromycin isoniazid cimetidine,omeprazole amiodarone allopurinol imidazoles: ketoconazole, fluconazole SSRIs: fluoxetine, sertraline ritonavir sodium valproate acute alcohol intake quinupristin ```
90
General factors that can potentiate warfarin [5]
``` liver disease P450 enzyme inhibitors (see below) cranberry juice drugs which displace warfarin from plasma albumin, e.g. NSAIDs inhibit platelet function: NSAIDs ```
91
Presentation and cause of kaposi sarcoma
caused by HHV-8 (human herpes virus 8) presents as purple papules or plaques on the skin or mucosa (e.g. gastrointestinal and respiratory tract) skin lesions may later ulcerate respiratory involvement may cause massive haemoptysis and pleural effusion radiotherapy + resection
92
cancr at the caecal, ascending or proximal tranverse colon
Right hemicolectomy
93
cancer at the distal transverse, descending colon
Left hemicolectomy
94
cancer at the sigmoid colon
High anterior resection
95
cancer at the upper rectum
Anterior resection (TME)
96
cancer at the lower rectum
Anterior resection (Low TME)
97
cancer at the anal verge
Abdomino-perineal excision of rectum
98
Features of growing pains
never present at the start of the day after the child has woken no limp no limitation of physical activity systemically well normal physical examination motor milestones normal symptoms are often intermittent and worse after a day of vigorous activity
99
Most likely cause of BL nipple discharge pale in colour young person
Hormonal changes
100
Galactorrhoea
Commonest cause may be response to emotional events, drugs such as histamine receptor antagonists are also implicated
101
When does hyperproclaenameia occur? []
Commonest type of pituitary tumour Microadenomas <1cm in diameter Macroadenomas >1cm in diameter Pressure on optic chiasm may cause bitemporal hemianopia
102
When does mammary duct ectasia occur? [3]
Dilatation breast ducts. Most common in menopausal women Discharge typically thick and green in colour Most common in smokers
103
When does carninoma occur? [2]
Often blood stained | May be underlying mass or axillary lymphadenopathy
104
When do intraductal papillomas occur? [3]
Commoner in younger patients May cause blood stained discharge There is usually no palpable lump