Turbine DC-3 Flashcards
(154 cards)
1
Q
Vmo
A
170
2
Q
Vle
A
141
3
Q
Vfe (top of white arc)
A
95
4
Q
Va
A
107
5
Q
Vyme
A
99
6
Q
Maximum half flap speed
A
97
7
Q
Maximum full flap speed
A
95
8
Q
Vso
A
64
9
Q
VMCa
A
67
10
Q
VMCg
A
60
11
Q
V1 and V2 at gross weight
A
82 & 90 knots
12
Q
What is Max torque for takeoff and for how long?
A
3800 for 5 minutes (take off)
13
Q
What 2 mechanical devices take the DC-3TP’s prop to feather?
A
Spring and counterweight
14
Q
How many prop governors are on a DC-3TP and what are their primary functions?
A
There are two on each engine.
One is the primary governor which governs the prop speed in normal operations. The other is an overspeed Gov. for an overspeed situation.
15
Q
In the test mode at what RPM does the overspeed governor max out at?
A
1564
16
Q
If a two-way communications failure occurs on IFR flight plan and VFR conditions are encountered which should the pilot do?
A
Land as soon as practical
17
Q
How often must VOR equipment be checked for IFR operations?
A
Every 30 days
18
Q
What is traffic pattern altitude for a large aircraft operating in class D airspace?
A
1500 feet
19
Q
Above what cabin pressure altitude must all occupants be supplied with supplemental oxygen?
A
15,000 feet
20
Q
What 2 criteria must be met for a passenger to sit in the jump seat on the flight deck?
A
- An available seat in the cabin.
- Captain approval.
21
Q
How old does a passenger need to be in order to sit in an emergency exit row?
A
15 years old
22
Q
Do pilots flying for a 125 certificate holder need to comply with night currency?
A
No
23
Q
What six items of paperwork are required for an MFI flight?
A
Flight log (Signed Airworthiness Release)
Signed Flight Plan (including wx)
Signed Flight Release
Signed Load Manifest (passenger list attached)
Weight & Balance
Money pouch
24
Q
Which Internet aviation weather sources are approved under MFI Ops specs?
A
N/A must only use FAA approved wx
25
Can an MFI airplane accept the clearance to land and hold short of a crossing runway?
No
(Operation Specifications)
27
What 3 things must a flight crewmember have on them?
1. Pilot certificate
2. Medical certificate
3. Photo ID
27
What four things are required to operate special VFR?
Have an ATC clearance
Remain clear of clouds
Have 1 statute mile visibility
Operate during daylight hours (if aircraft and pilot not instrument rated)
28
In an auto feather condition what component feathers the prop?
The dump valve
29
The autofeather dump valve is looking for what in order to feather the prop?
Positive power (from the opposite engine high pressure switch) and negative ground (from the failing engine low pressure switch)
30
What two criteria need to be met in order for the auto feather system to feather the failing engine's prop?
Torque below 200 foot pounds and power levers above approximately 90% Ng
31
What component in the electrical system switches the starter to generator mode upon engine NG reaching about 43%?
The generator control unit (GCU)
32
Why is it so important to have your GPUs voltage set within acceptable limits before hooking it up to the aircraft?
Because there is no overvoltage protection
33
How many total electrical buses are there on a turbine DC-3 and what are they?
9 Total
1 Hot buss
4 Generator buses
2 Avionics buses
2 Battery buses
34
What is the maximum cranking time of each start?
30 seconds
35
How many starts can be done in a row without waiting more than 60 seconds in between starts to cool the starter/generator?
Three
36
How much rest time must there be after the first or second start attempt?
60 seconds of rest each time
37
How much rest time must there be after a third failed start?
30 minutes rest
38
If you have a generator fail and cannot get it restarted the bus tie should be in which position?
The closed position
39
How many batteries does a DC-3TP have and what is their voltage?
2
24 volts
40
Are the batteries in the DC3-TP wired in series or parallel?
Parallel
41
If the fire detection loop has a single break in it can it still operate?
Yes
42
Does the resistance in the dielectric material in the fire detection tubing decrease or increase as the temperature rises?
Decrease
43
At approximately how many ohms will the fire detection system computer set off the alarm?
100 ohms
44
What four things happen when the fire warning T handle is pulled?
Shuts off the fuel
Shuts off the hydraulics
Arms the extinguishers
Turns off bleed air
45
With a confirmed engine fire in-flight what five things should be accomplished before activating the fire extinguisher?
Move the Power lever to idle
Pull the T handle
Feather the prop
Move the condition lever to stop
Slow to 91 knots
46
The PT 6A – 65 A.R. is
A. A reverse flow
B. 2 (split) shaft
C. A free turbine
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
47
What shaft HP is the PT 6A – 65 AR engine de-rated to?
1230 shaft horsepower
48
What limits the shaft horsepower of a PT6A – 65 AR engine to 1230 hp at sea level?
The pilot by not going over the take off torque setting.
49
If the propeller speed exceeds 1800 RPMs what do you do?
Bring the power lever to idle, feather the propeller, condition lever to stop and shut down the engine.
50
What should you do if the engine oil pressure drops below 90 psi in-flight?
Reduce the torque to 2000 or torque 20
51
What should you do if the engine oil pressure drops below 60 PSI in-flight?
Shut the engine down
52
Can BP 2380 and Castrol 5000 oil be mixed in the PT 6 – 65 AR engine?
No
53
Must the star valve be open in order for the emergency or standby pump to operate a hydraulic component?
No
54
A frequently cycling pressure regulating valve would indicate what problem in the hydraulic system?
An accumulator with a low or lost air charge
55
The hydraulic reservoir holds a total of how many quarts of hydraulic fluid?
10 quarts
56
How many quarts are available to the engine driven hydraulic pumps?
7 quarts
57
How many quarts are available for the emergency or standby hydraulic pump?
3 quarts
58
What allows a reduced flow of oxygen for a given altitude?
The Oxi-saver cannula.
59
How do the flow valve adjustments on the O2 systems differ between 200mf and 500mf?
They are the same now
60
Describe the location of the O2 tanks on both 200 MF and 500 MF
Beneath the floor in the forward cabin
61
Describe how you would get fuel out of the right front aux tank to run both engines if it's transfer pump failed.
1. Open the right interconnect
2. Open the wing interconnect
3. Run the left transfer in auto
4. Run the right rear in manual
62
How many electric driven fuel pumps are on a turbine DC-3 and where are they?
8 total.
2 in both main tanks and one in each of the 4 auxiliary fuel tanks
63
What is the best way to avoid a thunderstorm?
To fly on the upwind side at least 20 miles from the heaviest precipitation
64
If encountering turbulence while circumventing a thunderstorm is it best to keep your wings level and let the air speed and altitude fluctuate?
Yes
65
According to MFI operational specification what is the minimum RVR and visibility in statute miles for takeoff
1600 RVR and 1/4 mile visibility
66
When taking off under reduced visibility conditions, MFIs SOP requires an alternate airport to be within how many miles?
60 Nautical miles
67
When taking off under reduced visibility conditions, MFIs SOP requires the current and ETA weather at the alternate airport to be above what minimums?
800 foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility
68
Structural icing on the airframe can cause loss of performance due to:
A. Increased drag
B. Decreased Stall speed
C. Increased weight
D. Both A and C
D. Both A and C
69
If you encounter inadvertent icing what three possible ways are there to get out of this condition
Climb
descend
Get out of visible moisture
70
If an airway marker has an arrow as part of its marker sign what does it mean?
It is a one way airway
71
What does the number under the airway signify?
The MEA, the minimum en route altitude
72
What does the number underneath the airway signify that is followed by a "T"?
It is the MOCA
73
What is the normal range of hydraulic system pressure?
600-875 PSI
74
In order for the brakes to operate properly, what must the minimum hydraulic system pressure to be?
675 PSI
75
During flight, how is the landing gear maintained in the up position?
Trapped fluid pressure
76
Which way should you turn the star valve to be sure that it is fully closed?
Clockwise
77
What is the air preload in the main hydraulic system accumulator?
250 psi
78
What would be the indication that the accumulator is ruptured?
Low or no fluid, frequently cycling hydraulic regulator, “banging” sound whenever a hydraulic system is used.
79
If hydraulic system pressure climbed to and remained steady at 1000 PSI, what malfunction would this indicate?
The hydraulic pressure regulator is inoperative.
80
What four systems on the turbine DC-3 are operated by the main hydraulic system?
Landing gear
flaps
brakes
wipers
81
How is the latch lock handle repositioned to the spring position after the gear is raised?
By returning the gear handle to the neutral position
82
What is the procedure to be followed in raising the landing gear?
1. Unlatch the lock
2. Select up
83
What is the procedure to be followed in lowering the landing gear?
1. Select down
2. Check pressure in green
3. Put the handle in neutral
4. Check for 2 green lights
5. Latch the lock
84
What four items should be checked after the gear is lowered to assure it is down and locked?
1. Pressure
2. Two green lights
3. Lock is latched
4. Visually check the gear
85
If when the power levers are closed on approach to landing you notice that the red landing gear warning lights are on, what may be the problem?
The gear handle is not in neutral.
86
If the mechanical down latches cannot be locked, as indicated by a red light and warning horn, is it still safe to land provided that the landing gear appears to be fully extended, the landing gear system pressure is up and the gear handle is a neutral?
Yes, but don't break hard
87
When landing under the conditions where the mechanical down latches cannot be locked, what precautions should be observed?
Monitor down pressure
Clear the runway & pin the gear
88
The hydraulic system pressure relief valve is set to open at what pressure?
1000 PSI +50 -0
89
In the event of failure of the main hydraulic system, what procedure should be followed for emergency use of brakes?
Turn on emergency electric pump when brakes are needed
90
Can the DC-3 hydraulic reservoir be replenished in-flight?
Yes (don’t forget to put the cap on or you will get a shower if you select flaps or gear)
91
In the event of a brake in the landing gear down lines, how would you go about lowering the landing gear?
1. Put the plane in a 30-60°bank
2. Select gear down
3. Use 1.5-2 gravity turn.
92
Where is the wing flaps selector valve control located?
At the end of the flap handle
93
In the event of failure of the main hydraulic system, how could you lower the wing flaps, if at all?
Use the emergency pump if you have lots of fluid
94
Where are the hydraulic pressure gauges located?
The lower right side instrument panel.
95
Where is the parking brake control located?
The lower part of the center console
96
How are the parking brakes set on the DC three?
1. Apply pedals on captain side only
2. Pull parking brake knob
97
If you had to make a wheels up emergency landing due to terrain hazards, could you still use the brakes to shorten your ground distance?
Yes
98
What is the minimum amount of fuel required in an auxiliary fuel tank to use the manual transfer pump when the engines are running?(MFI SOP)
400 pounds of fuel
99
When completing an engine status report form in flight, how should the engines be set?
The torque settings should be matched and the cabin bleed air off
100
What is the fuel capacity of each main tank?
118.5 gallons
116 gallons usable
101
What is the capacity of each front aux fuel tank
202 gallons
200 gallons usable
102
What is the capacity of each rear aux tank
200 gallons
199 gallons usable
103
What is the total fuel capacity of a turbine DC-3
1041 gallons total
1030 gallons usable
104
What class of medical does MFI require?
Second for 125, First for Haiti (2023)
105
What is the normal oil pressure range?
90-135 PSI
106
What is the total oil tank capacity?
10 quarts each engine
107
What is the total usable oil quantity?
6 quarts each engine
108
What is the total oil system capacity?
15 quarts each engine
109
What is the maximum allowed oil consumption?
0.24 pints per hour
110
What kind of propeller is on the turbine DC three?
Hartzell five bladed 111.2 inch propeller
111
What type of propeller?
Hydraulically operated, constant speed, full feathering, reversible
112
Maximum ramp weight
29,300 pounds
113
Maximum landing weight?
28,750 pounds
114
Maximum weight in the cargo compartment
11,790 pounds
115
Maximum zero fuel weight
26,200 pounds
116
For emergency take off what is the maximum shaft horse power
1424
117
What is the maximum torque for emergency take off?
4400 Ft/lbs
118
What is the normal operating range for oil temperature
0 to 100°C
119
What rpm should not be used for Taxi?
1170-1400 RPMs
120
What is the maximum approved altitude?
24,000 feet MSL
121
What speed should be used for a single engine approach and landing?
V ref + 10
122
What speed should be used for a single engine go around?
V2 + 6 kts
123
How much should you increase the final approach speed for a no flap landing?
10 Knot’s
124
What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind velocity?
13 Knot’s
125
What is the maximum tailwind component for take-off or landing?
10 Knot’s
126
What is the air pressure of the main tires?
55 psi
127
How much should the main struts be extended
3 to 4 inches
128
When should the engine anti-ice be turned on in flight?
When you are in visible moisture the temperature is below +5°C/41°F
129
What is the tire pressure of the tail wheel?
50 psi
130
When should one use manual ignition in flight?
Normally, Lineup check to a safe altitude. Final check-after landing.
When you are in heavy rain or with less than 75 pounds of fuel remaining in the main tank.
131
At what airspeed is the stability augmentation system and the stall warning horn activated?
At 4 to 9 kn above the aircraft stall speed.
132
The PT 6A – 65 AR Engine is classified as a free turbine or a fixed turbine?
Free Turbine and also a reverse flow.
133
How many compressor stages and type does the engine have?
Four axial stages and one Centrifugal stage
134
Maximum ITT in reverse
760°C
135
Maximum propeller speed in reverse
1650 rpm
136
Transient power setting is limited to how many seconds?
20 seconds
137
What is the maximum starting temperature and duration?
1000 ITT for no more than 5 seconds
138
What are the maximum hours between engine overhauls periods while operating with Avgas fuel?
150 hours based on quantity used and average consumption.
139
What are the torque limits for operating 1000 RPM or less?
2000 lb ft
140
True or False: Both fuel boost pumps must be operational on each engine for takeoff.
True
141
TRUE or FALSE
Positioning of power levers below the flight idle stop while the airplane is in flight is prohibited.
TRUE
142
What two things can happen if the power levers are in advertently position below flight idle?
1. Loss of airplane control.
2. Overspeed condition and consequent loss of engine power
143
Describe the procedure if the gas generator fails to light within 10 seconds after moving the condition lever to LOW IDLE position.
Condition Lever to stop.
Depress the start-abort switch.
Clear the engine per engine clearing procedure before attempting another start
144
Describe the procedure for clearing the engine after a failed light off.
Before beginning clearing procedures allow 30 seconds for a fuel drainage.
1. Condition lever to STOP position.
2. Ignition switch to OFF
3. Batteries to ON
4. Boost pump ON
5. Starter to Manual for 15 seconds.
145
What are the captain’s responsibilities on a flight morning before departure?
1. Paperwork
2. Weather
3. Bringing passengers to plane
4. Confirming with SIC that cargo/bags/aircraft are ready for flight
146
What are the FO’s responsibilities on a flight morning before departure?
1. Go to flight office and confirm fuel required by looking at load manifest
2. Check cargo paperwork
3. Bring pilot bags to aircraft
4. Preflight
147
What does WART stand for?
W-weather
A-abnormal procedures
R-runway/departure procedures
T-threats
148
When should the WART acrostic be used?
During preflight briefing
149
How much time should be allowed between preflight and scheduled departure time?
30 minutes
150
What is abort checklist before V1 with sufficient runway?
Power levers- IDLE
Brakes- APPLY
151
What is abort procedure before V1 without sufficient runway?
Power levers- IDLE
Brakes- APPLY
Condition levers- STOP
Fuel Firewall shutoffs- CLOSED
Battery master switches- OFF
Generators- OFF
152
What is checklist for engine failure after V1?
Airspeed- maintain V2
Directional control- maintain
Power levers- maximum
Gear and flaps- up (after positive rate)
Auto feather- confirm
153
What is procedure if the engine did not autofeather?
PF- place hand on power lever “verifying (L or R)”
PF- verify with power lever
PF- place hand on prop lever “feather (L or R)
PF- feather
PF- place hand on condition lever “stop (L or R)”
PF- stop
154
Maximum 1/4 flaps airspeed
133 knots
