Type rating check Flashcards
(133 cards)
1
Q
Q1: What are the dimensions of the 767?
A
Wingspan: (non-winglet) 47.57m
Wingspan: (winglet) 50.88m
Length: 54.94m
Height: 15.85m
2
Q
: How many checklists require memory items:
A
- Aborted engine start
- Airspeed / Mach unreliable
- APU fire
- Cabin altitude / Rapid depressurization
- Dual engine failure
- Engine fire
- Engine limit / surge / stall
- Engine severe damage / separation
- Engine tail pipe fire
- Flight deck door / auto unlock light flashing
- Unscheduled stabilizer trim
3
Q
How many un-annunciated non-normal checklists are there?
A
34
4
Q
What are the 7 scenarios that require an emergency landing?
A
- The non-normal checklist contains the words “Plan to land at the nearest suitable airport”
- Engine failure or engine fire
- Cabin smoke or fire which cannot be immediately and positively determined to be extinguished or eliminated
- One main hydraulic system remaining
- One main AC power source remaining
- When trouble occurs in the altimeter, and a correct altitude cannot be confirmed with related procedures or a standby altimeter
- Any other situation where significant adverse effects on safety may be possible if flight is continued
QRH 2-1 (3)
5
Q
What checklists contain the words “Plan to land at the nearest suitable airport”?
A
- PACK OFF (if both packs have failed)
- Window damage
- AC BUS OFF (if both BUS OFF lights remain illuminated)
- Engine failure / shutdown
- Reverser unlocked (if REV is annunciated and accompanied by yaw, loss of speed or buffet)
- Volcanic ash
- APU FIRE
- CARGO FIRE
- ENGINE FIRE
- WHEEL WELL FIRE
- Smoke / fire / fumes
- LOW FUEL
- HYD PRESS (when only one system remaining)
- TAIL STRIKE
6
Q
What is the difference between the windshear escape manoeuver and the GPWS escape manoeuver?
A
The differences are:
- The windshear manoeuver can be flown manually or automatically
- The GPWS manoeuver is ALWAYS flown manually
- The initial pitch attitude for windshear is 15 degrees
- The initial pitch attitude for GPWS is 20 degrees
7
Q
What is VMO / MMO?
A
Winglet equipped: 340 / 0.86M
Winglet not equipped: 360 / 0.86M
1-2 (5)
8
Q
What is the maximum crosswind limit for a wet ungrooved runway?
A
20kts
1-4 (1)
9
Q
When is the EICAS message cross-reference list used?
A
: It is used to confirm the appropriate MEL for the displayed EICAS message prior to block out, and it can be referred to make a decision to continue the flight or return to blocks when a message occurs after block out but prior to the beginning of the take-off
QRH OI – 2 (1)
10
Q
What causes the APU to perform an automatic protective shutdown when the pack control selector switches are switched off quickly?
A
: When both pack control selectors are turned off quickly, high outlet bleed air is turned off very quickly, and bleed air in the duct can surge and reverse. Therefore turn off one pack, and when the corresponding pack off light illuminates, the other pack control selector may be turned off
INFO 321
11
Q
Following an APU automatic protective shutdown, can the APU be immediately restarted?
A
The APU cannot start until the air inlet door is closed. The APU should be restarted after 30 seconds
INFO 321
12
Q
If the APU performs an automatic protective shutdown during a pushback, what are some considerations?
A
The following should be considered:
- The APU cannot be restarted for approx. 30 seconds due to the inlet door closing
- The parking brake can still be set
- The interphone system is still powered
- The passenger address system is still powered
- Only the left VHF is powered
- The instrument panel floodlights, the standby magnetic compass light, integral lights for essential instruments on the left side and centre panel and overhead panels are automatically switched to the standby AC bus. The aisle stand light is also available. This will be the only lighting available, so the flight deck will be relatively dark
6-1-40 (4)
13
Q
: What are the APU starter cycle limitations?
A
The starter duty cycle is a maximum of three consecutive starts or attempts within a 60-minute period
6-7-30 (1)
14
Q
: What is the maximum crosswind limit on a grooved wet runway?
A
25kts
1-4 (1)
15
Q
The FMC will provide navigation, guidance, and map display between which latitudes?
A
Between 87 degrees north and 87 degrees south
1-3 (7)
16
Q
: The IRS will provide valid magnetic heading and track between which latitudes?
A
Between 73 degrees north and 60 degrees south
1-3 (6)
17
Q
What are some indications of volcanic ash?
A
The following may indicate the presence of volcanic ash:
- Smoke or ash in the cockpit or cabin
- A smell similar to electrical smoke
- Multiple engine malfunctions such as stalls, increasing EGT, fluctuating parameters, torching from tailpipe etc.
- St. Elmo’s fire
- A bright orange glow in the engine inlets
- False cargo fire warnings
- Shadows cast by the landing lights
- Reduction in visibility, or reduction in landing light effectiveness at night
- EICAS messages FWD EQPT OVHT or FWD EQPT SMOKE may be displayed
4-3-7 (1)
18
Q
What are some considerations after flying into volcanic ash?
A
The following need to be considered:
- Exit volcanic ash as quickly as possible, consider a 180 degree turn
- Conduct Volcanic Ash checklist
- Don oxygen and smoke goggles if required
- Turn on engine and wing anti-ice to increase bleed extraction to improve engine stall margin
- Turn off recirculation fans to increase bleed air extraction to improve engine stall margin
- Close both thrust levers to reduce EGT which will reduce or prevent the melting of ash and the molten solidification on the turbine nozzles
- Start the APU
- Avoid rough control of the thrust lever, because the engine blades may be corroded by volcanic ash leading to higher fuel flows and EGT
- If visibility is markedly reduced, consider a diversion to an airport where an autoland may be conducted
- Do not use wiper blades to remove ash
19
Q
What ATC considerations exist following an ADC failure?
A
: RVSM airspace is FL290 to FL410. A pilot shall promptly inform ATC when one of the two altitude measuring systems is not working. After that, the Captain shall inform the flight dispatcher. For the B767, altitude data shall be displayed on both altimeters based on air data from 2 different air data sources
AIM-J 517 / OM 4-S-29
20
Q
If you encountered windshear after V1 but prior to VR, when would you rotate the aircraft? How would you do this?
A
: If windshear is encountered near the normal rotation speed and airspeed suddenly decreases, there may not be sufficient runway left to accelerate back to normal take-off speed. IF THERE IS INSUFFICIENT RUNWAY TO STOP, initiate a normal rotation at least 2000ft before the end of the runway even if airspeed is low. ENSURE MAXIMUM THRUST IS SET. Higher than normal attitudes may be required to lift off in the remaining runway
QRH 2-3-1 (10)
21
Q
How would you know that you are 2000ft from the end of the runway on take-off following windshear after V1 but before VR?
A
2000ft is 610m. On a runway greater than 2400m, the touchdown zone markings immediately prior to the aiming point markers are located 600 meters from the end of the runway. If you are on the aiming point markers then you are only 400m from the end of the runway, or 1300ft. If departing at night on a runway longer than 1800m, the runway edge lights will turn yellow at 600m, which is approx. 2000ft.
AIM-J 173
22
Q
: When are the master cautions inhibited?
A
The master caution lights and aural beeper are inhibited for all cautions from 80kts to 400ft AGL or 20 seconds elapsed time from nose gear extension. So, if a master caution occurs at 100kts and the take-off is continued, the master caution lights and beeper do not activate, but the alert message will be displayed
6-15-20 (10)
23
Q
: What is EICAS?
A
: EICAS consolidates engine and subsystem indications and provides a centrally located crew alerting message display. EICAS also displays status and maintenance information
24
Q
What is the maximum speed for normal extension of the landing gear?
A
: 270kts / 0.82M
1-2 (6)
25
What is the maximum allowable crosswind for an autoland?
25kts
| 1-3 (4)
26
When can aileron trim be used?
Use of aileron trim with the autopilot engaged is prohibited
| 1-3 (4)
27
At what speed will the RAT provide adequate flight controls?
The RAT provides hydraulic power to the flight controls portion of the centre hydraulic system. The RAT provides adequate hydraulic power at speeds above 130kts (meaning all stages of flight, even low speeds such as VREF)
6-13-20 (7)
28
Is antiskid available in the alternate brake system?
Yes, antiskid protection is provided in the normal AND alternate brake hydraulic systems. The normal brake system provides each main gear wheel with individual antiskid protection. In the alternate system, antiskid protection is provided to laterally paired wheels
6-14-20 (5)
29
When glideslope and localiser have been captured, what are the 2 ways that approach mode can be cancelled?
By selecting GA mode, or by disengaging the autopilot and turning off both flight directors
6-4-10 (15)
30
: What is the maximum allowable difference between the Captain and Co-pilot’s altimeter on the ground for RVSM operation?
40ft
| 1-3 (6)
31
What is the maximum crosswind for a dry runway?
: 33kts
| 1-4 (1)
32
What is the turbulence penetration speed?
: 290kts / 0.78M, whichever is lower
| 4-3-4 (1)
33
What is the maximum speed for retraction of the landing gear?
270kts (there is no Mach number for obvious reasons
34
When will the G/A mode disengage during landing?
the airplane is floating within 5ft RA for more than 2 seconds when the GA switch is pushed, the autopilot pitch mode remains in FLARE and the autothrottle go-around mode will engage. If the airplane is on the ground but has been below 5ft RA for less than 2 seconds when the GA switch is pushed, the GA pitch mode will engage but the A/T mode will remain IDLE. This is because the autothrottle G/A mode remains armed only until touchdown
6-4-20 (18)
35
What percentage of maximum rated thrust is available when selecting take-off 1 or take-off 2?
Take-off 1 is approx. 95% of maximum rated thrust and take-off 2 approx. 85% of maximum rated take-off thrust. These values are for the -300, and the -300ER and Freighter have a further 5% reduction
6-7-20 (5)
36
What is the GPWS escape manoeuver?
: On activation of the “PULL UP”, or “TERRAIN TERRAIN PULL UP”, or “OBSTACLE OBSTACLE PULL UP” warning, accomplish the following procedure:
- Disengage autopilot
- Disconnect autothrottle
- Aggressively apply maximum thrust
- Simultaneously roll wings level and rotate to an initial pitch attitude to 20 degree
- Set the speedbrake lever to down
- If terrain remains a threat, continue rotation up to pitch limit (if available), stick shaker or initial buffet
- Do not change flap or gear configuration until terrain separation is assured
- Monitor radio altimeter for sustained or increasing terrain separation
- When clear of terrain, slowly decrease pitch attitude and accelerate
2-3-1 (6)
37
: What is the TCAS traffic avoidance procedure in the landing configuration?
: For a CLIMB RA in a landing configuration, accomplish the following procedure:
- Autopilot disengage
- Autothrottle disconnect
- Thrust levers full forward
- Call flaps 20
- Smoothly adjust pitch to satisfy the RA command
- Verify a positive rate of climb on the altimeter and call gear up
2-3-1 (7)
38
Can the TCAS traffic avoidance manoeuver ever be accomplish with the autopilot?
No. When manoeuvring is required, the autopilot must be switched off and the manoeuvre accomplished manually
2-3-1 (7)
39
: What is the maximum allowable fuel load?
The maximum fuel load is as follows:
- Left and right main tanks: 42,671lbs
- Centre tank (-300ER / F): 84,490lbs
40
: When is monitoring of the emergency frequency 121.500MHz required?
: Aircraft should guard 121.500MHz except for an “unavoidable situation”. This may be due to:
- Aircraft are carrying out communications on the other VHF channel
- Cockpit duties do not permit simultaneous guarding of two channels
- Airborne equipment limitations do not permit simultaneous guarding of two channels
OM 2-S-29
41
What items are required to be taken off the aircraft in an evacuation?
Even though crewmembers have to take out emergency articles, they are not absolutely obliged to do so, no matter how tense the situation. Instead they should concentrate their total efforts towards saving lives. The crew take the following items:
- Captain: Crash axe, megaphone, flash light
- Co-pilot: Signal kit, flash light
- The Chief Purser and cabin attendant at R2 will take the ELT’s
QRH 2-4 (6)
42
: What non-normal event requires the longest landing distance?
The All AC buses off non-normal checklist will require the longest landing distance. On a dry runway at 280,000lbs it is 7400ft. On a wet runway it is 10800ft, which is around 3000m. On a snow or slush covered runway is can be over 3500m, depending on runway condition. This is because both engine reversers may be inoperative, half the spoilers are inoperative, outboard wheel antiskid is inoperative, and auto speedbrake is inoperative
AOR 4-1-2 (4) QRH PI 11.
43
What is the maximum EGT for take-off and how long is it limited to?
: 960 degrees, limited to 5 minutes
| 1-3 (5)
44
What is the minimum oil pressure?
10psi
| 1-3 (5)
45
What is the maximum allowable headwind component for an autoland?
25kts
| 1-3 (4)
46
: What is the maximum allowable tailwind for take-off and landing?
: It is runway dependant as follows:
- Runway 2001m or above: 15kts
- Runway 2000m or below: 10kts
47
What is the maximum allowable crosswind for a slush-covered runway?
: It is depth dependant as follows:
- Depth 2mm or less: 15kts
- Depth 3-12mm: 10kts
48
What are the Captain’s communication requirements in an emergency?
: In emergency situations, the Captain shall maintain close contact with ATC, search and rescue authorities, and the flight dispatcher and give sufficient consideration to advice or suggestions from them
OM 10-1
49
: When are master warnings inhibited?
The master warning lights and fire bell are inhibited FOR FIRE during part of the take-off. The inhibit period begins at nose gear extension during rotation and continues to the first of 400ft AGL or 20 seconds elapsed time. If a fire occurs during the inhibit, an EICAS warning message appears, but the fire bell and master warning lights do not activate. If the fire still exists at the end of the inhibit period, the fire bell and master warning lights activate immediately
6-15-20 (10)
50
What is the freezing point of Jet A fuel?
-40 degrees
| 1-5 (2)
51
What is the minimum height for autopilot engagement?
: On take-off, do not engage CWS or CMD below 200ft AGL
| 1-3 (4)
52
Can the landing gear be extended above 20,000ft?
Yes, only the flaps can’t be extended above 20,000ft
| 1-3 (6)
53
If NO AUTOLND is displayed on the ASA, can it be blanked?
: It is dependant upon the APP switch:
- Before APP mode is selected, it can blanked but ONLY if the condition that led to the fault is no longer present
- After APP mode is selected, it remains displayed until the autopilots are disengaged
6-4-10 (17)
54
When does LAND 3 or LAND 2 display on the ASA?
It appears below 1500ft RA with LOC and G/S captured, with the autopilots engaged.
55
What systems does the centre hydraulic system power?
```
The centre system powers the following items:
- Flight controls
- Nose wheel steering
- Flaps and slats
- Alternate brakes
- Landing gear operation
- Tailskid
- Hydraulic driven generator
6-13-20 (6)
```
56
Can the lower engine display ever be blanked?
The flight crew shall not blank the engine vibration display during take-off
1-3 (5)
57
Below what height can the ASA not change?
Below 200ft RA the ASA display cannot change EXCEPT to indicate a NO AUTOLND condition
6-4-20 (5)
58
When does runway align mode begin?
It is actuated at 500ft RA with LAND 3 or LAND 2 annunciated
| 6-4-20 (15)
59
What slip will the autopilot initiate during runway align mode?
The autopilot systems will initiate a slip with a maximum bank angle of 2 degrees when the crab angle exceeds 5 degrees
6-4-20 (15)
60
What is the windshear escape manoeuver for manual flight?
```
The escape manoeuver is:
- Disengage autopilot
- Push either go-around switch
- Aggressively apply maximum thrust
- Disconnect autothrottle
- Simultaneously roll wings level and rotate towards an initial pitch attitude of 15 degrees
- Set the speedbrake lever down
- Follow flight director guidance
- Do not change gear or flap configuration until windshear is no longer a factor
- Monitor vertical speed and altitude
- Do not attempt to regain lost airspeed until windshear is no longer a factor
2-3-1 (11)
```
61
How are the 3 autopilots powered during an autoland?
: During autoland, the busses isolate to allow three independent power sources to the 3 autopilots as follows:
- The left main AC system powers the left autopilot
- The right main AC system powers the right autopilot
- The battery / standby system powers the centre autopilot
6-6-20 (4)
62
What happens with the loss of a generator during an autoland above 200ft?
Above 200ft, the loss of a generator results in:
- Both bus tie breakers close and the operating generator powers both the left and right AC busses
- The left main AC system powers the centre autopilot
- NO LAND 3 is displayed on the ASA
6-6-20 (4)
63
What happens with the loss of a generator during an autoland below 200ft?
: Below 200ft, loss of a generator results in:
- Both bus ties remain open
- The autopilot with the failed generator remains unpowered
- The flight instruments remain powered through the flight instrument transfer busses
- The autoland continues using the 2 remaining autopilots
6-6-20 (4)
64
What fire suppression and extinguishing is available for cargo fires on the different aircraft?
Fire suppression and extinguishing is aircraft type dependent and is provided by:
- 300 and -300ER: 2 or 3 fire extinguishing bottles are installed, where the 2nd bottle discharges at a later time or at a reduced rate
- 300F: 2 or 3 fire extinguishing bottles are installed, where the 2nd bottle discharges at a later time or at a reduced rate
- 300BCF: Fire suppression in the cargo compartment is accomplished by shutting off air to the compartment. The airplane gradually depressurizes and the oxygen required for combustion is eliminated
6-8-20 (6)
65
What altitude is required for fire suppression in the 300BCF?
25,000ft is the altitude where fire suppression is performed effectively
QRH 2-2-8 (5)
66
What are the 3 types of hydroplaning?
Dynamic / Viscous / Reverted Rubber
| AOR 2-2-2 (1)
67
When is anti-ice required on the ground?
:When the TAT is below 10 degrees, and there is visible moisture present such as clouds or fog with visibility of one mile (1600m) or less
1-3 (3)
68
What is the formula for determining hydroplaning speed?
9 times the square root of the tire pressure
| AOR 2-2-2
69
What is meant by B763/H-SDE2FGHIJ4J5J6M1RWX/SD1 / PBN/A1B1C1D1on the ATS flight plan?
```
The following equipment is carried:
- H = Heavy wake turbulence category (greater than 136,000kg MTOW)
- S = Standard VHF, VOR and ILS
- D = DME
- E2 = ACARS
- F = ADF
- G = GNSS
- H = HF radio
- I = IRS
- J4 = CPDLC
- J5 = CPDLC SATCOM
- M1 = ATC SATCOM
- R = PBN (Performance based navigation) approved (see items following PBN/ later)
- W = RVSM
- X = MNPS approved
- SD1 = Mode S transponder with ADS-C capability
- A1 = RNAV10
- B1 = RNAV 5
- C1 = RNAV 2
- D1 = RNAV 1
Route Manual Basic ATC page 460-462
```
70
What does E/0523 P/004 R/UVE J/L mean on the ATS flight plan?
It indicates the following is carried:
- E/0523 = Endurance is 5 hours and 23 minutes
- P/004 = Persons on board is 4
- R/UVE = Radio equipment to monitor UHF = 243.0, VHF = 121.500, E = ELT carried
Route Manual Basic ATC page 464
71
What does the ILS display look like on the ADI in full scale?
The ILS display for both G/S and LOC is a reference rectangle in the middle, with 2 dots either side of the reference rectangle such as: O O I I O O
6-10-10 (2)
72
How many master cautions are there?
There are 48 master cautions on the B767
| QRH
73
At what point will the ILS expanded scale display on the ADI?
The two dot expanded scale displays when LOC is engaged, and deviation is slightly more than ½ a dot on the 4-dot scale
6-10-10 (4-7)
74
How much more sensitive is the expanded scale ILS in comparison to the full-scale ILS display?
The expanded scale is more sensitive, with one dot deviation equal to ½ a dot deviation on the 4-dot scale
6-10-10 (4-7)
75
What are some non-normal situations that will produce a master caution on the ground?
```
Any of the following will cause a master caution on the ground:
- FWD / AFT / MAIN CARGO DOOR
- ATT DISAGREE
- AUTOTHROTTLE DISCONNECT
- BODY DUCK LEAK
- C / L / R HYD SYS PRESS
- EQUIP COOLING
- IAS DISAGREE
- L / R AC BUS OFF
- L / R BLD DUCT LEAK
- L / R EEC OFF
- L / R ENG LIM PROT
- L / R FUEL SYS PRESS
- LE SLAT ASYM
- LE SLAT DISAGREE
- L / R ENG OVHT
- TE FLAP ASYM
- TE FLAP DISAGREE
QRH
```
76
What components does the left hydraulic system power?
```
The left system powers:
- Left autopilot servo
- Flight controls
- Rudder ratio system
6-13-20 (4) / 6-9-20 (8)
```
77
What is the purpose of the hydraulic driven generator?
The HDG is automatically powered by the centre hydraulic system when electrical power is lost from both main AC busses. The centre air demand pump will operate continuously to ensure sufficient hydraulic pressure to drive the generator. It provides both AC power and DC power. It provides AC power to the left and right AC transfer busses that power items considered necessary for ETOPS. It also powers the Captain’s flight instrument transfer bus, and provides DC power to the hot battery bus, the battery bus and the standby DC bus
6-13-20 (7) / 6-6-20 (13) / 6-6-20 (5)
78
What is the maximum take-off weight for the 767-300?
: 288,700lbs
79
What is the maximum landing weight of the 767-300?
: 280,000lbs
| 1-2 (1)
80
What is the maximum zero fuel weight of the 767-300?
278,000lbs
| 1-2 (1)
81
What is the maximum speed for alternate gear extension?
250kts / 0.75
| 1-2 (6)
82
What charging time is required to power to floor photo luminescent emergency escape path markings?
The passenger cabin lighting must be on with ceiling and sidewall lights setting in the “HI” position prior to block out as follows:
- 15 minutes charging time = 6.5 hours
- 30 minutes charging time = 11 hours
1-3 (1)
83
Can the flight crew test the ELT?
The activation of the ELT for test purposes in not allowed by flight crew. If the mechanic requests a test however, it is permitted. In this case, manual activation is limited to the first five minutes of the hour and is to be a maximum of 5 seconds
1-3 (1)
84
What is the maximum cabin differential pressure?
9.1psi. Maximum allowable cabin differential pressure for take-off and landing is 0.125psi, which is equivalent to 236ft below airport pressure altitude
1-3 (2)
85
When do the deviation calls commence during approach?
: These can be broken into three groups: After final descent / below 1000ft AFE / below MDA:
VOR approach : After final descent
“DOT LEFT / DOT RIGHT”
VNAV approach After final descent = “GLIDE PATH”
Bank angle over 30 Below 1000ft AFE = “BANK”
Speed, sink rate, LOC and G/S Below 1000ft AFE “AIRSPEED / SINK RATE / LOCALISER /
“GLIDESLOPE”
Altitude deviation exceeds 50ft below MDA = “ALTITUDE”
3-1 (10)
86
What is the standard significant deviation from airspeed on approach?
Above 10kts or below 5kts with landing flap below 1000ft AFE
| 3-1 (10)
87
What is the standard significant deviation for sink rate on approach?
Sink rate exceeds 1000fpm below 1000ft AFE
| 3-1 (10
88
What is the standard significant deviation for glideslope on approach?
More than 1 dot
| 3-1 (10):
89
What is the standard significant deviation for the VOR on approach?
More than ½ a dot, which is equal to 2.5 degrees
| 3-1 (10)
90
What is the standard significant deviation for the localiser on approach?
2 deviations, BELOW 1000ft ONLY:
- More than ½ a dot or 1 dot on the expanded scale
- More than ⅓ dot or ⅔ dot on the expanded scale after the “APPROACHING MINIMUM” is called on a CAT II/III approach
3-1 (10)
91
What is the minimum oxygen pressure required?
Minimum oxygen is at or above the following at 21 degrees Celsius:
- Other than operations to Urumqi = 850psi
- Operations to Urumqi = 1250psi
92
What are the 4 reasons to do the aborted engine start procedure?
Do the aborted start checklist for one or more of the following abort engine start conditions:
- EGT does not increase by 25 seconds after the fuel control switch is moved to run
- There is no N1 rotation by 30 seconds after N2 stabilised at idle
- The EGT quickly nears or exceeds the start limit of 750 degrees
- The oil pressure is not normal by the time the engine is stabilised at idle (min 10psi)
3-4 (25)
93
When should take-off thrust be set by?
Adjust take-off thrust before 80kts
| 3-4 (28) / AOR 2-1-3 (1)
94
What is the ANA touchdown zone?
750ft to 2000ft
| 3-5 (5)
95
How far are is the beginning of the aiming point markings from the threshold on a runway less than 2400, and a runway greater than 2400m?
The beginning of the aiming point markings is 400m from the threshold for a runway 2400m or greater. The beginning of the aiming point markings is 300m from the threshold for a runway less than 2400m. 400m = 1312ft and 300m = 984ft, so both are within the ANA touchdown zone area of 750ft to 2000ft
AIM-J 173 / AOM 3-5 (5)
96
How is the ILS displayed on the HSI during EXP ILS and FULL ILS?
There are 4 dots displayed for both glideslope and localiser in the EXP ILS and FULL ILS presentation
6-10-10 (10/12)
97
How long are the aiming point and touchdown zone markings?
The aiming point markings are 60m long. The touchdown zone markings are 22.5m long
AIM-J 173
98
Describe the runway markings from the threshold to the halfway markings for a runway greater than 2400m:
: In order as follows:
- Stopway markings >>>> = Less strength than runway -> -> -> -> = Same strength as runway
- Physical runway threshold
- 6m of spacing
- Runway threshold markings, 30m long (16 of them for a runway 60m in width / 12 of them for a runway of 45m in width)
- 12m of spacing
- Runway designation markings, 18m long
- Runway centreline markings, 30m or more long
- 6 touchdown zone markings, 3 each side of centreline, each 22.5m long, beginning at 150m from the threshold
- 6 touchdown zone markings, 3 each side of centreline, each 22.5m long, beginning at 300m from the threshold
- 2 aiming point markers, 1 each side of centreline, each 60m long, beginning at 400m from the threshold
- 4 touchdown zone markings, 2 each side of centreline, each 22.5m long, beginning at 600m from the threshold
- 2 touchdown zone markings, 1 each side of centreline, each 22.5m long, beginning at 750m from the threshold
- 2 touchdown zone markings, 1 each side of centreline, each 22.5m long, beginning at 900m from the threshold
AIM-J 173
99
What is the minimum equipment required for sole navigation?
2 IRS’s and 2 FMC’s meet the INS system requirements as the sole means of navigation for flights up to 18 hours
1-3 (6)
100
What is the maximum lateral fuel imbalance?
It is higher at lower fuel weights, and lower and higher fuel weights as follows:
- Below 48,000lbs the maximum imbalance is 2500lbs
- Between 48,000lbs and 79,800 it is linear from 2500lbs to 1500lbs and the graph needs to be consulted and interpolated
Above 79,800, the maximum imbalance is 1500lbs
1-3 (8)
101
What is the required on-board equipment for RVSM operations?
- 2 individual altitude measurement systems (2 x primary altimeters)
- 2 ADC’s
- One automatic altitude hold function of the autopilot (ALT HOLD mode, VNAV mode or V/S mode)
- One altitude alert system (EICAS)
- One SSR altitude reporting transponder (MODE C)
OM 4-9 / OM 4-S-30
102
When will the EICAS message ALT DISAGREE be displayed, and what are some considerations following this message?
The EICAS message ALT DISAGREE is displayed when the Captain and co-pilot altimeter indications disagree by more than 200ft. The on-board equipment requirements for RVSM are no longer satisfied. Contact ATC and comply with their instruction. The non-normal checklist will direct this
QRH 2-2-10 (1)
103
When do the runway edge lights turn from white to yellow approaching the end of the runway?
The lights are white in colour, however the last ⅓ or 600m whichever is less from the departure end of the runway, the lights are coloured yellow for warning of the end of the runway
AIM-J 154
104
Where is the search and rescue facility located?
The Rescue Coordination Centre (RCC) for Japan is located at Haneda airport
AIM-J 722
105
What are the 3 phases of search and rescue?
- Uncertainty phase
- Alert phase
- Distress phase
AIM-J 723
106
If a master caution appears during take-off at 70kts and the take-off is continued, what happens with the master caution lights and associated message caution message?
If the master caution lights and the aural alerts are activated prior to 80kts, they continue to illuminate and sound
6-15-20 (10)
107
When will the stick nudger activate?
If the flaps are retracted and the angle of attack continues to increase, a control column nudger moves the control column forward
6-15-20 (18)
108
When does GPWS mode 7 windshear detection begin on departure?
At rotation
| 6-15-20 (42)
109
What is the PWS alert warning area dimension?
It is dependant upon whether the aircraft is on the ground or in-flight:
- On ground: 3nm straight ahead of the aircraft
- In-flight: 1.5nm straight ahead of the aircraft
6-15-20 (43)
110
If the weather radar TILT and GAIN settings have been inappropriately set for departure, can the PWS still be expected to function normally?
Yes. The PWS automatically regardless of actual control settings on the weather radar control panel settings, adjusts the antenna TILT and the system GAIN for optimum windshear detection
6-15-20 (43)
111
When are PWS warnings inhibited until on take-off?
PWS warnings are inhibited during take-off between 100kts and 50ft AGL
6-15-20 (44)
112
When will the stick shaker activate?
: The pitch limit indicator (PLI) indicates the pitch limit at which the stick shaker will activate for the existing flight conditions. The PLI is displayed whenever flaps are not up, or at slow speeds with the flaps up
6-10-10 (4-5)
113
What is the minimum required width of paved surface to execute a 180-degree turn effectively?
The required width is 46.3m or 152ft as a minimum. This means that a 180-degree turn on a 45m-width runway without a turning pad is not possible
AOR 2-1-1 (2)
114
During what non-normal event could you expect to see the battery discharge light DISCH illuminate?
When initially using the hydraulic driven generator. The amount of DC power produced by the HDG is less than the DC power produced by a fully charged battery. When the HDG first begins to operate, the battery discharge light may illuminate, until the battery power decreases to the power level produced by the HDG
6-6-20 (13)
115
What are some examples of situations where significant adverse effects on safety may be possible if flight is continued, not including the 6 examples listed in the QRH?
- Bomb threat
- Attempted hijacking
- Biological hazard
- Mid-air collision
- Structural failure
- Fuel shortage
- Significant flight control failure
- Crew incapacitation
OM
116
What are the 4 policies established for basic operational procedures?
They are: (FAAP)
- Fly first – Top priority placed on this
- Assure secured and reliable operations – Procedures immune from mistakes / employing fail-safe features
- Achieve effective and efficient operation – Operational changes with social and technological innovations / inventing of, or reviewing procedures that are in place
- Promote standardised and uniform operation – Various combinations of flight crew / small variations add to trouble / fleet standardisation
2-1-20 (1)
117
What are the 6 concepts for establishing basic operational procedures?
They are: (TCCMWD)
- Task sharing – PF and PM roles / PF flies the airplane and PM tasks mainly other than flying airplane / Area of responsibility / tasks assigned according to accessibility of switch
- Crew coordination – Use of checklists / confirmed actions
- Crew communication – Poor expression, failure to hear correctly, lack of understanding / Standard response to order / Standard callouts / briefings
- Monitor and crosscheck – Scan pattern / instrument monitor during approach / speed and descent rate during approach / verification of autothrottle and autopilot / CDU operation
- Workload management – Fly the airplane / use of auto flight system
- Discipline – Professional manner / intentional deviation from SOP’s dangerous / strict discipline to SOP’s
AOR 2-1-20 (6)
118
What is the wheel base dimension of the 767?
The main gear is 9.30 metres in width
| 6-1-10 (1)
119
What clearance between the edge of the taxiway and the main gear exists during a straight taxi?
The taxiways are normally 23m wide (???), and the wheelbase is just less than 10 meters (9.30m). This means that there should be approx. 6.5 meters clearance from each main wheel
6-1-10 (1)
120
What main wheel clearance can be assured when taxiing around a corner on a taxiway?
ICAO annex 14 recommends that the taxiway should be designed to provide clearance of more than 4.5 metres between the paved taxiway and the main landing gear when the cockpit (nose gear by Japan’s criteria) is passing over the centreline
AOR 2-1-1 (5)
121
What is the required 2nd segment climb gradient for the B767?
2.4%. The second segment begins at gear up and continues to the level off point
Flight performance document
122
What is the required 1st segment climb gradient for the B767?
Positive
Flight performance document
123
What is the required landing climb gradient required for the B767?
3.2%
124
What is the required approach climb gradient for the B767?
2.1%
Flight performance document
125
What are the differences between gross and net flight path for both take-off flight path and enroute flight path?
- Take-off flight path: 0.8%
- Enroute flight path: 1.1%
Flight performance document
126
What are the limitations on V1 speed?
V1 must be:
- Greater than or equal to VMCG
- Must be less than or equal to VR
- Must be less than or equal to VMBE
Flight performance document
127
What are the limitations of VR?
VR must be:
- Greater than or equal to V1
- Must be 5% greater than VMCA
- Must be 5% greater than the engine out VMU
- Must be 10% greater than the 2 engine VMU
Flight performance document
128
What are the limitations of V2?
V2 must be:
- 13% greater than the 1-g stall speed
- 10% greater than VMCA
Flight performance document
129
What is the minimum approach speed?
VREF must be at least 1.23VS1G
| Flight performance document
130
How is maximum rate climb calculated for the B767?
Flaps up manoeuver speed + 50 until intercepting M0.78
| FCTM 4.4
131
Why does the QRH direct an engine shutdown if an engine fuel leak is suspected?
The NNC leads the crew through steps to determine if the fuel leak is from the strut or the engine area. If an engine fuel leak is confirmed, the NNC directs the crew to shutdown the affected engine. There are two reasons for the shutdown. The first is to close the spar valve, which stops the leak. This prevents the loss of fuel, which could result in a low fuel state. The second reason is that the fire potential is increased when fuel is leaking around the engine. The risk of fire increases further when the thrust reverser is used during landing. The thrust reverser significantly changes the flow of air around the engine, which can disperse fuel over a wider area.
FCTM 8.20
132
During fuel jettison, what altitude should ensure fuel evaporation?
Fuel jettison above 4,000 feet AGL ensures complete fuel evaporation
FCTM 8.20
133
Does the EICAS message TAILSKID indicate a tail strike has occurred?
The EICAS message TAILSKID indicates that the tailskid position disagrees with the landing gear position. Although these alerts may help determine if a suspected tail strike has occurred, these alerts are not intended as the only verification of an actual tail strike.
FCTM 8.26
