Types of cancer Flashcards

Question

What are the features of teratoma? | median age of diagnosis, prominent features

Answer 1

Teratoma is diagnosed at a median age of 40-50 years and can be virilising or feminising, with precocious puberty.

Answer 2

Leydig cell tumour is virilising, with associated precocious puberty.

Answer 3

Sertoli cell tumour is feminising, more commonly associated with Peutz-Jeger syndrome.

Answer 4

The three histological subtypes of ovarian cancer are high grade serous, endometrioid, and clear cell.

Answer 5

High grade serous ovarian cancer is the most common subtype, accounting for up to 80% of ovarian cancers. BRCA1 or 2 mutations are present in up to 10% of patients. | It is usually diagnosed at an advanced stage and has a poor prognosis.

Answer 6

* diagnosed at an early stage with a good prognosis * is associated with MSI, Lynch syndrome, and endometrial cancer. | Endometrioid ovarian cancer accounts for 10% of ovarian cancers

Answer 7

Clear cell ovarian cancer accounts for 5-10% of ovarian cancers, is more common in East Asia, and is associated with MSI and Lynch syndrome. It is less sensitive to platinum chemotherapy.

Answer 8

Breast cancer and gastroesophageal cancer; predicts response to anti-HER2 therapy (e.g. trastuzumab).

Answer 9

* KRAS or NRAS - colorectal cancer * Lung adenocarcinoma - EGFR mutation * BRAF mutation - BRAF mutation

Answer 10

Squamous NSCLC Adenocarcinoma NSCLC SCLC

Answer 11

Central location Cavitating Associated with hypercalcaemia

Answer 12

NSCLC Adenocarcinoma * Peripheral location * More common in non-smokers * Associated with EGFR mutation, ALK, ROS and RET translocations Large cell carcinoma * typically peripheral, may secrete beta-HCG

Answer 13

Rapidly proliferating Frequent brain metastases

Answer 14

Clear cell (proximal tubule) Papillary (proximal tubule) Chromophobe (collecting ducts) Oncocytoma (collecting ducts)

Answer 15

* only 20% suitable for surgery * mediastinoscopy performed prior to surgery as CT does not always show mediastinal lymph node involvement * curative or palliative radiotherapy * poor response to chemotherapy

Answer 16

* usually central * arise from APUD cells * associated with ectopic ADH, ACTH secretion * ADH → hyponatraemia * ACTH → Cushing's syndrome * ACTH secretion can cause bilateral adrenal hyperplasia, the high levels of cortisol can lead to hypokalaemic alkalosis * Lambert-Eaton syndrome: antibodies to voltage gated calcium channels causing myasthenic like syndrome

Answer 17

an acronym for Amine - high amine content Precursor Uptake - high uptake of amine precursors Decarboxylase - high content of the enzyme decarboxylase

Answer 18

Management * usually metastatic disease by time of diagnosis * patients with very early stage disease (T1-2a, N0, M0) are now considered for surgery. NICE support this approach in their 2011 guidelines * however, most patients with limited disease receive a combination of chemotherapy and radiotherapy * patients with more extensive disease are offered palliative chemotherapy

Answer 19

* accounts for 85% of primary renal neoplasms. * Frequent loss of chromosome 3p * Associated with von Hippel-Lindau gene alterations, tuberous sclerosis, ADPKD.

Answer 20

classical triad: * haematuria * loin pain * abdominal mass pyrexia of unknown origin endocrine effects * may secrete erythropoietin (polycythaemia) * parathyroid hormone-related protein (hypercalcaemia), renin * ACTH

Answer 21

paraneoplastic hepatic dysfunction syndrome varicocele * majority are left-sided * caused by the tumour compressing veins Stauffer syndrome * a paraneoplastic disorder associated with renal cell cancer * typically presents as cholestasis/hepatosplenomegaly * it is thought to be secondary to increased levels of IL-6

Answer 22

T1 Tumour ≤ 7 cm and confined to the kidney T2 Tumour > 7 cm and confined to the kidney

Answer 23

T3 Tumour extends into major veins or perinephric tissues, but not into the ipsilateral adrenal gland and not beyond Gerota's fascia T4 Tumor invades beyond Gerota's fascia (including contiguous extension into the ipsilateral adrenal gland)

Answer 24

* for confined disease a partial or total nephrectomy depending on the tumour size * patients with a T1 tumour (i.e. < 7cm in size) are typically offered a partial nephrectomy * alpha-interferon and interleukin-2 have been used to reduce tumour size and also treat patients with metatases * receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitors (e.g. sorafenib, sunitinib) have been shown to have superior efficacy compared to interferon-alpha

Answer 25

15% of renal cancer Exists as type I (good prognosis, MET mutation) and Type II (poor prognosis)

Answer 26

* Multiple/bilateral in tuberous sclerosis and Birt-Hogg-Dube/Hornstein-Knickenberg syndrome * Autosomal dominant genetic disorder with susceptibility to renal cancer, renal and pulmonary cysts, and noncancerous fibrofolliculomas

Answer 27

Infiltrating ductal carcinoma Infiltrating lobular carcinoma

Answer 28

Most common (>70%) Fibrous tissue response leads to palpable mass

Answer 29

* 5-10% of breast cancer * Infiltrates as single cells * May have no mass lesion * More often multicentric/bilateral * Spreads to peritoneum/meninges

Answer 30

* Medullary carcinoma: High-grade syncytial growth with lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate; increased in BRCA1 mutation carriers; improved survival * Tubular carcinoma: More common in screened population; low grade; metastases infrequent; favourable prognosis

Answer 31

Immunohistochemistry tests identify antigens (typically proteins) in a cell using complementary antibody binding. The tumour is then viewed under a light or fluorescent microscope. FISH - uses fluorescent probes, which bind to complementary DNA sequences to identify changes (amplification, deletions, translocations) at the DNA level in cells.

Answer 32

Breast cancer and gastroesophageal cancer; predicts response to anti-HER2 therapy (e.g. trastuzumab).

Answer 33

NSCLC; predicts response to crizotinib therapy.

Answer 34

* Burkitt's lymphoma - MYC t(8:14) * Follicular lymphoma - Bcl2 t(14:18)

Answer 35

T category reflects assessment of the primary tumour * TX: the primary tumour is not evaluable. * T0: no evidence of a primary tumour. * Tis: carcinoma in situ. * T1–T4: description of size and/or extent of a primary tumour which is evaluable.

Answer 36

* NX: regional lymph nodes are not evaluable. * N0: no regional lymph node involvement with cancer. * N1–N3: involvement of regional lymph nodes (number dependent on cancer subtype).

Answer 37

M category is descriptive of the presence or absence of distant metastases: * M0: no distant metastasis. * M: presence of distant metastases.

Answer 38

* CAT 0: Fully active, able to carry on all pre-disease performance without restriction. * CAT 1: Restricted in physically strenuous activity, but ambulatory and able to carry out work of a light or sedentary nature, e.g. light housework, office work. * CAT 2: Ambulatory and capable of all self-care, but unable to carry out any work activities; up and about more than 50% of waking hours.

Answer 39

* CAT 3: Capable of only limited self-care; confined to bed or chair more than 50% of waking hours. * CAT 4:Completely disabled; cannot carry on any self-care; totally confined to bed or chair. * CAT 5: Dead.

Answer 40

An insulinoma is a neuroendocrine tumour deriving mainly from pancreatic Islets of Langerhans cells Association: 50% have MEN-1 Features * HYPOGLYCAEMIA causing diplopia, weakness, early morning, before meal * Rapid weight gain * High insulin, high C-peptide

Answer 41

Diagnosis * supervised, prolonged fasting (up to 72 hours) * CT pancreas Management * surgery * diazoxide and somatostatin if patients are not candidates for surgery

Types of cancer Flashcards

(65 cards)