UBE-Printable-Flashcards-Feb-2025-Civil-Procedure 2

(45 cards)

1
Q

When does a federal court have Subject Matter Jurisdiction?

A

a) Federal Question jurisdiction exists; b) Diversity of Citizenship among the parties; OR c) Supplemental jurisdiction is present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Is Subject Matter jurisdiction waived if a party fails to raise it at trial?

A

No, it is NOT waived.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When does Federal Question Jurisdiction exist?

A

When a Complaint alleges a claim that arises under: a) Federal law; b) The U.S. Constitution; OR c) United States treaties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What must the plaintiff enforce for Federal Question Jurisdiction?

A

The plaintiff MUST be enforcing a federal right and the federal question of law must be present on the face of the Complaint.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When does Diversity of Citizenship Jurisdiction exist?

A

When: 1) There is complete diversity of citizenship between all plaintiffs and defendants; AND 2) The amount in controversy exceeds $75,000.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the amount in controversy based on?

A

It is based on the damages alleged in good faith in the Complaint, unless it is legally certain that the plaintiff cannot recover the specified amount.

A claim for injunctive relief is valued by either the benefit to the plaintiff OR the cost of compliance for the defendant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When does Large Class Action Diversity Jurisdiction exist?

A

When: 1) The amount in controversy exceeds $5 million; 2) There are at least 100 class members; AND 3) Minimal diversity is present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the limits on Large Class Action Diversity Jurisdiction?

A

The court MAY decline to exercise jurisdiction when non-diverse members are greater than 1/3 and less than 2/3 of the total class. The court MUST decline to exercise jurisdiction when non-diverse members are greater than 2/3 of the total class.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When may a federal court exercise Supplemental Jurisdiction over additional state court claims?

A

When they arise from the same ‘case or controversy.’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How is Supplemental Jurisdiction limited?

A

1) It CANNOT be used to overcome a law of diversity. 2) It DOES NOT apply to laws or claims against a party that is an indispensable party. 3) The court may decline to exercise it when: a. The claim raises a novel/complex issue of law; b. The claim substantially predominates over the claim(s) of which the District Court had original jurisdiction; c. The federal District Court has dismissed all claims it had original jurisdiction over; OR d. In exceptional circumstances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When must federal courts decline jurisdiction under the Domestic Relations Exception?

A

When the case primarily involves domestic relations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When may a defendant remove a case to federal court?

A

When: 1) The federal court has subject matter jurisdiction; 2) All defendants agree; 3) No defendant is a resident of the forum state (if removal is based on diversity jurisdiction); AND 4) Removal is sought within 30 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the four Abstention Doctrines?

A

1) Pullman Doctrine (cases that arise from unsettled areas of state law). 2) Younger Doctrine (cases that would interfere with state judicial proceedings). 3) Colorado River Doctrine (when there are parallel state and federal litigations pending). 4) Burford Doctrine (only appropriate if federal application would interfere with a state’s administration of a complex regulatory scheme).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the rational bases of Personal Jurisdiction?

A

a) Domicile; b) Transient jurisdiction (presence in the state when served); c) Consent; d) Waiver.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How is Personal Jurisdiction exerted over a non-resident defendant of the forum state?

A

1) The forum state must have a long arm statute; AND 2) The Constitutional requirements of due process must be met.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the Constitutional Long-Arm Analysis?

A

Long-arm analysis requires: 1) D has sufficient Minimum Contacts with the forum state – either: a. General Jurisdiction – contacts so substantial that D is essentially at home in the state; OR b. Specific Jurisdiction – a connection between the forum state and underlying controversy. 2) Not offend traditional notions of Fair Play and Substantial Justice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If the Summons and Complaint is NOT served upon the defendant within 90 days of filing, what must a court do?

A

Either: a) Dismiss the action without prejudice against the defendant; OR b) Order that service be made within a specified time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the Due Process Clause requirements for service of process?

A

It requires that notice: 1) Be reasonably calculated to make the parties aware of the action; AND 2) Give them an opportunity to respond.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where is venue proper?

A

In any district where: a) Any defendant resides (if all defendants are residents of the forum state); b) Where a substantial portion of the claim occurred; c) Where a substantial part of property is located (if property is the subject of the action); OR d) If none of the above apply, then venue is proper in any district in which any defendant is subject to the court’s personal jurisdiction.

20
Q

When may the court transfer the case?

A

If: 1) Needed for the convenience of the parties and witnesses or interests of justice; AND 2) The action could have initially been brought in the receiving court.

21
Q

What must the court do if venue was improper when the case was filed?

A

The court MUST either: a) Dismiss the case; OR b) Transfer the case to a proper court if the interests of justice require it.

22
Q

What law is applied under the Erie Doctrine in federal court?

A

The court will apply its own federal procedural laws, but MUST apply state substantive law.

23
Q

When may a Preliminary Injunction be issued?

A

Upon notice to the adverse party; AND if the moving party gives security in an amount the court deems proper.

24
Q

What must the moving party show for a Preliminary Injunction to be issued?

A

1) Likelihood of success on the merits; 2) Likely threat of irreparable harm to the movant; 3) That the harm alleged by the movant outweighs any harm to the non-moving party; AND 4) The injunction is in the public interest.

25
What is a Temporary Restraining Order (TRO), and when is it available?
An emergency remedy used to maintain the status quo pending the outcome of a hearing or application. It is ONLY available when the moving party will suffer immediate and irreparable harm.
26
For an ex parte TRO, what must the moving party do?
1) Provide specific facts in a sworn statement showing the immediate and irreparable injury loss or damage will result before an adverse party can be heard; 2) Certify in writing any efforts made to give notice to the adverse party and why notice should not be required; AND 3) Give security in an amount that the court deems proper.
27
When may a party amend a pleading as of right?
As of right: Within 21 days after service either of the original pleading OR a responsive pleading/pre-answer motion to the original pleading.
28
In all other cases, how may a party amend a pleading?
With the opposing party's written consent OR with leave of the court upon motion.
29
When does an amendment to a pleading relate back to the original pleading?
When: a) The amendment asserts a claim or defense that arose out of the same conduct, transaction, or occurrence as the original pleading allegations; OR b) The law that provides the applicable statute of limitations allows the relation back.
30
What is a Compulsory Counterclaim?
A claim that: 1) Arises out of the same transaction or occurrence as the opposing party's claim AND 2) Doesn't require a joining of another party whom the court cannot acquire jurisdiction.
31
Under the Same Transaction Occurrence test, what 4 factors do federal courts look at?
1) Whether the issues of fact and law raised by the claims are largely the same; 2) Whether res judicata would bar a subsequent suit on the counterclaim/cross-claim; 3) Whether substantially the same evidence supports or refutes plaintiff's claim and defendant's counterclaim/cross-claim; AND 4) Whether there is any logical relation between the claims.
32
When presenting papers to the court, what must a party certify under Rule 11?
1) It is not being presented for any improper purpose; 2) The claims, defenses, and other legal contentions were warranted and non-frivolous; 3) The factual contentions have evidentiary support or will likely have it after further discovery; AND 4) The denials of factual contentions are warranted.
33
Under the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure, when may multiple plaintiffs join in one action (Permissive Joinder)?
If: 1) Joint and several relief is asserted by them OR the claim arises out of the same transaction or occurrence; 2) A common question of law or fact to all plaintiffs exists; AND 3) Subject matter jurisdiction exists for each claim.
34
When is a party necessary?
A party is necessary if: a) The court cannot grant complete relief without the absent party; b) The absent party has an interest in the action that would be impaired or impeded if that person is not joined; OR c) The party's absence would subject existing parties to a substantial risk of multiple liability or inconsistent obligations.
35
When is joinder feasible?
When: 1) Joinder will not remove subject matter jurisdiction; AND 2) The court has personal jurisdiction over the necessary party.
36
When must a court permit Intervention as of Right?
If the non-party can demonstrate: 1) The application to intervene is timely; 2) It has an interest in the subject matter of the action; 3) The protection of this interest would be impaired because of the action; AND 4) The non-party's interest is not adequately represented by existing parties to the litigation.
37
When may a court allow Permissive Intervention?
If the non-party: 1) Files a timely motion; AND 2) Either: a. Has a claim or defense that shares a common question of law or fact with the main action; OR b. Is given a conditional right to intervene by a federal statute.
38
When can one or more members sue on behalf of an entire class?
When: 1) The class is so numerous that joinder of all members is impracticable (numerosity); 2) There are questions of law or fact in common to the class (commonality); 3) The claims or defenses of the representative parties are typical of the claims/defenses of the class (typicality); AND 4) The representative parties will fairly and adequately protect the interests of the class (adequacy of representation).
39
When will a class be certified?
If: a) Risk of Inconsistent/Dispositive Adjudications – when separate actions would create a risk of (i) inconsistent adjudications or (ii) impair the interests of absent class members; b) Declaratory/Injunctive Relief – the party opposing the class has a defense or response on grounds that apply generally to the class so that declaratory relief would be appropriate for the class as a whole; OR c) Predominance & Superiority – common questions of law or fact to the class members predominate over any questions affecting individual members and a class action is superior to other available methods to adjudicate the case.
40
What are the requirements for a jury trial?
1) Limited to one day of no more than 7 hours; AND 2) Proper notice is given (must give reasonable written notice).
41
When will a class be certified?
A class will be certified when predominance and superiority of common questions over individual questions are established.
42
What are the requirements for a deposition?
A party is permitted to conduct a deposition of any person/party as long as proper notice is given and it is limited to one day of no more than 7 hours.
43
What type of notice must be given for a deposition?
Reasonable written notice must be given to every party to the action.
44
Is a subpoena required to depose an opposing party?
No subpoena is required to depose an opposing party.
45
What type of non-privileged information may a party obtain during discovery?
A party may obtain information that is relevant to any party's claim or defense and proportional to the needs of the case.