Uncommon pathogens Flashcards

(39 cards)

1
Q

Describe the gram staining and other characteristics of Bacillus anthracis

A

B. anthracis is a non-motile, facultative anaerobic, Gram-positive, spore-forming bacillus (in chains)

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2
Q

How do humans get anthrax?

A

Contaminated animal products or contact with infected animals

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3
Q

Pathogenesis of anthrax is mediated by 2 virulence factors, namely __

A

Capsule

Toxin (3 parts to it)

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4
Q

Describe the roles of the capsule and toxin in B anthracis

A

Capsule is a protein capsule

Toxin has 3 parts:

Has protective antigen (polymerizes on host cell membrane and forms pore to deliver one of two factors, edema factor EF or lethal factor LF)

Edema factor: adenylyl cyclase >> increased cAMP >> fluid secretion >> edema

Lethal factor: MAPK inhibitor >> increased cytokine production >> tissue necrosis/hemorrhage/circulatory collapse (due to massive inflammatory response)

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5
Q

A characteristic skin feature of cutaneous anthrax is __

A

Black, painless, necrotic eschar (there’s also prominent surrounding edema)

**develops from entry of spores through breaks in skin

starts as small papule >> ulcer surrounded by vesicles (24-28h)**

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6
Q

Gastrointestinal anthrax is transmitted by __ and is characterized by GI symptoms and an __ (hint: lesion in the intestine)

A

Gastrointestinal anthrax is transmitted by ingestion of contaminated meat and is characterized by GI symptoms and an intestinal eschar (hint: lesion in the intestine)

*GI symptoms:fever, acute gastroenteritis, vomiting, hematemesis, bloody diarrhea*

(can progress to toxemia and death)

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7
Q

Inhalational anthrax results from __

The initial presentation of inhalational anthrax is characterized by __

A key feature of inhalational anthrax is __

A

Inhalation of spores

Initial presentation of inhalational anthrax: non specific, flu like symptoms

Later on: widened mediastinum on imaging

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8
Q

Terminal inhalational anthrax can progress to __ and can lead to death

A

Hemorrhagic mediastinitis/pleural effusion >> sepsis >> shock

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9
Q

Rx for anthrax

The new monoclonal antibody ___ against anthrax works against which part of the anthrax toxin?

A

Penicillin or Doxy

FQ (Ciprofloxacin)

or FQ + another agent

**raxibacumab (human mAb against protective antigen)

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10
Q

Post exposure Rx of anthrax

A

FQ (cipro) or Tetracycline (doxy) or Penicillin (or amoxicillin)

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11
Q

T/F: There is no anthrax vaccine

A

Falsehood. There is a vaccine: The active component is Protective antigen from filtrate of non-encapsulated strain

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12
Q

___ is the gram negative rod pathogen that causes Bubonic plague

A

Yersinia_pestis

**natural vector is rodent flea**

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13
Q

The pathogenesis of Y pestis is mediated by __

A

T3S and fibrinolysin (also capsule but that’s froma different lecture)

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14
Q

Key feature of bubonic plague is __

A

Inguinal, axillary, or cervical buboes (big, fluctuant lymph node/group of lymph nodes)

**remember the dude with the anti-flea spray in the sketchy video with the buboe in his arm pits**

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15
Q

Presentation of bubonic plague

A

Sudden onset headache, malaise, myalgia, fever, tender lymph nodes

Regional buboes

Cutaneous findings: Possible papule, vesicle, or pustule at inoculation site

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16
Q

How does one get pneumonic plague?

A

Ways to get pneumonic plague:

Bubonic plague first >> bacteremia >> pneumonia secondary to bubonic plague

Respiratory droplets from person with plague

17
Q

Presentation of pneumonic plague

A

Sudden onset headache, malaise, fever, myalgia, cough

Pneumonia progresses rapidly to dyspnea, cyanosis, hemoptysis

Death from respiratory collapse/sepsis

18
Q

Septicemic plague develops from ___

A

Secondary from bubonic or pneumonic forms

19
Q

Rx for plague

A

Aminoglycosides

FQs

Tetracyclines

Sulfas

**also isolation w/ droplet precaution if pneumonic plague suspected**

20
Q

Prophylaxis for plague

A

Literally the same meds you use to treat

Pneumonic: oral ciprofloxacin, doxycycline, or tetracycline

Bubonic: oral doxycycline, tetracycline, or TMP/SMX

21
Q

Tularemia is most commonly ass’d with __ and requires a high/low infectious dose

A

rabbits and ticks

low dose

**no person to person tx**

22
Q

Forms of tularemia

A

Ulceroglandular (ulcer with regional lympadenopathy)

Glandular - regional adenopathy without skin lesion

Oculoglandular - painful purulent conjunctivitis with adenopathy

Typhoidal - sepsis, no adenopathy

Pneumonic (primary or secondary)

23
Q

Pneumonic tularemia presentation

A

Non specific pneumonia symptoms

24
Q

Rx for tularemia

A

Rx:

Streptomycin or gentamicin

Fluoroquinolones

Tetracyclines

25
Prophylaxis for tularemia
Watch for a wk Cipro or Doxy (doxy for 2 wks if + fever)
26
Describe the characteristics of listeria monocytogenes
Motile (at 20-28°C) Gram-positive rod Facultative anaerobe, b-hemolytic, grows at wide temp range
27
Outlines the steps in Listeria pathogenesis
invasion (internalin) \>\> phagosome escape (listeriolysin) \>\> burglary (hijacks actin cytoskeleton via ActA) \>\> propulsion (Arp2/3 complex) \>\> Invasion into next cell (phospholipases)
28
Listeriosis can be acquired through __ transmission
Foodborne (contaminated food, unpasteurized milk etc)
29
2 clinical forms of listeriosis are \_\_\_
Pregnancy ass'd and non-pregaz ass'd
30
Presentation of Listeria in pregnancy
Undifferentiated illness: fever, chills, myalgias, bacteremia Amnionitis: Premature labor; Septic abortion
31
**Disseminated micro-abscesses** in the neonate (granulomatosis infantisepticum) are characteristic of which type of listeriosis?
Neonatal listeriosis (happens early - acquired in utero)
32
Late neonatal listeriosis is characterized by \_\_
Neonatal meningitis (remember that Listeria is high on the differential for this, after Group B Strept and H flu?)
33
\_\_\_ is the number one cause of meningitis in an immunocompromised host
Listeria (listerial meningoencephalitis)
34
What do you use to treat Listeria meningitis?
Need **AMPICILLIN**!! 3rd generation cephalosporin does not work for this (if not, next one is TMP-SMX)
35
\_\_\_ is the causative agent of cat scratch disease and bacillary angiomatosis
Bartonella henselae
36
Describe Cat Scratch disease What is the Rx for this disease?
Unilateral adenopathy several weeks following bite or scratch of cat Rx: Azithromycin if needed but generally self limiting
37
Describe Bacillary angiomatosis and the Rx for this disease
Neovascular proliferation involving skin or internal organs seen mostly in HIV patients Macrolides or tetracyclines
38
Brucellosis is caused by __ (describe the characteristics of the bug)
Brucella : Gram-negative coccobacilli
39
How do people get Brucella infection? What is the presentation and Rx?
Humans infected by direct contact, contaminated milk/milk products Presentation: Prolonged febrile illness Rx: Tetracycline + aminoglycosides