unit 1 Flashcards
(183 cards)
1
Q
____ ____ ____ is the efficient integration of all parties associated with the successful delivery of the final product and/or service
A
supply chain management
2
Q
The primary goals of the supply chain are sustainable long-term ____ and to maximize ___
A
profits, ROI
3
Q
____ is the process of obtaining services, supplies, and equipment in conformance with organizational regulations
A
procurement
4
Q
____ is the design, operation, and improvement of the production systems that efficiently transform INPUTS into finished goods and services
A
operations
5
Q
____ is the COORDINATED planning and execution of
- Preparation of packaged product
- Transport
- Warehousing
- Product distribution throughout the supply chain
A
logistics
6
Q
The 4 Competitive priorities are c____, q____, s____, and f____
A
cost, quality, speed, flexibility
7
Q
____ ___ is the time elapsed between customer placing order and order being received by customer
A
lead time
8
Q
____ ____ typically refers to the order size
A
lot size
9
Q
____ is the stock of any ITEM or RESOURCE used in an organization. Also includes what you need to run the business on a day-to-day business
A
Inventory
10
Q
____ ____ protects against uncertainty in demand, lead time, supply. NOT intended to be used
A
safety stock
11
Q
____ inventory is used to absorb uneven rates of demand or supply, perhaps caused by seasonal demand, holidays, or quantity discounts
A
anticipation
12
Q
____ inventory are orders that have been placed by not yet received nor paid for by customer. Inventory “on its way” to the customer
A
pipeline
13
Q
Average inventory formula
A
Quantity / 2
14
Q
TC = DC + (Q/2) H + (D/Q) S
TC = ____ annual ____ of inventory
A
total, cost
15
Q
TC = DC + (Q/2) H + (D/Q) S
D = annual ____ for item
A
demand
16
Q
TC = DC + (Q/2) H + (D/Q) S
C = ____ per unit
A
cost
17
Q
TC = DC + (Q/2) H + (D/Q) S
H = annual ____ cost per unit
A
holding
18
Q
TC = DC + (Q/2) H + (D/Q) S
S = cost to place a ____ order
A
single
19
Q
TC = DC + (Q/2) H + (D/Q) S
DC = annual cost to ____ inventory
A
purchase
20
Q
TC = DC + (Q/2) H + (D/Q) S
(Q/2) H = annual ____ cost
A
holding
21
Q
TC = DC + (Q/2) H + (D/Q) S
(D/Q) S = annual ____ cost
A
ordering
22
Q
Economic Order Quantity
A
Q = EOQ
23
Q
____ ____ can be used to communicate desires before a sales presentation or shipment
A
Supplier scorecards
24
Q
Choosing a Supplier
- Stakeholder consideration
- Plant/Warehouse location
- Technology Accommodations
- Commitment to Product improvement
- Commitment to Service improvement
- Growth management, capacity potential
- Quality of 2nd and 3rd tier suppliers
A
25
A ____ ____ ____ are used to see a supplier's efforts to get certified proof that they are committed to proving their true worth and open to evaluation
Supplier Certification Programs
26
Outsourcing considerations
- supplier considerations
- procurement
- operations
- logistics
27
s____:
location, infrastructure, equipment, process design, and management
supplier
28
p____:
material selection, material management, payment
procurement
29
o____:
quality control, improvement, consistency, capacity, flexibility, training
operations
30
l____:
inbound, outbound, reliability, communication/tracking
logistics
31
____ flow: every item is the same
line
32
____ flow: every item is unique
flexible
33
____ flow: demand is high
line
34
____ flow: demand is low
flexible
35
____ flow: static industry, doesn't change quickly
line
36
____ flow: evolving industry, customers always want something new
flexible
37
____ flow: machines do the work. Items are manufactured quickly
line
38
____ flow: humans often important to design and manufacturing. Products manufactured slowly
flexible
39
____ flow: make-to-stock (FG inventory)
line
40
____ flow: make-to-order (raw materials inventory?)
flexible
41
____ flow: assembly line or continuous flow
line
42
____ flow: job shops
flexible
43
____ flow examples: Buy items at Target/Walmart
line
44
____ flow examples: Buy at specialty shops
flexible
45
____ flow: assemble-to-order (WIP inventory)
hybrid
46
____ flow: often this is a line system with options
hybrid
47
____ flow example: buy at fast food restaurants
hybrid
48
____ ____: can be interrupted without damaging product (cars, furniture, electronics, appliances)
assembly lines
49
____ ____: no interruptions, must be run to completion (loaves of bread, oil refinery, steel production, chemical processes)
continuous flow
50
A ____ is someone or something that slows or halts free movement and progress
bottleneck
51
A ____ ____ includes steps to making a product
precedence diagram
52
____ ____ is the maximum time allowed for work on one unit at each station
cycle time
53
____ ____ ____: add all the work element times together
total task time
54
____ ____ ____ ____: smallest number of workstations according to formula
theoretical number of workstations
55
____ ____ ____ ____: sometimes formula doesn’t take into account all of the parameters, so it may be higher than what the formula indicates
actual number of workstations
56
How to balance an assembly line
1. Identify workstation candidates
2. Choose one of the candidates for placement in the workstation
3. Consider cycle time - Does the candidate fit in the workstation?
57
____ is the movement of goods (and services) from one location to another
transportation
58
____ is the part of supply chain that plans, implements, and controls the efficient, effective forward and reverse flow and storage of goods, services, and related info between the point of origin and the point of consumption in order to meet customers' requirements
logistics
59
____ cargo is free flowing cargo, stored loose... loaded by shovel, pump, bucket, or scoop
bulk
60
____ cargo is general or packaged cargo... often containerized and measured in TEU's
breakbulk
61
____-____ cargo is items with a mix of characteristics: both bulk and breakbulk
neo-bulk
62
T____ and C____ ____: large shipments
truckload, container load
63
L____ and L____: smaller shipment that cannot fill a container
less than truckload, less than container load
64
____ is the amount of space in a container (or package) available for cargo
cube
65
____ ____ is when all of the space in the container (or package) has been filled
cubing out
66
____ is the heaviness of the cargo
weight
67
____ ____ is when the container (or package) has been filled with product, such that additional cargo will exceed the container's weight limit
weighing out
68
____ is the use of more than one mode of transport during a single shipment
multimodal
69
____ is the seamless multimodal shipment. No need to unload container, repackage products. One container for entire trip
intermodal
70
A ____ is a schematic drawing that illustrates product placement to maximize use of shelf space and drive sales
planogram
71
____ related reasons for packaging:
- marketing and promotion
- provide product information
- legal considerations
consumer
72
____ ____ related reasons
- provides protection
- provides support
- preservation of perishable products
- facilitates movement/handling
supply chain
73
____ packaging is in contact with the end item (plastic bag, can, bottle, shrink wrap)
primary
74
____ packaging contains end item and primary packaging (box, case, drum, shrink wrap)
secondary
75
____ packaging contains several items which are in secondary packaging (crate, pallet, metal straps, shrink wrap)
tertiary
76
____ sizes (Width x Height x Length)
- 8'x8.5'x20'
- 8'8.5'x40'
standardized
77
Standardized containers are measured in ____-____ ____ ____
Twenty-Foot equivalent unit
78
Container types
- standard 20 or 40 footers
- open tops
- flatracks
- garmentainers
- high-cubes
- controlled atmosphere (CA) containers (also called reefers)
79
____ properties
- temperature controlled
- gas composition controls
- power requirement
- digital record of conditions throughout shipment
- airtight/watertight
- humidity level controls
reefer
80
____ benefits
- longer transit times possible
- delay aging / ripening process
- reduce water loss and weight shrinkage
- eliminates insects
- harmful glass removed
reefer
81
Pros of ____ transport:
- accessibility, flexible, versatile, reliable
- 2nd fastest mode of transport
- vital to intermodalism
road
82
Cons of ____ transport:
- long trips usually mean excessive regulations
- cost is vulnerable to increases in fuel prices, tolls, taxes, fees
- LTL's and LCL's will usually make many stops
road
83
Pros of ____ transport
- total cost
- fuel cost
- load
- fewer in-transit regulations
- more capable in poor weather conditions
railcar
84
Cons of ____ transport
- damage
- on-time reliability
- speed of shipment
- access to infrastructure required
railcar
85
____ ____ is the fast and efficient distribution of goods from an upstream supplier to a downstream customer through a distribution center
cross docking
85
____ tier suppliers are a company's direct suppliers; typically a firm that directly provides goods and/or services to a company
first
86
____ tier suppliers are firms that provide goods and services to a company's first-tier supplier
second
87
____ tier suppliers are firms that provide goods and/or services to a company's second-tier supplier
third
88
A ____ supply chain is the direction that points toward the end consumer
downstream
89
A ____ supply chain is the direction that points toward the suppliers
upstream
90
____ is the branch of the supply chain responsible for developing solutions that ensure the effective and efficient flow of goods in the supply chain
logistics
91
____ ____ is the branch of the supply chain responsible for the movement of products and packaging that will flow backward in the supply chain, away from the consumer and back in the direction of manufacturers
reverse logistics
92
In order for supply chains to function and develop, three things must continuously flow: m____, m____, and i____
materials, money, information
93
A ____ ____ is a company's plan for how the organization will purchase items, transform them, deliver them, and sell them in an effort to produce a profit
business model
94
____ ____ is the ability to see what is happening with inventory upstream and downstream in a supply chain
inventory visibility
95
____ is the amount of financial gain in any business endeavor
profit
96
___ is a ratio of total profit to total invested money
ROI
97
____ ____ are the primary advantages a company has over its competitors, usually difficult to replicate
core competencies
98
____ is the ratio of output purchased divided by inputs used to purchase the product or service
value
99
____ is the ratio of output created divided by inputs used to produce the product or service
productivity
100
The primary supply chain goals are e____, e____, and a____
effectiveness, efficiency, adaptability
101
The seven types of waste
1. defects
2. overproduction
3. transportation
4. motion
5. waiting
6. inventory
7. over-processing
.
102
____ are poorly manufactured products
defects
103
Keys to a successful supply chain
1. satisfy the needs of the ____
2. satisfy the needs of the ____
3. be prepared for the ____
customer, company, future
104
A supply chain strategy should take into account three things:
1. A ____/____ that meets consumer needs
2. The ____ ____ that will be used to create and deliver the product/service
3. The supply chain ____ that will help create and deliver the product/service
product/service, business model, partners
105
____ risks from holding inventory:
- theft or damage to inventory
- late shipments from suppliers
- employee sickness
- employee strike
- machine malfunctions
- harsh weather
company
106
____ risks from holding inventory
- employee sickness or strikes
- sudden increases in demand for your company's supplies
supplier
107
____ risks from holding inventory
- sudden increase in demand
- damage to inventory
customer
108
___ are items that are not intended as part of the finished goods but are important to the daily operations of the company
MRO (maintenance, repair, and operations)
109
Pipeline inventory = ____ ____ x ____ ____
daily demand x lead time
110
____ is a specific product or service's identification code used to track inventory or catalog sales
SKU (stock keeping unit)
111
____ demand item is an item for which demand levels are NOT directly impacted by the demand of another related item
independent
112
____ demand item is an item for which demand levels ARE directly impacted by the demand of another related item
dependent
113
Pros of ____ inventory levels:
- higher levels of customer service
- quantity discounts may be possible
- fewer orders will need to be placed
- greater security against unexpected demand variability
high
114
Pros of ____ inventory levels
- less storage space required
- lower chance of inventory obsolescence and shrinkage
- less inventory typically means fewer materials handling requirements
- less money invested in inventory means more money available for other investment opportunities
low
115
The four costs of inventory:
- p____
- h____
- o____
- s____
purchasing, holding, ordering, stockout
116
The cost to ___ is the cost of buying inventory
purchase
117
The ____ cost is the cost of holding inventory
holding
118
The ____ cost are the costs associated with placing an order for inventory
ordering
119
The ____ cost are the costs associated with not having enough inventory on hand to meet customer demand
stockout
120
____ is the lot size that will minimize total annual inventory cost
EOQ (economic order quantity)
120
When AHC is greater than AOC, holding costs are too ____
high
121
When AOC is greater than AHC, holding costs are too ____
low
122
____ ____ ____ represent the chain of organizations that help bring a product into the hands of the end user
channels of distribution
123
An ____ ____ ____ implies that an organization has a group of companies with which it has developed a working relationship, perhaps these companies have worked together for many years
established supplier base
124
A ____ ____ can refer to one region where many companies in a single industry are all co-located, heavily concentrated in a particular region, and where these companies often compete fiercely
business cluster
125
____ identifies a target market, while designers and engineers work to develop products that satisfy the needs of the target market. ____ ____ must then buy parts, manufacture hundreds or thousands of those end items and then deliver them into the hands of the customer
Marketing, supply chains
126
____ decisions provide direction for the company by identifying target markets, business models and potential product or service categories in which the company would like to compete
strategic
127
____ decisions are decisions that seek to satisfy a target market in a particular product or service category
design
128
____ decisions impact the organization in the short-term
operating
129
Assembly line challenges
- identify and eliminate bottlenecks
- too many employees and/or workstations
- employee inequities
- present needs vs future demands
130
A ____ is a section of a supply chain or production process that limits the overall output of the system
bottleneck
131
____ ____ are the smallest units of work that must be accomplished to complete an end item on the assembly line
work element
132
____ ____ ____ is the sum of all the tasks on the precedence diagram
total task time
133
A ____ is the collection of one or more work elements
workstation
134
____ ____ is the pace at which products must move through the assembly line in order for the assembly line to keep pace with demand
cycle time
135
Line balancing rules
1. Identify workstation candidates
2. Choose one of the candidates for placement into the workstation
3. Test viability of candidate chosen
136
____ ____ rule: a workstation must have a total task time equal to or less than the calculated cycle time
cycle time
137
____ rule: all tasks in a workstation must not violate the precedence relationships illustrated in the precedence diagram
precedence
138
A ____ assembly line uses minimal resources but it still meets consumer demand and creates high-quality outputs
balanced
139
____ ____ is the management of products that flow backward in the supply chain (upstream), away from the consumer and back in the direction of manufacturers
reverse logistics
140
____ ____ is delivering the right order (product and quantity), to the right place (location and customer), at the right time, in the expected condition, with the appropriate documentation
order fullfillment
141
____ represents the dimensional space (volume) inside of a container
cube
142
The ____ limit of a container communicates the maximum combined weight of the cargo that can fit inside of that container
weight
143
____ transportation is when cargo is moved from one vehicle or vessel to another vehicle or vessel without any direct handling of the cargo
intermodal
144
____ secures the item, makes it easy to move, allows the customer to see and make judgements about the item, and in some cases it fulfills legal requirements
packaging
145
Types of packaging
- bottles, boxes, cans
- tape, steel straps, plastic wrap
- dunnage
- pallets, slip sheets, crates
146
A ____ is a platform upon which large amounts of cargo can be securely placed for easy movement by a human-operated or automated forklift, pallet jack, or reach truck
pallet
147
Basic ____ and ____ footers: capable of carrying all sorts of packaged and/or palletized cargo
20, 40
148
____-____: a container that is 1 foot taller than the standard 40' container
high-cubes
149
____ ____: often called reefers because they are refrigerated, modern containers can also control humidity, composition of the air and pressure
controlled atmosphere
150
____ are containers are similar to the basic containers; except they would have a rod or cable that would allow for easy and secure movement of clothing on hangers
garmentainers
151
____ containers are for products that require ventilation while in transport
ventilated
152
____-____ allows for bulk cargo to be poured into the container
open-top
153
____ shippers specialize in moving large amounts of goods, enough goods to fill an entire truck or perhaps multiple tracks
truckload
154
____-____-____ shippers are used if a company has a reasonable amount of goods going to a single location, but not enough goods to fill an entire truck or container
less-than-truckload (LTL)
155
____ ____ shippers typically refer to anything from an envelope to a single packaged shipment of less than 150 pounds, although the upper limit varies from one small package shipper to another
small package
156
The five major modes of transportation: r____, r____, o____, a____, and p____
road, rail, ocean, air, pipeline
157
A ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ is a truck trailer placed directly on a rail flatcar
trailer on a flat car (TOFC)
158
A ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ is a standardized container placed directly on a rail flatcar
container on a flatcar (COFC)
159
A ____ is where two containers are stacked on top of each other on a single but specialized railcar that can safely accommodate two containers while still allowing the double-stacked containers to clear tunnels
doublestack
160
Warehousing and DC services
- picking and packing
- assembly
- postponement
- quality inspections
- management of packaging materials
- disposal, disassembly and/or recycling of unwanted or defective products
- repair or refurbishing of defective products
161
A ____ center is a facility that specializes in receiving customer orders and then picking the ordered items from the shelves, packing the items into a box or shipping envelope, and labeling the orders so the order is ready for shipment to customer's home or office
fulfillment
162
A ____ ____ ____ is a facility that performs a number of reverse logistics functions typically related to returned consumer products
central return center
163
____ ____ typically refers to the portion of the supply chain between the final inventory holding facility and the end consumer
last mile
164
____ is a network of vendors that learn, improve, and prosper in sync with their parent companies
keiretsu
165
Steps in the purchasing process
1. Requisition
2. Supplier selection
3. Place order
4. Track order
5. Receive order
166
Purchasing Documents:
- material requisition (MR)
- Request for quotation (RFQ)
- Purchase order (PO)
167
A ____ ____ is used to initiate the purchasing process. Signals that a product or service is needed along with listing the quantity needed, product/service description and or specification
material requisition (MR)
168
A ____ ____ ____ can be issued to one or more potential suppliers if the product or service requested is not in stock
request for quotation
169
A ____ ____ is a contract that states the terms and conditions of the order
purchase order
170
____ purchasing is a purchasing system where all corporate employees send material requisitions to a single purchasing department
centralized
171
____ purchasing is a purchasing system where material requisitions are sent to a departmental purchasing department
decentralized
172
Reasons for ____
- proprietary technology
- no competent supplier
- better quality control
- idle capacity
- control
making
173
Reasons for ____
- insufficient capacity
- lack of expertise
- competent supplier
- better use of resources
outsourcing
174
____ integration is the act of a company taking on additional supply chain responsibilities that were formerly done by outside parties
vertical
175
____ integration is taking over supply chain responsibilities formerly performed by downstream supply chain partners
forward
176
____ integration is taking over supply chain responsibilities formerly performed by upstream supply chain partners
backward
177
____ supplier
- quantity discount opportunities
- lowest total cost
- intellectual property advantages
- quality control
- relationship management is easier
- easier collaboration
single
178
____ supplier
- competition breeds innovation
- risk among multiple suppliers
- capacity flexibility
- location advantages
multiple
179
____ ____ ____ ____ is the cost of owning an item over the entire lifetime of the item
total cost of ownership (TCO)
180
____ flow generally manufactures products very quickly and makes the exact same product over and over again
line
181
____ flow manufactures products more slowly but each product can be highly customized
flexible
