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Physiology > Unit 1 > Flashcards

Unit 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what can increase blood osmolarity

A

increasing (more severe) dehydration

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2
Q

what are characteristics of both enzymes and carrier proteins

A

competition
saturation
specificity

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3
Q

what kind of transport more a second molecule in the opposite direction as the primary molecule?

A

counter-transport

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4
Q

what kind of transport moves a second molecules in the same direction as the primary molecule

A

active co-transport

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5
Q

list 6 facts about Na+/K+ pumps

A
  1. they are located in cell membranes
  2. Na+ is pumped out; K+ is pumped into the cell
  3. ATP is required for normal function
  4. Sets up the concentration gradient for action potentials to occur
  5. Does NOT stimulate of cause action potentials
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6
Q

how can hormones enter and leave cells

A

hormones can enter cells via phagocytosis and leave through exocytosis

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7
Q

what is the specific fluid pressure that pulls water into the venous end of the capillary?

A

blood osmotic pressure

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8
Q

blood hydrostatic pressure

A

pushes water out of the capillaries

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9
Q

blood osmotic pressure

A

pulls water into the venules

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10
Q

tissue hydrostatic pressure

A

pushes water from the tissues into the capillaries

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11
Q

tissue osmotic pressure

A

pulls water out of the capillaries into the surrounding tissue

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12
Q

list statements about the blood osmotic feedback loop

A
  1. osmoreceptors alert the hypothalamus when blood osmolarity increases
    Hypothalamus releases ADH/vasopressin from the posterior pituitary gland
  2. activated ADH receptors in the kidney increase water reabsorption
  3. urine volume decreases, blood volume increases, blood osmolarity decreases
  4. ADH/vasopressin levels decrease in blood as blood osmolarity returns to normal
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13
Q

what happens when the blood osmotic feedback loop (a nega feedback loop) overcorrects and what is an example of it overcorrecting?

A

example: blood osmolarity drops below normal

what happens: urine volume increases; urine is more dilute (i.e. more water)

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14
Q

what factor has no effect on the rate of diffusion across a cell membrane?

A

the size of diffusing molecules

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15
Q

what is the specific type of gated cell membrane channel that can be regulated (open/closed) by hormones

A

ligand-gated

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16
Q

what do hypotonic solutions do to a RBCs?

A

hemolysis

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17
Q

what do hypertonic solutions do to RBCs?

A

RBC crenation

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18
Q

osmotic pressures ___ water and hydrostatic pressures _____ water

A

osmotic - pull

hydrostatic - push

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19
Q

what is the process required before proteins (i.e. amino acids) can enter the Krebs cycle for ATP production?

A

deamination

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20
Q

what is the process used by the liver to produce a functional protein from different dietary proteins

A

transamination

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21
Q

describe the Cori cycle

A
  1. anaerobic respiration in skeletal muscle produces lactic acid
  2. lactic acid goes to the liver via blood
  3. liver uses LDH to convert lactic acid to pyruvic acid
  4. liver then converts pyruvic acid to glucose to increase blood sugar
  5. glucose to skeletal muscle; glycogenesis replenishes glycogen
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22
Q

what can produce ATP less effeciently than other adipose tissue but does produce heat to increase body temp?

A

brown fat

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23
Q

list molecules normallly used for ATP production or commonly found in circulating blood

A 
amino acids
fatty acids
glucose
ketones
lactic acid
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24
Q

name a molecule not routinely used for ATP production of commonly found in circulating blood

A

glycerol

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25
Q

what may serve as a cofactor for enzyme function?

A

minerals

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26
Q

what are often producted inactive and must be activated prior to use

A

enzymes

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27
Q

what are organic molecules that may be required for enzyme function?

A

co-enzymes

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28
Q

what are the vitamins in our diet?

A

co-enzymes

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29
Q

what molecules are substrates for gluconeogenesis?

A

amino acids (of proteins) and lipids

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30
Q

what does not “couple” two or more metabolic reactions?

A

glucose

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31
Q

what is the cause of inborn errors of metabolism

A

a defective gene allele

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32
Q

what may cause increased levels of metabolic substrates and decreased levels of metabolic product?

A

an inborn error of metabolism

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33
Q

can inborn errors of metabolism be cured?

A

no, but they can be treated, as the defective allele is still present

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34
Q

what animal may be used for in vivo testing of medications for the skin or heart?

A

pigs

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35
Q

what animal would you NOT use to in-vivo test a drug that directly involves the gallbladder

A

rats, bc they dint have gallbladders

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36
Q

what animal would you use for in vivo testing of a drug involving blood clotting?

A

rabbits, bc they blot clot exactly like humans

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37
Q

what is the FDA and what is their purpose?

A

Food Drug Administation; their job is to make a best guess as to what products are safe and have efficacy

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38
Q

what is the steps a drugm must go through?

A

in vitro testing (in a petri dish with tiissue cell culture)
in vivo testing (two non-human species, first a rodent)
then to humans for 3-4 phases

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39
Q

what is the Human phase I of drug testing

A

only testing for safely to see if it does in humans what is has done in other species

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40
Q

what is the human phase II of drug testing?

A

testing in the target population with very specific specifications

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41
Q

what is the phase III of human drug testing?

A

testing in an expanded target population

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42
Q

when is the drug released to the public?

A

after it has passed stage III

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43
Q

what is stage IV?

A

a step that sometimes occurs with drugs to test drugs for other uses/outcomes after it has been released to the public

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44
Q

what is the difference between positive and negative feedback?

A

negative feedback- brings back to “normal”
positive feedback - makes the difference from normal greater (normally a disease process, but can be also reabsorption of water in kidney or female ovulation menstrual cycle)

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45
Q

define physiology

A

the study of biological function, emphasis on mechanisms

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46
Q

_____ is concerned with how physiological processes are altered in disease or injury

A

pathophysiology

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47
Q

what are the 3 important attributes of the scientific method to study physiology?

A
  1. the natural world can be explained
  2. explanations are based on observations - modified/refuted by other observations
  3. could be wrong or unable to be previously measured - thus it keeps raising questions
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48
Q

what are examples of products NOT regulated/approved by FDA (or any regulatory agency)?

A

-nutraceuticals/supplements/energy drinks, diet products, “clinical trials” - not always,

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49
Q

______ is the purpose of all physiological mechanisms and has a dynamic constancy

A

homeostasis

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50
Q

in negative feedback, what monitors “normal”

A

sensors

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51
Q

deviation is sent to _____, which is in _____

A

the integrating center, in the brain or spinal cord

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52
Q

in negative feedback, messages are sent to ______

A

the effector organ (muscle, glands, etc)

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53
Q

what are examples of simple negative feedback loops?

A

temperature (nervous system) and blood glucose (hormones - insulin/glucagon)

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54
Q

what are examples of positive feedback?

A

blood clotting (cascade and menstrual cycle leading to ovulation)

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55
Q

what are the 2 categories of the regulation of homeostasis?

A
  1. instrinsic - in the organ to be regulated

2. extrinsic - outside the organ (nervous or endocrine systems)

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56
Q

what are the 4 primary tissues?

A

muscle, nervous, epithelial, connective

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57
Q

what are the individual cells of muscle tissue called

A

fibers

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58
Q

what are the 3 kinds of muscle tissue?

A

skeletal, cardiac (like intercalated discs) and smooth (like peristalsis in GI tract)

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59
Q

striated/non-striated and volunatary/involuntary are all example of variations of ______.

A

muscle tissue

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60
Q

what type of tissue involes the generation and conduction of electrical events

A

nervous tissue

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61
Q

individual nervous tissue cells are called _____ (NOT _____) and supporting cells are called _____ cells

A

neurons; nerves; glial

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62
Q

what are the 3 parts to a neuron?

A

cell body
dendrite
axon

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63
Q

what type of tissue forms membranes and forms glands derived from membranes

A

epithelial tissue

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64
Q

what are the different shapes of epithelial membranes?

A

squamous
cuboidal
columnar

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65
Q

what are the 4 different kinds of layers of epithelial tissue and what is an example of them?

A

simple (endothelium lining blood vessels – for diffusion and filtration)
stratified (keratinized or nonkeratinized)
transitional (urinary bladder)
pseudostratified (trachea)

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66
Q

true or false: epithelial tissue ungergoes continuous mitosis to replace cells, resulting in the entire epidermis replaced every 2 weeks (and stomach lining replaced every few days)

A

true

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67
Q

what is the basement membrane

A

a layer of proteins/polysaccarides that attach membranes to underlying connective tissue

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68
Q

______ contain ducts and are derived from cells of epithelial membranes

A

exocrine glands

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69
Q

the following are all examples of ______ ____: lacrimal, sevacuous, sweat (merocrine (perspiration) and apocrine) and digestive (mucous, salivary, gastric, liver, pancrease) and reproductive (prostate, seminal vesicles)

A

exocrine glands

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70
Q

_____ tissue is large amounts of extracellular material

A

connective

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71
Q

what are the 4 types of connective tissue?

A

connective tissue proper, cartilage, bone, blood

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72
Q

what does connective tissue proper consist of?

A

loose (areolar) CT - dermis of skin, contains collagen
adipose (a specialized loose CT)
dense fibrous CT - tough capsules surrounding organs, tendons, ligaments

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73
Q

what does cartilage consist of

A

chondrocytes (think gristle)

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74
Q

_____ consists of osteoblasts/osteocytes that are produced in concentric layers

A

bone

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75
Q

half of the volume of blood is _____.

A

plasma

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76
Q

_____ is the most common molecule in the body, can go anywhere

A

water

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77
Q

all the water in your body connect and create ______ _____.

A

bodily fluids

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78
Q

what are the 2 major compartments separated by the cell membrane?

A

intracellular and extracellular

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79
Q

the ______ fluid compartment is 2/3 of the toal body water, is inside of body cells and is required for chemical reaction and for movement of things inside the cell

A

intracellular

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80
Q

what cross the plasma membrane easier, fat-soluble molecules or water molecules?

A

fat-soluble molecules

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81
Q

the _____ fluid compartment is the remaining 1/3 of total body water and is outside the plasma membrane

A

extracellular

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82
Q

_____ is a type of extracellular water that is circulating blood, which allows water to move and communicate with other fluid compartments

A

vascular

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83
Q

what type of extracellular water is outside of cells and blood vessels?

A

extravascular

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84
Q

____ is a reservoir that helps to maintain fluid homeostasis

A

interstitial fluid

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85
Q

where is interstitial fluid located

A

in between and surrounding tissues and cells

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86
Q

why is interstitial fluid important?

A

because it communicated directly with vascular fluid and is a resorvior of water for the body

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87
Q

what are examples of extracellular fluid?

A

interstitial, lymphatic, CSF (cerebral spinal fluid), synovial fluid, aqueous humor (fluid from eye)

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88
Q

____ ____ fluid is produced by coroid cells in the ventricals of the brain and goes thru the subarachnoid space in the spinal chord and provides nutrients for the brain

A

Cerebral spinal fluid

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89
Q

_____ fluid is located in joints and provides them lubrication

A

synovial

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90
Q

what are kind of fluids in the body that are not considered body fluids

A

ingesta (GI tract), saliva, urine

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91
Q

why are some fluids in the body not consideredbody fluids?

A

they are not physiologically available because they do not cross a mucous membrane and are not in a vascular space.

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92
Q

_____ _____ is a fluid mosaic structure

A

plasma membrane

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93
Q

describe the structure of a plasma membrane

A 
has a double layer of phospholipids, is hydrophobic in the middle
has peripheral (embedded on side) protiens or integral (in membrane) proteins
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94
Q

______ cells have multiple nuclei while mature ____ have no nuclei

A

muscle; RBCs

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95
Q

what are the 2 stages of gene expression?

A

genetic transcription (RNA synthesis) and genetic translation (protein synthesis)

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96
Q

what are the stages of the cell cycle?

A

interphase
mitosis (PMAT)
cytokinesis

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97
Q

what are 2 general types of cells?

A

permanent and labile

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98
Q

____ cells do not undergo mitosis and include neurons and striated muscles (like of the heart)

A

permanent

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99
Q

_______ cells undergo continual mitosis and include skin (epithelial cells)

A

labile

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100
Q

_____ and ______ are the 2 kinds of cell death

A

necrosis and apoptosis

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101
Q

____ is the process of cell death that occurs because of something abnormal

A

necrosis

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102
Q

______ is a programmed cell death

A

apoptosis

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103
Q

______ is the increase in size of individual cells, which generally results in the cell being able to do more work (but can become a problem in places like the heart)

A

hypertrophy

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104
Q

_____ is an increase in the number of individual cells because mitosis has been sped up (too much of this can result in cancer)

A

hyperplasia

105
Q

_____ is when cells get smaller as a result of lack of growth or development. can be connected to a decrease in function of those cells

A

atrophy

106
Q

____ are biological catalysts that increase the rate of chemical reactions

A

enzymes

107
Q

what is the ending that signifies something is an enzyme

A

“ase”

108
Q

what is the function of enzymes

A

to make reaction more physiologically effecient, NOT to cause reaction to happen

109
Q

what are most enzymes made of

A

proteins (except for RNA which is made of ribosomes)

110
Q

______ are different models of the same enzyme with the SAME active site that catalyze the same reactions, but in different organs

A

isoenzymes (iso = same or equal)

111
Q

describe an example of isoenzymes

A

3 forms of CK/CPK found in the body:
MM in skeletal muscle
BB in the brain
MB in cardiac muscle

112
Q

______ are something in the bloodstream that can show where a problem has been occuring; isoenzymes are involved in this

A

biomarkers

113
Q

name 6 factors that impact enzyme activity

A
  1. temperature
  2. pH
  3. metal ions (cofactors) / minerals (Ca2+, Mg2+, Mn2+, Cu2+, Zn2+, Se2+)
  4. organic molecules (coenzymes) = vitamins
  5. inactice forms need to be activated
  6. concentration (of enzyme of substrate)
114
Q

_____ _____ _______ is a form of negative feedback inhibition in which one final product inhibits the enzyme of that branch and pushes it toward an alternate pathway

A

end-product inhibition

115
Q

_______ ______ occurs when the final product inhibits an earlier enzyme in site other than the active site by changing the shape of the protein and binting it to an “other site” other than that active site that cause the change in shape

A

allosteric inhibition

116
Q

what are inborn errors of metabolism

A

a genetic defect, inherited defect in a gene for an enzyme protein

117
Q

what is an example of inborn erros of metabolism

A

PKU - genetic inobrn error that doesnt convert phenylalin to trrosine and it builds up in the brain and can cause mental retardation bc the buildup prevents development

albanism - defect in the enzyme that converts DOPA to melanin

118
Q

anabolism (building up) + catabolism (breaking down) = ?

A

metabolism

119
Q

require input of energy; products contain more free energy than reactants

A

endergonic

120
Q

releases energy (usually as heat in the body)

A

exergonic

121
Q

heat is measured as _____

A

calories

122
Q

_____ means that our body stays at the same temperature and we can regular our own temp

A

homeotherm

123
Q

what are examples of coupled reactions?

A

ATP, redox

124
Q

what is the universal energy carrier in the cell

A

ATP

125
Q

NAD (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide) is derived from

A

vitamin niacin (Vit B3)

126
Q

FAD (flavin adenine dinucleotide) is derived from

A

vitamin riboflavin (Bit B2)

127
Q

true or false: NAD/NADH2 and FAD/FADH2 contain energy

A

false: they do NOT inherently contain any energy (contrary to advertised dietary supps)

128
Q

what are free radicals

A

excess electrons in cells from electron transport chain that can cause damage to cells if not moved elsewhere by anitoxidants

129
Q

true or false: energy is never 100% effecient, some is lost as heat

A

true

130
Q

______ respiration is the conversion of glucose or fatty acids to CO2 + H20, with oxygen from blood being the final electron acceptor

A

aerobic

131
Q

what is glycolysis

A

break down of glucose to make ATP

132
Q

what is glycogenesis

A

the process of stroring sugar as glycogen until it is needed (usually in liver and striated muscles)

133
Q

what is glycogenolysis

A

using glycogen to form glucose-6-phosphate (required no ATP) that can be sued to produce free glucose for secretion into the blood

134
Q

when is glucose broken down from glycogenolysis in the liver?

A

to raise blood sugar for the brain, heart, etc

135
Q

what is gluconeogenesis?

A

taking other molecules (proteins and lipids) and converting them to sugar

136
Q

why is glucose to important

A

-effecient for cellular respiration to convert ATP
good source of energy
brain can only use glucose

137
Q

true or false: gluconeogeneisis is a more effecient way to produce glucose

A

false, because there is a smaller net gain of ATP bc ATP is required at the beginning for proteins that must go through deamination remove N before it can go thru the krebs cycle. also, the removed N is converted to urea that can be toxic to the brain in excess
also bc glyceral in lipids must be removed before krebs cycle

138
Q

______ is a 2-way pathway between liver and skeletal muscle

A

Cori Cycle

139
Q

why is exercise the number 1 way to slow down aging?

A

because it keeps all the body processes working and the bosdy has to convert lactic acid more often and thus it becomes more efficient at doing so

140
Q

the _____ ______ ____ is a form of anaerobic respiration

A

lactic acid pathway

141
Q

what is the process of the lactic acid pathway

A

reduced NAD is oxideized by pyruvic acid, which accepts 2 H+, and thus is reduced to lactic acid (net gain of 2 ATP)

142
Q

skeletal muscle produces _____ during anaerobic exercise

A

lactic acid

143
Q

how is lactic acid eliminated

A

by aerobic respiration

144
Q

what cells use lactic acid pathway continually

A

RBCs. bc they lack mitochondria

145
Q

in the Cori cycle, _____ converts lactic acid to pyruvic acid

A

LDH (lactic acid dehydrogenase)

146
Q

what organ converts pyruvic acid to glucose-6-phosphate (that can then become either glucose for immediate use or glycogen for storage)

A

liver

147
Q

______ is the conversion of non-carbohydrate through pyruvic acid to glucose to help maintain blood sugar and energy for the brain when carbs are not available

A

gluconeogenesis

148
Q

____ _____ _____ inside the mitochondria results in significant ATP production in aerobic respiration

A

electron transport system

149
Q

what are the 2 methods of ATP formation in cell respiration

A

direct (substrate-level) phosphorylation and oxidative phosphorlyation

150
Q

when food energy is taken in faster than consumerd, ATP within cells _______ (increases or decreases)

A

increases

151
Q

what involves triglycerides being formed into glycerol and free fatty acids

A

lipid metabolism

152
Q

what are blood-borne energy carriers for liver, skeletal muscle, and others for aerobic respiration

A

free fatty acids

153
Q

_______ _______ produces more excess heat and less ATP, thus providing more warmth to individual (mostly newborns)

A

brown fat

154
Q

in ______ _____ ______, nitrogen enters the body as a protein and is excreted as urea

A

amino acid metabolism

155
Q

how many essential amino acids are there for adults vs for children?

A

8 for adults

9 for children

156
Q

_______ is the transfer of an amine group from one amino acid to form another

A

transamination

157
Q

transamination requires _______ as a coenzyme

A

vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)

158
Q

what are the 3 main substrates of gluconeogenesis

A

3-carbon molecules of alanine, lactic acid, glycerol

159
Q

whater are different molecules in the body that can be used to produce ATP?

A

glucose (systems work to maintain a minimum amount of glucose in the blood)
fatty acids in bloodstream
lactic acid - mostly used by the liver
amino acids
ketones - typically bi-products of the liver

160
Q

the _______ (organ) can convert all of the molecules to ATP

A

liver

161
Q

if too high of _____ in blood, can smell acetone on the breath

A

ketones

162
Q

true or false: some organs use one source of ATP more than other organs

A

true, for ex: brain uses glucose

163
Q

during severe and prolonged starvation, the brain gains some ability to use _____ ___

A

ketone bodies

164
Q

the ____ ____ _____ keeps intracellular and extracellular separate

A

selectively permeable membrane

165
Q

____ is when a molecule can cross without needing any special mechanism

A

simple diffusion

166
Q

what is simple diffusion of water

A

osmosis

167
Q

in ______ _______ ______, molecules/electrolytes need to attack to a carrier to them to cross the membrane

A

carrier-mediated transport

168
Q

in _____ _____, a molecule passes through the cell membrane when binded to another molecule

A

facilitated diffusion

169
Q

what are examples of carrier-mediated transport

A

hormones that must bind to a receptor, calcium

170
Q

in passive transport, a ____ _____ must be present in which there is a higher concentration on one side than the other and transport goes from high to low

A

concentration gradient

171
Q

______ are water channels that help the cell membrane to regulate water transport where hydrophobic heads would normally prevent water from passing

A

aquaporins

172
Q

_____ transport involves energy, while _____ transport does not

A

active; passive

173
Q

______ regulate transport across the membrane, may be passive or active, and a speific to a molecule and cell

A

channels

174
Q

what are 3 kinds of channels?

A

ligand-gated, voltage-gated, stretch

175
Q

in ____ ______ channels, the molecule opens and closes the gates/pores

A

ligand-gates

176
Q

in ____ _____ channels, the electrical change must occur exactly there for an opening to occur

A

voltage-gated

177
Q

in _____ channels, there is a physical change in that membrane or gate (is not very common)

A

stretch

178
Q

the _____ _____ includes collagen, elastic, and ground substance

A

extracellular matrix

179
Q

_______ bind lots of water

A

proteoglycans

180
Q

solution = ______ + _____

A

solvent (water) + solute (dissolved molecules)

181
Q

T or F: in diffusion, small molecules with polar covalent bonds like CO2, urea, and ethanol can easily pass

A

true

182
Q

____ ____ are required for larger polar molecules (like glucose)

A

carrier proteins

183
Q

rate of diffusion across the cell membrane is determined by:

A
  1. magnitude of concentration difference
  2. permeability of membrane
  3. temp of solution (higer temp causes faster diffusion, but too high causing protein denaturing)
  4. surface area of membrane
184
Q

what is osmotic pressure

A

force required to prevent osmosis, a chem property

185
Q

what is measured instead of osmotic pressure and indicated how strong the solution “draws” water into it by osmosis

A

tonicity

186
Q

the greater the solute, the greater the _____

A

osmotic pressure

187
Q

_____ is a complex biological fluid with lots of organic molecules and electrolytes

A

plasma

188
Q

how can osmolality be measured?

A

by freezing point

189
Q

tonicity -

A

measurement of the effect of a solution on the movement of water

190
Q

what does an isotonic solution like saline solution not have an effect on the body?

A

it matches the effect that blood has so it wont impac the flow of water in and out of the body/cells

191
Q

what examples of isotonic solutions

A

saline solution, LRS (lactated ringers solution), D5W (dextros 5% in water)

192
Q

_____ carry oxygen and CO2, have no nuclei, but have hemoglobin

A

RBC

193
Q

if you put RBC in a hypertonic solution, _____ will occur

A

crenation (cell will shrink)

194
Q

if you put RBC in a hypotonic solution,____ and/or _____ will occur

A

swelling; hemolysis (breaking apart of rupturing of a cell)

195
Q

hypotonic

A

water moves into the cell

196
Q

hypertonic

A

water moves out of the cell

197
Q

hydrostatic pressures ______ , while osmotic pressures ________

A

push; pull

198
Q

what is the direction of water movement relative to the capillary? (in or out)

a. blood osmotic pressure: ____
b. blood hydrostatic pressure: _______
c. tissue osmotic pressure: _______
d. tissue hydrostatic pressure:_______

A

a. in
b. out
c. out
d. in

199
Q

in _______ vessels, the direction of flow is only towards the heart

A

lymphatic

200
Q

________ monitor the osmolarity/concentration of blood, constatnly sending message to the _____ if the body is dehydrated or not.

A

osmoreceptors; hypothalamus

201
Q

if the body is dehydrated, the hypothalamus sends a message to the ________ to release _____ (aka _______) that sends a message to the kidneys to reabsorb water to inclrease water concentration in the blood

A

postitary pituitary gland:

ADH (anti-diuretic hormone); vasopressin

202
Q

what hormones monitors vessel pressure

A

vasopressin aka ADH (anti-duiretic hormone)

203
Q

when the body is dehydrated, blood becomes _____ (more/less) concentrated and urine volume ____ (increases/decreases)

A

more; decreases

204
Q

what is an example of something you can eat that can also cause ADH to be secreted and blood concentration to increase

A

salt

205
Q

what does blood plasma consist of?

A

electrolytes, proteins, “stuff”

206
Q

what is blood osmolality

A

concentration of “stuff” in plams

207
Q

when water increases, osmolality aka concnetration of blood _____ (increases/decreases)?

A

decreases

208
Q

concentration impacts how easily the blood flows, aka ______

A

viscosity

209
Q

____ ____ is a carrier-mediated transport which moves down a concentration gradient and does not require ATP

A

facilitated diffusion

210
Q

_____ _____ is movement AGAINST the concentration gradient. It requires ATP

A

active transport

211
Q

in ____ _______ _____, ATP is directly required for function (phosphorylation) of the carrier.

A

primary active transport

212
Q

is a pump, like the sodium potassium pump, the same as an action potential?

A

NO

213
Q

a _____ requires energy and involves active transport against the concentration gradient. it also requires a structre that may or may not be gated

A

pump

214
Q

____ is the major extracellular cation, while ___ is the major intracellular cation

A

Na+; K+

215
Q

Na K pumps are in part regulated by _____ hormones, so if the NAK pumps arent working well then low energy is a symptom

A

thyroid

216
Q

___ _____ is an electrical message that occurs in the nervous system, it is a wace of excessive identical flips across the cell membrane. it needs a stimulus that will trigger the Na+ channels to open, that will then cause the K+ channels to open, moveing Na in the cell and K out

A

action potential

217
Q

what are 4 reasons for the Na+/K- pump?

A
  1. provides energy for “coupled transport’
  2. the activity of the pump is adjusted to regulate BMR (by the thyroid)
  3. Na?K gradient is needed for electrochemical conduction of impulses (nerve/heart)
  4. Na+ greatly affects osmotic pressure with the cell
218
Q

why do sodium ions greatly affect osmotic pressure withing a cell?

A

bc when the NAK pump stops, Na ions in the cell increases, which causes water to follow, thus causing intracellular water damage

219
Q

in ________, energy is needed form the “uphill” movement of Na+ into the cell

A

secondary active (coupled) transport

220
Q

______ is the movement of digestion products across the intestinal epithelium

A

absorption

221
Q

______ is the movement of molecules from urinary filtrate back into the blood

A

reabsorption

222
Q

what is an example of reabsorption

A

reabsorption of glucose from filtrate back into the blood

223
Q

the 2 mechanims across epithelial membranes include: _______ - thought cytoplams of cell
_____ between epithelial cells

A

transcellular transport;

paracellular transport

224
Q

_____ transport involves the transport of many molecules at a time, such as polypeptides or proteins that act as hormones or neurotransmitters. specific types of this include exocytosis and endocytosis.

A

exocytosis

endocytosis

225
Q

each cell has a _______, measured in mV, that is measure by the electrical diff across the membrane and is affected by the movment of Na and K

A

RMP (resting membrane potential)

226
Q

what helps to maintain the RMP for a particular cell membrane

A

the Sodium Potassium Pump

227
Q

the cell membrane is most permeable to sodium or potassium?

A

potassium

228
Q

bulk transport mechanisms:
_____ is the process of exiting the cell
______ is the process of entering the cell

A

exocytosis;

endocytosis

229
Q

what are the 2 different processes of endocytosis

A

phagocytosis (solids)

pinocytosis (liquids, cell “drinking”)

230
Q

T or F: all cell signals are chemical molecules

A

true

231
Q

what is traditional cell signaling and what is an example?

A

the endocrine system sending hormones to distant places

ex: ADH is produced in the hypothalamus , released in the Post pituitary and sent to the liver

232
Q

_____ is a signal produced by a neuron and transmitted to asecond cell next to it via the synapse

A

neurotransmitter

233
Q

____ chemical signals secrete regulatorychemicals that diffuse through the ECM to nerby target cells. it is a localized signalling to either cells of a single space or organ or autocrine

A

paracrine

234
Q

what are autocrine signals

A

released by a cell and only effect one specific kind of cell (ex: prostogladins)

235
Q

what are the 3 general categories of signalling

A

paracrine
synaptic
endocrine

236
Q

in _____ signalling, hormones in extracellular fluid are carried by blood to all cells; only the target cells can respond, and specific receptors (proteins) are required

A

endocrine

237
Q

in ______, the polar potential across the cell membrane changes, opening the Na channel and moving Na+ into the cell, making the RMP less neg/closer to zero

A

depolarization

238
Q

depolarization triggers _______, in which K+ channels open and leave the cell, causing the RMP to return to “normal” (about -70 mV)

A

repolarization

239
Q

T or F: the action potential continues to propogate the opening of the next Na channel

A

true

240
Q

whateare 3 important characteristics of action potentials?

A

`1. all or none action potential goes all the way or not at all

  1. refractory periods (space between action potentials (where mV is low) exist
  2. only one action potential stimulus can be recieved at a time
241
Q

what is the change in length of the refractory periods a result of?

A

change in frequency due to a change in intensity by more sensory nerves

242
Q

____ is the protein produced to wrap around axon in sheaths that alls the aciton potential to skip sections of the axon to another _____, thus speeding the transfer of electrical messages

A

myelin;

node of ranview

243
Q

__________ is a stimuli that makes the RMP greater than -70 mV, usually by decreasing even more or increasing to a high positive number, this unhibiting action potentials in that cell

A

hyperpolarization

244
Q

________ is a junction between and axon and a second cell, that has a space called a ___ _____

A

synapse;

synaptic cleft

245
Q

what are the 2 ways an action potential will cross the cleft to the synapse?

A
  1. some voltages will jump (cardiac muscles will do this in heart)
  2. neurotransmitters will convert the action potential to a chemical message
246
Q

in the conversion of an action potential to a chemical message, ___ ions are released into the cytoplasm, which stimulate _______ ____ to release their contenst by exocytosis into the cleft space. these contents then bind to a _____ channel and enter the adjacent cell.

A

Ca+2;
neutotransmitter vesicles
ligant-gated

247
Q

identify the brain structure that is the bodys thermostat ad regulates most endocrine organs

A

hypothalamus

248
Q

identify the specific cation whose extracellular location helps regulate body fluid movement

A

Na ions

249
Q

identify the specific brain structure that produces and secretes releasing and inhibiting hormones

A

hypothalamus

250
Q

identify the organ system that works with the nervous system to regulate and maintain homeostasis

A

endocrine

251
Q

identify the specific nervous system structure that is composed of a bundle of axons

A

nerve

252
Q

identify the specific tonicity (hypo or hyper) of a solution that causes crenation of red bloods cells

A

hyper

253
Q

identify the specific tonicity (hypo or hyper) of a solution that causes hemolysis of red bloods cells

A

hypo

254
Q

identify the brain structure that is the body’s thermostat and regulates most endocrine organs

A

hypothalamus

255
Q

identify the special chemical element removed from proteins before ATP production can occur

A

nitrogen

256
Q

identify the metabolic pathway or process in which the liver converts lactic acid to pyruvic acid; pyruvic acid them becomes glucose -6-phosphate and then either glucose or glycogen

A

cori cycle

257
Q

identify the capillary end (arterial or venous) in which net fluid movement is into interstitial fluid

A

arterial

258
Q

identify the mammalian glucose storage molecules present in liver and muscle cells

A

glycogen

Physiology (4 decks)

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