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UW Madison Anatomy > Unit 1 > Flashcards

Unit 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Two major tissue layers of skin

A

Epidermis (outer) and dermis (inner)

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2
Q

Epidermal layers (outer to inner)

A
  1. Stratum corneum
    2-4. Three basal layers
  2. Stratum basale
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3
Q

Epidermis cell type

A

Stratifiedvis squamous epithelial cells; keratinized

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4
Q

Where does epidermis get nourishment and innervation?

A

Epidermal layer is avascular, so it needs its nutrients and innervation from dermal layer

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5
Q

Dermis cell type

A

Dense, irregular CT filled w/ collagen and fibroblasts

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6
Q

Dermis contains these things that help provide it with nutrients and innervation

A 
Blood vessels (nutrients)
Nerve endings (innervation)
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7
Q

Hypodermis cell type

A

Adipose (FAT)

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8
Q

Skin functions

A
  1. Barrier btwn internal structure of body and external environment
  2. Barrier to friction and abrasion
  3. Waterproof (keeps out water, keeps in water)
  4. Screens out UV rays
  5. Sensory organ
  6. Excretory organ (eliminates urea through sweat glands)
  7. Thermoregulation
  8. Vitamin D source
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9
Q

Describe stratum corneum

A

Most superficial epidermal layer

Dead keratinized cells constantly being sloughed off and replaced by cells that gradually move outward from stratum basale

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10
Q

2 types of stratum corneum

A

Thin skin and thick skin

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11
Q

Thin skin is part of which epidermal layer? Give example of thin skin.

A

Stratum corneum

Anterior abdominal wall, eyelids

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12
Q

Thick skin is part of which epidermal layer? Give example of thick skin.

A

Stratum corneum

Palm of hands, soles of feet

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13
Q

Describe the intermediate basal layers of epidermis

A

Cells from stratum basale come to these basal layers to transform into keratinized cells

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14
Q

Describe stratum basale

A

Deepest layer of epidermis

Constant mitotic activity (cells always being made)

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15
Q

Name the specialized cells of epidermis

A

Stratum basale

  1. Melanocytes
  2. Langerhands cells
  3. Merkel cells
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16
Q

Function of melanocytes

A

Located in stratum basale.

Produce melanin pigments that protect deeper tissue layers from UV rays

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17
Q

Function of Langerhan cells

A

Located in intermediate basal layer (stratum spinosum).

Macrophages that eat antigens and activate immune system.

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18
Q

Function of Merkel cells

A

Located in stratum basale.

Type of sensory receptor for touch. Transmits info to sensory nerve endings in underlying dermis.

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19
Q

What do keratinocytes do?

A

They make up most of epidermis and responsible for:

  1. Waterproof barrier
  2. Barrier against friction
  3. Antibacterial properties
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20
Q

How does dermis give nutrients to epidermis?

A

Diffusion

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21
Q

2 dermal layers

A
  1. Papillary layer

2. Reticular layer

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22
Q

Where and what is the significance of papillary layer?

A

Located in dermis.

  1. Anchors epidermis to dermis using dermal papillae and epidermal ridges
  2. Contains vascular loops and nerve endings
  3. Diffusion
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23
Q

Where and what is the significance of reticular layer?

A

Located in dermis.

  1. Can see cleavage lines/tension lines/Langer’s lines
  2. Makes up 75% of dermal layer
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24
Q

Significance of cleavage lines/tension lines/Langer’s lines?

A

The lines correspond to natural orientation of collage fibers and are generally parallel to orientation of underlying muscle fibers.

Useful for when doctor’s need to cut through skin. They wanna cut according to the lines to help healing go faster.

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25
Q

True/False: Hypodermis is part of skin

A

False!

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26
Q

Where is hypodermis located?

A

It’s a loose CT located btwn dermis and fascia of bones

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27
Q

Hypodermis functions

A
  1. Helps thermoregulate and insulate

2. Cushions bony structure/absorbs shock

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28
Q

Derivative appendages of epidermal layer include…

A
  1. Nails
  2. Hair
  3. Sebaceous glands
  4. Sweat glands
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29
Q

Hair, subaceous glands, and sweat glands located in which layer of skin?

A

Dermis

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30
Q

Nails are derived from which epidermal layer?

A

Stratum corneum

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31
Q

Hair is derived from which epidermal layer?

A

Stratum basale

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32
Q

Sebaceous glands derived from which epidermal layer?

A

Stratum basale

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33
Q

Sweat glands derived from which epidermal layer?

A

Stratum basale

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34
Q

Arrector pili muscles associated w/ which appendage and does what?

A

These smooth muscles are associated w/ hair bc it helps hair stand.

That’s why we get “goosebumps”

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35
Q

How does innervation to skin travel?

A

Travels to and from spinal cord via spinal nerves and their branches, the dorsal and ventral rami.

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36
Q

What are dermatomes?

A

An area of skin that is supplied sensory/cutaneous branches from a single spinal nerve.

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37
Q

All innervation to skin comes from which skin layer?

A

Dermis

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38
Q

Sensory fibers from cutaneous nerves do what?

A

Convey sensation from skin to CNS

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39
Q

Sympathetic fibers from cutaneous nerves do what?

A

Innervate sweat glands, arrector pili muscles, and blood vessels

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40
Q

Skin cancers derive from cells of which skin layer?

A

Epidermis

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41
Q

Name two types of skin cancer tumors

A
  1. Basal cell carcinomas

2. Melanomas

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42
Q

Basal cell carinomas are…

A

tumors of keratinocytes of stratum basale

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43
Q

Which skin cancer is easiest to treat? Which is deadliest? Why?

A

Basal cell carcinomas contained in epidermis,
rarely spreads to other tissues (easiest)

Melanomas can spread beyond epidermis into dermis, and metastasize into lymphatic system (deadliest)

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44
Q

Melanomas are…

A

tumors of melanocytes of epidermis

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45
Q

Common cause of melanomas

A

Excessive UV radiation exposure

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46
Q

Classify burns based on how many layers of tissue are injured

A

1st degree: epidermis damaged, not destroyed

2nd degree: epidermis destroyed and also some dermis

3rd degree: epidermis and dermis destroyed, can extend into hypodermis

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47
Q

1st degree burns characteristics

A

Red, swollen, painful, but not serious. Will heal w/o scarring.

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48
Q

2nd degree burns characteristics

A

Blisters, wet/weeping, extremely painful, scarring after healing

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49
Q

3rd degree burns characteristics

A

Dry, not painful. Cannot heal, needs grafting.

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50
Q

The general phases of wound healing are called

A
  1. Inflammation
  2. Repair and proliferation
  3. Remodeling
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51
Q

What happens during the inflammation phase of wound healing?

A

First 4 days, lots of edema.

Fluid leaks from dermal blood vessels to allow migration of many immune cells to site of wound.

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52
Q

What happens during the repair/proliferation phase of wound healing?

A

Wound contracts and damaged edges of skin start to move closer together.
Epithelial cells proliferate to cover wound; fibroblasts make collagen to close wound and makes a scar.

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53
Q

What happens during the remodeling phase of wound healing?

A

The scar tissue will start to change to match surrounding tissues.

This happens through induction by neighboring tissues and also due to tension on scar.

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54
Q

OT interventions for wound healing process

A
  1. Apply PRESSURE to wound to prevent excessive abrasive forces from re-opening wound and reduce excess collagen production.
  2. STRETCHING collagen fibers to preserve/extend ROM and prevent contraction of scar.
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55
Q

Nervous tissue consists of

A
  1. Neurons

2. Neuroglia

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56
Q

What are neurons?

A

Functional cells of nervous system that conduct electrical impulses

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57
Q

What are neuroglia?

A

Cells that support and protect neurons

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58
Q

2 types of neurons based off of the info they carry:

A
  1. Sensory/afferent neurons

2. Motor/efferent neurons

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59
Q

Sensory neurons

A

Neurons that send info from body to the brain

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60
Q

Motor neurons

A

Neurons that send info from brain to body

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61
Q

Two major types of nervous system

A
  1. Central

2. Peripheral

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62
Q

CNS consists of

A

Brain and spinal cord

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63
Q

PNS consists of

A

Ganglia

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64
Q

Somatic sensory signal

A

Touch, pain, temp, pressure, vibration, proprioception

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65
Q

Somatic sensory target

A

Skin, body wall, limbs

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66
Q

Visceral sensory signal

A

Stretch, pain, temp, irritation, nausea, hunger

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67
Q

Visceral sensory target

A

Organs

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68
Q

Somatic motor signal

A

Motor info

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69
Q

Somatic motor target

A

Skeletal muscles

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70
Q

Visceral motor/autonomic signal

A

Motor info

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71
Q

Visceral motor/autonomic target

A

Cardiac, muscle, smooth muscle, glands

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72
Q

Neurons consist of

A

Cell body
Dendrites
Axons
Synapse

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73
Q

A group of cell bodies in CNS is called

A

Nuclei

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74
Q

A group of cell bodies in PNS is called

A

Ganglia

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75
Q

Cell body of neuron contains

A

Nucleus and organelles

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76
Q

Dendrites of neuron contains

A

Receptors of electrical impulses bringing them to cell body

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77
Q

Axons of neurons are

A

processes that carry electrical impulses away from cell body (only one axon/neuron)

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78
Q

Synapse of neuron is

A

A site where one neuron communicates with another neuron

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79
Q

Three types of neurons based off of their structure

A
  1. Multipolar neuron
  2. Unipolar neuron
  3. Bipolar neuron
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80
Q

Multipolar neuron characteristics

A

Many dendrites on cell body and a single axoin

Generally acts as motor or integration neurons.

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81
Q

Unipolar neuron charcateristics

A

Have one short process that connects to a central process and a peripheral process (that make an axon). Has no dendrites.

Conducts sensory info.

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82
Q

Bipolar neuron characteristics

A

Have single axon and single dendrite from cell body.

RARE and found in specific spots of body (ear, eye, nose)

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83
Q

Nerves v. Neurons

A

They’re NOT synonymous!

Neuron: a single cell found in brain, spinal cord, and PNS. Conduct nerve impulses

Nerves: made from group of neurons only in PNS; transmit info to parts of body

Neurons are in the brain

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84
Q

Action potential

A

Electrical impulses that travel along neurons

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85
Q

Where can you find the spinal cord in the vertebral body?

A

Vertebral canal

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86
Q

Conus medullaris

A

The terminal portion of the spinal cord

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87
Q

Cervical and lumbar enlargements

A

The part of the spinal cord where the diameter is bigger b/c of increased neural input/output (plexuses).

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88
Q

Segments of spinal nerves

A 
8 cervical spinal nerves
12 thoracic spinal nerves
5 lumbar spinal nerves
5 sacral spinal nerves
1 coccygeal spinal nerves
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89
Q

Cauda equina

A

Elongated nerve rootlets where the more caudal nerve roots (esp at lumbar and sacral region) run in almost vertical direction to reach appropriate intervertebral foramina

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90
Q

Spinal cord made up of two components

A
  1. White matter

2. Gray matter

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91
Q

White matter consists of and does what

A

Myelinated nerve fibers that run up and down spinal cord to convey info btwn CNS and spinal cord

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92
Q

Gray matter consists of what

A

Consists of cell bodies of neurons, their dendrites, and proximal parts of axons.

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93
Q

Gray matter divided into

A 
Dorsal horns (posterior grey column)
Ventral horns (anterior grey column)
Grey commissure
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94
Q

Dorsal horns in gray matter contains

A

Cell bodies of interneurons that talk w/ incoming sensory nerve fibers

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95
Q

Ventral horns in gray matter contains

A

Large somatic motor neuron cell bodies along whose axons impulses are sent to striated, skeletal muscles

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96
Q

Gray commissure contains

A

Part of gray matter.

Contains nerve fibers connecting right and left halves of spinal cord.

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97
Q

Spinal cord has hollow tube filled w/

A

Cerebrospinal fluid

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98
Q

The spinal nerves, T1-S5, are associated w/ the vertebral body/pedicle they pass (inferiorly / superiorly) to.

A

Inferiorly

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99
Q

The spinal nerves, C1-C7, are associated w/ the body/pedicle they pass (inferiorly / superiorly) to.

A

Superiorly

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100
Q

Cell bodies of motor neurons in ventral horns and lateral horns send axons OUT of spinal cord through the _________.

A

Ventral rootlets

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101
Q

Interneurons in dorsal horn receive sensory fiber info INTO spinal cord through the _________.

A

Dorsal rootlets

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102
Q

Ventral rootlets converge to form

A

Ventral roots, carrying motor fibers (both somatic and autonomic)

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103
Q

Dorsal rootlets converge to form

A

Dorsal roots, carrying sensory fibers

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104
Q

True/False: Dorsal roots/rootlets cannot carry BOTH motor or sensory fibers

A

True!

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105
Q

The dorsal and ventral roots join at the ________ and, from there, the motor and sensory fibers mix together at the spinal nerve

A

Intervertebral foramen

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106
Q

When the mixed spinal nerve pass through intervertebral foramen, it makes 2 branches:

A
  1. Dorsal ramus

2. Ventral ramus

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107
Q

Dorsal ramus

A

Supply sensory and motor fibers to the INTRINSIC back muscles and skin along dorsum of neck and trunk.

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108
Q

Ventral ramus

A

Carries motor and sensory fibers to everything else that the dorsal ramus doesn’t carry to (except the head).

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109
Q

Some ventral rami interconnect w/ each other to form 3 plexuses:

A
  1. Cervical plexus (C1-C4): innervates structures in neck
  2. Brachial plexus (C5-T1): innervates upper limb
  3. Lumbosacral plexus (L4-S2/3): innervates lower limb
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110
Q

Dorsal root ganglia contains these fibers/cell body types:

A
  1. Somatic sensory

2. Visceral sensory

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111
Q

Ventral horn contains this fibers/cell body types:

A

Somatic motor

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112
Q

Lateral horn (T1-L2) contains this fibers/cell body types:

A

Preganglioninc sympathetic

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113
Q

Sympathetic chain ganglia or collateral ganglia contains this fibers/cell body types:

A

Postganglionic sympathetic

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114
Q

Brainstem or lateral horn of gray matter (S2-S4) contains this fibers/cell body types:

A

Preganglionic parasympathetic

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115
Q

Terminal ganglia contains this fibers/cell body types:

A

Postganglionic parasympathetic

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116
Q

Spinal disc herniation

A

A tear in the outer, fibrous ring (annulus fibrosus) of an intervertebral disc allows the soft, central portion (nucleus pulposus) to bulge out beyond the damaged outer rings

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117
Q

For disc herniations, how do we know which spinal nerve is being affected?

A

The nerve that is compressed is named after the second intervertebral disc.

Ex: If L4/L5 disc is herniated; L5 spinal nerve is affected

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118
Q

Which spinal nerve does NOT have sensory fibers that distribute to areas of skin?

A

C1

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119
Q

C2 is the landmark for which dermatome?

A

Back of head

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120
Q

T4 is the landmark for which dermatome?

A

Nipples

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121
Q

T10 is the landmark for which dermatome?

A

Umbilicus

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122
Q

T12 is the landmark for which dermatome?

A

Suprapubic

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123
Q

What are shingles?

A

A viral disease that takes advantage of axonal transport (from sensory neurons to skin). Stems from childhood infection (chicken pox) where virus is transported from skin lesions to cell bodies of dorsal root ganglion. When immune system is weakened, the viruses multiply and come back through sensory axons to skin. This causes rash!

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124
Q

What’s the singles virus called and where does it stay?

A

Varicella-zoster virus stays in dorsal root ganglion w/ somatic sensory/visceral sensory cells

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125
Q

Meninges

A

Encloses brain and spinal cord w/ its 3 CT layers and gives protection and support of CNS

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126
Q

Meningeal layers

A
  1. Dura mater
  2. Arachnoid layer
  3. Pia mater
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127
Q

Dura mater

A

Outermost meningeal investment made of dense collagen.

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128
Q

What’s the space btwn the vertebral canal and dura mater called and what does it do?

A

Epidural space allows for movement of vertebral column w/o affecting spinal cord

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129
Q

What’s the epidural space filled with?

A

Fatty tissue and a venous plexus

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130
Q

How is the dura mater in the skull different than the other parts?

A

There’s no epidural space; instead, it’s fused w/ inner layer of periosteum

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131
Q

Arachnoid layer

A

Intermediate meningeal investment made of loose CT

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132
Q

What’s the space btwn the dura mater and arachnoid layer called?

A

Subdural space

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133
Q

What’s the space btwn the arachnoid layer and pia mater called?

A

Subarachnoid space

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134
Q

What’s the subarachnoid space filled with?

A

Cerebrospinal fluid

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135
Q

What does the cerebrospinal fluid do?

A

Provides brain and spinal cord buoyancy for CNS since these things suck at holding up their own weight

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136
Q

Pia mater

A

Loose CT that invests brain and spinal cord and its nerve roots. Blood vessels going on the brain or spinal cord travel within this layer!

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137
Q

Denticulate ligament

A

Attachment that extends from both sides of pia mater and attaches to arachnoid layer and dura mater. Helps suspend the cord within the subarachnoid space.

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138
Q

Terminal filum

A

Thin strand of pia mater extends from conus medullaris and anchors the spinal cord in the dural sac.

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139
Q

Lumbar puncture or spinal tap

A

A medical procedure in which a needle is inserted into the subarachnoid space of spinal canal (usually made in the midline between L3/L4 or L4/L5), most commonly to collect cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for diagnostic testing.

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140
Q

3 layers of muscle make up thoracic body wall

A
  1. External intercostal muscles
  2. Internal intercostal muscles
  3. Innermost intercostal muscles
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141
Q

Intercostal muscles function

A

Maintain appropriate spacing btwn ribs during respiration

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142
Q

Neurovascular bundle consists of and is located in

A

Consists of intercostal nerve, artery, and vein

One bundle located btwn internal and innermost intercostal muscles within intercostal space; another is located btwn transversus abdominisc and internal oblique muscles.

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143
Q

Intercostal nerves are extensions of

A

Ventral rami of T1-T11

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144
Q

Thoracic body wall gets blood from

A

Intercostal arteries and veins

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145
Q

Abdominal body muscles functions

A

Retain, support, compress abdominal viscera

Function in movements of trunk.

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146
Q

3 muscles that form major portion of anterolateral abdominal wall, but their muscle fibers do not completely encircle the trunk

A
  1. External abdominal oblique
  2. Internal abdominal oblique
  3. Transversus abdominis
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147
Q

Linea semilunaris

A

A curved tendinous intersection found on either side of the rectus abdominis muscle.

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148
Q

What is aponeurosis and its function?

A

Flat, broad tendons that joins muscles and the body parts the muscles act on, whether it be bone or muscles

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149
Q

Linea alba

A

Runs from xiphoid process of sternum to pubic symphysis. It’s formed by fusion of aponeuroses of abdomen and it separates the left and right rectus abdominis muscles.

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150
Q

External abdominal oblique attaches to

A
  • Last seven ribs
  • Crest of ilium
  • Linea alba
  • Inguinal ligament
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151
Q

External abdominal oblique actions

A

Bilaterally: flexion; compression
Unilaterally: lateral flexion (SAME side); rotation (OPPOSITE side)

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152
Q

External abdominal oblique innervation

A

Ventral rami of T5-T12

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153
Q

Internal abdominal oblique attaches to

A
  • Lumbar vertebrae (thoracolumbar aponeurosis)
  • Crest of ilium
  • Lateral 1/2 of inguinal ligament
  • Linea alba
  • Last 7 ribs
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154
Q

Internal abdominal oblique actions

A

Bilaterally: flexion; compression
Unilaterally: lateral flexion (SAME side); rotation (SAME side)

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155
Q

Internal abdominal oblique innervation

A

Ventral rami of T6-L1

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156
Q

Transversus abdominis attachments

A
  • Last 7 ribs
  • Lumbar vertebrae (thoracolumbar aponeurosis)
  • Crest of ilium
  • Lateral 1/2 of inguinal ligament
  • Linea alba
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157
Q

Transversus abdominis action

A

Compression

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158
Q

Transversus abdomins innervation

A

Ventral rami of T6-L1

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159
Q

Rectus abdominis attachments

A
  • Pubic symphysis and pubic crest
  • Xiphoid process
  • 5th and 7th costal cartilages
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160
Q

Rectus abdominis actions

A

Flexion

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161
Q

Rectus abdominis innervation

A

Ventral rami of T6-T12

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162
Q

Rectus sheath is formed by

A

the aponeurosis of external oblique, internal oblique, and transversus abdominis

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163
Q

What’s the “6-pack” muscle?

A

A vertically oriented muscle called rectus abdominis

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164
Q

What gives the rectus abdominis its “6-pack” feature and what does it do?

A

Tendinous inscriptions anchor rectus abdominis to rectus sheath

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165
Q

Arcuate line

A

A horizontal line that demarcates the lower limit of the posterior layer of the rectus sheath. It is also where the inferior epigastric vessels perforate the rectus abdominis.

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166
Q

What does the arcuate line help do?

A

Provides collateral circulation and communication around abdomen and to lower limbs.

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167
Q

Abdominal wall muscles are innervated by

A

Ventral rami of lower thoracic

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168
Q

Inguinal ligament

A

Band running from the pubic tubercle to the anterior superior iliac spine. It’s the base for the inguinal canal

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169
Q

Superficial inguinal ring

A

It’s the “opening” end of the canal in the aponeurosis of the external oblique that acts as the “exit” of a passageway in the abdominal wall

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170
Q

Inguinal canal

A

Passages in the anterior wall goes which convey spermatic cord (in men) or round ligament (in women)

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171
Q

In males, what passes through inguinal canal and where does it go?

A

In males, spermatic cord passes through inguinal canal from abdomen to scrotum.

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172
Q

In females, what passes through inguinal canal and where does it go?

A

In females, round ligament passes through inguinal canal and continues to labia majora.

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173
Q

Inguinal hernia

A

Protrusion of a loop of bowel through inguinal canal.

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174
Q

Why is inguinal hernia more common in males than females

A

Because males have a bigger superficial inguinal ring than females.

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175
Q

Femoral hernia

A

A portion of tissue pushes through the wall of the femoral canal.

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176
Q

Why is femoral hernia more common in females than males?

A

Pregnancy and childbirth

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177
Q

Two groups of back muscles

A
  1. Extrinsic back muscles

2. Intrinsic back muscles

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178
Q

Extrinsic back muscles move what?

A

Upper limb (not the trunk)

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179
Q

Intrinsic back muscles move what?

A

Axial skeleton

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180
Q

Extrinsic back muscles include

A
  1. Trapezius
  2. Latissimus dorsi
  3. Rhomboids
  4. Serratus posterior inferior
  5. Thoracolumbar aponeurosis
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181
Q

Extrinsic back muscles are innervated by

A

Cranial nerves or branches of ventral rami of cervical spinal nerves

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182
Q

Intrinsic back muscles are innervated by

A

Dorsal rami of spinal nerves

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183
Q

Trapezius is innervated by

A

Cranial nerve XI (spinal accessory nerve)

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184
Q

Trapezius attaches to

A

Nuchal region of cranium

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185
Q

Trapezius actions

A

Extension

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186
Q

Latissimus dorsi is innervated by

A

Thoracodorsal nerve

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187
Q

Latissimus dorsi attaches to

A

Distal humerus and proximal vertebrae

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188
Q

Latissimus dorsi actions

A

Movement of upper limb

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189
Q

Rhomboids are innervated by

A

Dorsal scapular nerve

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190
Q

Rhomboids attach to

A

Medial scapula and vertebral column

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191
Q

Rhomboids actions

A

Pulls scapula medially

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192
Q

Serratus posterior inferior innervated by

A

Intercostal nerve (T9-T12)

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193
Q

Serratus posterior inferior action

A

Depress lower ribs

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194
Q

Intrinsic back muscles include 3 groups

A
  1. Spinotransversus group
  2. Erector spinae group
  3. Transversospinae group
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195
Q

Intrinsic back muscles main function

A

Maintain erect posture and to stabilize the trunk during movements of the limbs and head.

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196
Q

Intrinsic back muscles fiber is primarily what and why

A

Slow-oxidative bc it keeps you standing

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197
Q

Intrinsic back muscles are invested in what type of fascia and what does it do

A

Thoracolumbar aponeurosis helps muscles maintain erect posture

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198
Q

Spinotransverse group is attached to what and how?

A

Caudal attachments of the spinotransverse group are attached to the spinous processes of vertebrae; cranial attachments are attached to the transverse processes of vertebrae.

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199
Q

Spinotransverse group muscles include

A

Splenius

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200
Q

Spinotransverse group (splenius) actions

A

Bilaterally: extension
Unilaterally: lateral flexion (SAME side); rotation (SAME side)

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201
Q

Erector spinae group muscles include

A
  1. Iliocostalis
  2. Longissimus
  3. Spinalis
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202
Q

Erector spinae group (ILS) actions

A

Bilaterally: extension
Unilaterally: lateral flexion (SAME side)

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203
Q

Transversospinae group muscles include

A
  1. Semispinalis
  2. Rotatores
  3. Multifidus
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204
Q

Transversospinae (SRM) actions

A

Bilaterally: extension
Unilaterally: rotation (OPPOSITE side)

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205
Q

Transversospinae group attachments

A

Attachments of these muscles run from more caudal transverse processes to more cranial spinous processes

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206
Q

What muscle divides the posterior and anterior cervical triangles of the neck?

A

Sternocleidomastoid

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207
Q

Sternocleidomastoid receives innervation from

A

Spinal accessory nerve (CN XI)

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208
Q

Sternocleidomastoid actions

A

Unilaterally: rotates head (to OPPOSITE side); lateral flexion of head (to SAME side)
Bilaterally: extension at atlanto-occipital joint; flexion at other cervial jointssup

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209
Q

Hyoid bone articulates with…

A

no other bone.

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210
Q

What are the three triangles of the neck?

A
  1. Anterior cervical triangle
  2. Posterior cervical triangle
  3. Suboccipital triangle
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211
Q

Torticollis

A

“Wry neck”: shortening of sternocleidomastoid; neck is laterally flexed one side, rotated

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212
Q

Which hyoid muscles are considered “two belly” muscles?

A

Omohyoid and digastic

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213
Q

Suprahyoid (digastric) action

A

Moves head up

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214
Q

Infrahyoid (omohyoid) action

A

Moves hyoid down

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215
Q

3 scalene muscles

A
  1. Anterior scalene
  2. Middle scalene
  3. Posterior scalene
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216
Q

Scalene attachments

A

Cranial attachments are to the transverse processes of cervical vertebrae. Caudal attachments are to the first rib (scalenus anterior) or the second rib (scalenus medius and posterior).

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217
Q

Scalene actions

A

Bilaterally: flexion, flex neck
Unilaterally: lateral flexion (SAME side)

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218
Q

Which muscles are affected by whiplash?

A

Longus colli and longus capitis

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219
Q

Longus colli and capitis action

A

Bilaterally: flexion

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220
Q

Longus colli and capitis innervated by

A

Cervical ventral rami

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221
Q

Suboccipital triangle muscles:

A
  1. Rectus capitis posterior major
  2. Obliquus capitis superior
  3. Obliquus capitis inferior
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222
Q

Suboccipital triangle actions:

A

Extension (rectus capitis and obliquus capitis superior)hy

Rotation (to SAME side) (obliquus capitis inferior)

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223
Q

Suboccipital triangle innervation

A

Suboccipital nerve (C1 dorsal ramus)

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224
Q

What’s whiplash?

A

Sudden hyperextension-hyperflexion of neck that causes muscle strain.

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225
Q

What are the severe effects of whiplash?

A

You can tear ligament of spinous processes; you can crush vertebral disc

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226
Q

Sagittal plane corresponds with which axis?

A

Transverse axis

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227
Q

Coronal plane corresponds with which axis?

A

Anterior-posterior axis

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228
Q

Transverse plane corresponds with which axis?

A

Vertical axis

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229
Q

Examples of long bones

A

Long shafts such as femur, humerus, radius, ulna, tibia, etc

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230
Q

Examples of short bones

A

Carpals and tarsals

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231
Q

Examples of flat bones

A

Parietal, occipital, frontal

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232
Q

Examples of irregular bones

A

Vertebrae, os coxa

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233
Q

3 basic components of connective tissue

A

Cells, fibers, and ground substance

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234
Q

2 basic components of extracellular matrix

A

Fibers and ground substance

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235
Q

Cartilage and bone have roles in hemopoesis and as a calcium reserve, but their main role is to provide _______________ for the body with their rigid extracellular matrix.

A

Support

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236
Q

Cartilage cells include

A

Chondrocytes

Chondroblasts

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237
Q

Bone cells include

A

Osteocytes
Osteoblasts
Osteoclasts

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238
Q

Cartilage is composed of this fiber

A

Type II collagen

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239
Q

Bone is composed of this fiber

A

Type I collagen

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240
Q

Ground substance of cartilage is rich in this proteoglycan

A

Aggrecan

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241
Q

Ground substance of bone is rich in _______________ proteins.

A

Non-collagenous

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242
Q

Bone is surrounded by

A

calcium phosphate (mineralized extracellular matrix)

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243
Q

3 cartilage types

A
  1. Hyaline
  2. Elastic
  3. Fibrocartilage
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244
Q

What does hyaline cartilage consist of?

A

Type II collagen

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245
Q

What does elastic cartilage consist of?

A

Elastic fibers

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246
Q

What does fibrocartilage consist of?

A

Type I and II collagen

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247
Q

Hyaline cartilage trait

A

Resistant to compression

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248
Q

Elastic cartilage trait

A

Flexible

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249
Q

Fibcrocartilage

A

Resists deformation; assists repair

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250
Q

Where is hyaline cartilage found?

A

Joint surfaces, developing skeleton, thorax

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251
Q

Where is elastic cartilage found?

A

Ear, auditory tube

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252
Q

Where is fibrocartilage found?

A

Intervertebral discs and knee menisci

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253
Q

Where in the cartilage extracellular matrix are chondrocytes found?

A

Lacunae

254
Q

What is aggrecan?

A

A hydrophilic protein in ground substance that helps maintain the structure of cartilage.

255
Q

Cartilage is avascular. This means nutrients have to get chondrocytes via diffusion. What are two limitations of this means of receiving nutrients?

A
  1. Size of cartilage–can’t be too big

2. Limit on healing of damaged cartilage–not the most efficient

256
Q

Interstitial growth

A

Growth from within.

257
Q

Appositional growth

A

Growth from outside by adding to surface layer

258
Q

Most cartilage is invested in this dense layer of connective tissue called _______.

A

Perichondrium

259
Q

Chondrogenic layer

A

The inner layer of perichondrium with cells that have the potential to become chondroblasts.

260
Q

Where is perichondrium NOT found?

A

Articular, hyaline cartilage surfaces of synovial jointss

261
Q

How do nutrients diffuse to chondrocytes?

A

Chondrocytes within their lacunae receive nutrients via diffusion through ground substance from vessels located in surrounding cartilage.

262
Q

How does interstitial growth work in cartilage?

A

Chondroblasts divding and secreting extracellular matrix within cartilage

263
Q

How does appositional growth work in cartilage?

A

Perichondral cells differentiating into chondroblasts and secreting ECM

264
Q

Osteocytes are located where in the extracellular matrix?

A

Lacunae

265
Q

Osteocytes

A

Maintain bone tissue; communicate through canaliculi

266
Q

Osteoblasts

A

Secretes ECM; becomes an osteoblast once it is surrounded by ECM

267
Q

Osteoclasts

A

Resorbs bone cells; multinucleated

268
Q

_____ marrow is hemopoetic

A

Red

269
Q

_____ marrow is fat

A

Yellow

270
Q

Periosteum surrounds what structure?

A

Bone

271
Q

What lines the inside of the bone?

A

Endosteum

272
Q

Endosteum consists of one layer–what is it?

A

Cellular layer

273
Q

Periosteum consists of two layers–what are they?

A

A fibrous layer and cellular layer

274
Q

Trabecular bone is found in ends of long bones and vertebral bodies bc why?

A

Those areas receive multiaxial loads

275
Q

How do osteocytes in trabecular bone get nutrients and communicate?

A

Nutrients diffuse through marrow space btwn trabeculae, and go through canaliculi open to marrow space. From first osteocyte, the nutrients travel through canaliculi to adjacent osteocytes.

276
Q

What happens if there is unused trabecular bone?

A

Osteoclasts resorb it for calcium bc, otherwise, the bone is high maintenance.

277
Q

What is the result of the means of receiving nutrients on the size of an individual trabecula?

A

Trabecula cannot be too big bc the nutrients have to reach osteocyte before it is diminished

278
Q

Purpose of having Haversian/Osteon systems in cortical bone

A

It allows cortical bone to be further from marrow space while still letting nutrients to reach cells via diffusion through canaliculi

279
Q

General mechanism for osteoporosis

A

Osteoclasts resorb bone faster than osteoblasts create new bone. This loss of bone mass makes bone more susceptible to fractures.

280
Q

Cortical bone found in

A

Shafts of long bones or as outer shell of bone

281
Q

What’s a Diploe bone?

A

Cortical bone on either side of trabecular bone–makes a sandwich

282
Q

Bone can grow appositionally or interstitially?

A

Appositionally

283
Q

How can we avoid osteoporosis?

A

Diet rich in calcium and also do exercise

284
Q

Osteogenic layer

A

The inner, cellular layer of periosteum which can form new bone.

285
Q

Where in the bone is marrow found in cortical bone?

A

Medullary cavity

286
Q

Haversian canal/central canal

A

Canals of osteons which contain blood vessels that supply nutrients for osteocytes in lacunae.

287
Q

2 types of bone growth

A
  1. Intramembranous ossification

2. Endochondral ossification

288
Q

Intramembranous ossification

A

CT membrane precursor exists in same spot the resulting bone will be in. Osteoblasts are recruited to a particular spot on the membrane and they use the membrane as a surface to lay down bone

289
Q

What bones are created via intramembranous ossification?

A

Flat skull bones and ribs

290
Q

How does skull grow to accommodate brain increasing in size during development?

A

Bone added to outside of skull and removed from inside of skull simultaneously.

291
Q

5 steps of endochondral ossification

A
  1. Periosteum at midshaft makes osteoblasts that make bony collar
  2. Cartilage at primary ossification center breaks down
  3. Blood vessels invade medullary cavity and bring in osteoblasts and osteoclasts
  4. Blood vessels invade end bones to make secondary ossification centers
  5. Growth in length occurs at growth plate
292
Q

5 epiphyseal plate zones

A
  1. Resting/reserve
  2. Proliferation
  3. Hypertrophic
  4. Calcification
  5. Ossification
293
Q

What is the resting/reserve zone of epiphyseal plate?

A

All chondrocytes found in this zone at epiphyseal end

294
Q

Epiphysis

A

Cartilaginous ends of long bones

295
Q

Diaphysis

A

Shaft of long bones

296
Q

What is the proliferation zone of epiphyseal plate?

A

Chondrocytes undergo rapid mitosis

297
Q

What is the hypertrophy zone of epiphyseal plate?

A

Chondrocytes stop mitosis and undergo hypertrophy by getting bigger and bigger

298
Q

What is the calcification zone of epiphyseal plate?

A

Chondrocytes start to die and the cartilaginous matrix starts to calcify

299
Q

What is the ossification zone of epiphyseal plate?

A

Osteoclasts and osteoblasts from diaphysis break down cartilage and replace w/ mineralized bone tissue. Growth plate closes.

300
Q

What kind of growth is the proliferation zone of eipiphyseal plate?

A

Interstitial growth

301
Q

What kind of growth is the hypertrophy zone of eipiphyseal plate?

A

Interstitial growth

302
Q

What kind of growth is the ossification zone of eipiphyseal plate?

A

Appositional growth

303
Q

Epiphyseal plate

A

Growth plate. Where growth in length occurs.

304
Q

How is trabecular bone remodeled?

A

Appositionally. Osteoclasts eat bone, osteoblasts make new one.

305
Q

How is cortical bone remodeled?

A

Osteocyte tells group of osteoclasts to eat through the old osteons of bone and then tells group of osteoblasts to follow osteoclasts to create new osteons.

306
Q

4 bone repair steps

A
  1. Hematoma formation
  2. Fibrocartilaginous callus (unorganized)
  3. Bony callus (unorganized)
  4. Bone remodeling (osteoclasts and osteoblasts remodel to create optimal structure for loads placed on bones)
307
Q

What specialized CT is important for bone repair?

A

Periosteum

308
Q

Osteoblasts arrange themselves in concentric layers of cortical bone around the central canal called

A

Lamellae

309
Q

Synarthrosis

A

Joints that do not move.

310
Q

Amphiarthrosis

A

Joints that move a little.

311
Q

Diarthrosis

A

Joints that move freely.

312
Q

3 kinds of joint structures

A
  1. Fibrous
  2. Cartilaginous
  3. Synovial
313
Q

Fibrous joints

A
  1. Bones held together by dense CT
  2. No joint cavity
  3. Little to no movement
314
Q

3 major types of fibrous joints

A
  1. Sutures
  2. Gomphosis
  3. Interosseous membranes
315
Q

Cartilaginous joints

A
  1. Bone united by cartilage
  2. No joint cavity
  3. Slight movement
316
Q

2 types of cartilage that can unite bones of cartilaginous joints

A
  1. Hyaline cartilage

2. Fibrocartilage

317
Q

The pubic symphysis and intervertebral discs have this kind of joint

A

A type of cartilaginous joint called fibrocartilage

318
Q

Synovial joints

A
  1. Bones united by joint capsule
  2. Has joint cavity
  3. Free movement usually
319
Q

What is the joint cavity on synovial joints?

A

Cavity filled w/ lubricating synovial fluid to minimize friction btwn articulating surfaces of adjacent bones

320
Q

Explain how weeping lubrication works in synovial joints?

A

When synovial fluid is not in use due to lack of pressure on joints, it is taken up into articular cartilage. Once under compression, synovial fluid is squeezed out of articular cartilage into the joint cavity to facilitate lubrication of joint during movement.

321
Q

Why can’t hyaline cartilage (like those lined on articular surfaces of bones at synovial joints) heal if damaged?

A

Lack of perichondrium means lack of chondroblasts to create new cartilage cells.

322
Q

_____ are passive stabilizers because they work without actively contracting.

A

Ligaments

323
Q

6 categories of synovial joints by shape

A
  1. Ball and socket
  2. Condyloid
  3. Gliding
  4. Hinge
  5. Pivot
  6. Saddle
324
Q

Articular surface of bones at synovial joints is lined with what type of cartilage?

A

Hyaline

325
Q

How does articular cartilage in a synovial joint receive nutrients?

A

Nutrition and waste removal occurs by diffusion from the underlying bone and from the synovial fluid in the joint cavity

326
Q

Classify plane (gliding) joint by its degree of movement

A

Multiaxial

327
Q

Classify hinge joint by its degree of movement

A

Uniaxial

328
Q

Classify condyloid joint by its degree of movement

A

Biaxial

329
Q

Classify saddle joint by its degree of movement

A

Multiaxial

330
Q

Classify ball-and-socket joint by its degree of movement

A

Multiaxial

331
Q

How can you tell when a ligament is limiting movement?

A

Whatever movement puts tension on the ligament is the movement being limited by that ligament.

332
Q

Intracapsular ligaments

A

Inside joint cavity

333
Q

Capsular ligaments

A

Thickenings of joint capsule

334
Q

Extracapsular ligaments

A

Stabilize joint but are located outside the joint and joint capsule.

335
Q

Interarticular discs

A

Fibrocartilaginous disks interposed between the articular surfaces of synovial joints. Can make the skeletal elements more congruous w/ each other or may facilitate movement by increasing the ROM of joint

336
Q

Bursae

A

Closed sacs of synovial membrane filled w/ synovial fluid that help reduce friction btwn bone & tendon and bone & skin.

337
Q

Sprain

A

Extreme stretch or tear of a ligament beyond usual ROM.

338
Q

What’s the difference btwn osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Former is “wear and tear” arthritis and latter is an autoimmune disease that attacks parts of body and causes joint inflammation.

339
Q

3 types of muscles

A
  1. Smooth muscle
  2. Cardiac muscle
  3. Skeletal muscle
340
Q

What do smooth muscles move?

A

Organs and blood vessels

341
Q

What do cardiac muscles move?

A

The heart

342
Q

What do skeletal muscles move?

A

The skeleton

343
Q

How do skeletal muscles attach to stuff?

A

It’s CT components “coalesce” into tendon that continues to the attachment site.

344
Q

Explain the myotendinous junction

A

The muscle forms tendon by converging endomysium, perimysium, and epimysium

345
Q

What’s aponeurosis?

A

A thin, flat sheet of tendon

346
Q

Where can you find aponeuroses?

A

On flat muscles like anterolateral abdominal wall muscles, latissimus dorsi and trapezius.

347
Q

What’s happening in the sarcomere during muscle contraction?

A

Myofilaments, actin and myosin, slide along each other to shorten the muscle.

348
Q

How do muscle fibers receive nutrients and oxygen?

A

Diffusion from blood vessels running in the CT surrounding the muscle.

349
Q

Which muscles are voluntary? Which muscles are not?

A

Skeletal muscles are voluntary. Smooth and cardiac muscles are not voluntary.

350
Q

Which muscle has intercalated discs btwn its adjacent muscle fibers?

A

Cardiac muscle

351
Q

Which muscle is the strongest?

A

Skeletal muscle

352
Q

Which muscle fatigues most easily?

A

Skeletal muscle

353
Q

Sarcomere

A

Unit of contraction of skeletal muscle (contains actin and myosin)

354
Q

Slow-twitch, slow oxidative, or Type 1 fibers

A

Best for sustained, tonic contraction; highly resistant to fatigue; rich supply of oxygen and nutrients for muscle fibers.

355
Q

Fast-twitch, fast glycolytic, or Type 2B fibers

A

Obtain energy via anaerobic glycolysis; rapid access to energy stores; less efficient and sustainable

356
Q

How does anaerobic glygolysis work?

A

Glycogen is converted into lactic acid. Once glycogen is all used, it must replenish and lactic acid must be removed.

357
Q

Fast oxidative fiber or Type 2A fiber

A

Fast-contracting and fatigue-resistant

358
Q

Muscle hypOtrophy

A

Shrinking of muscle fibers, loss of proteins (actin and myosin)

359
Q

What site do nerve fibers terminate on to initiate muscle contraction?

A

Neuromuscular junction

360
Q

4 steps of excitation-contraction coupling for muscle contraction

A
  1. Ach released from axon binds to receptors on sarcolemma
  2. AP generated and goes down t-tubule
  3. Calcium released in sarcoplasmic reticulum
  4. Calcium binds to troponin. Cross bridge forms btwn actin and myosin
361
Q

Motor unit

A

Made up of a motor neuron and the skeletal muscle fibers innervated by that motor neuron’s axonal terminals

362
Q

Recruitment of motor units

A

Gradation in strength of contraction is brought about the excitation of larger and larger numbers of motor units

363
Q

Neuropathies

A

Disorders of the motor nerve cell or its axon

364
Q

Poliomyelitis

A

A viral infection that results in the destruction of motor nerve cell bodies in the spinal cord, followed by atrophy of the associated muscle groups

365
Q

Myasthenia gravis

A

A disorder of the neuromuscular junction that is thought to be due to the presence of antibodies to acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction

366
Q

Myopathies

A

Disorders of the muscle fibers themselves

367
Q

Muscular dystrophy

A

A condition characterized by the destruction/loss of muscle fibers and their replacement by fat and connective tissue

368
Q

Myotonia

A

A “malfunction” of the muscle cell membrane so that there is a prolonged period of contraction

369
Q

Skeletal muscle composed of

A

Muscle fibers and CT

370
Q

Connective tissue investment of the entire muscle

A

Epimysium

371
Q

Connective tissue investment of fascia

A

Perimysium

372
Q

Connective tissue investment of individual muscle fibers

A

Endomysium

373
Q

Fascicle

A

A group of muscle fibers

374
Q

CT component of muscle fibers serve these functions

A
  1. “Skeletal framework”
  2. Allows deformability/stretching
  3. Elasticity/stiffness
  4. Pathway for nerves, blood vessels, and lymphatics
375
Q

Proprioceptive muscle fibers do what

A

Sense position and stretch of muscle and initiate reflexes

376
Q

Muscle hypERtrophy

A

Increase in cross-sectional area of muscle by gaining protein (actin and myosin)

377
Q

2 types of skeletal muscle fiber orientations

A
  1. Oblique

2. Parallel

378
Q

This muscle fiber orientation has a long range of motion

A

Parallel muscle fibers

379
Q

This muscle fiber orientation has a strong force

A

Oblique muscle fibers

380
Q

Types of contraction

A
  1. Concentric
  2. Eccentric
  3. Isometric
381
Q

Concentric contraction

A

Shortening of muscle

Internal force > External resistance

Ex: lifting weight up

382
Q

Eccentric contraction

A

Muscle lengths

Force < resistance

Ex: slowly putting weight down

383
Q

Isometric contraction

A

Muscle length stays same

Force = resistance

Ex: wall sits

384
Q

Prime movers or agonists

A

Muscles that are consistently active in initiating and maintaining a movement

385
Q

Antagonists

A

Muscles that wholly oppose the movement, or initiate and maintain the opposite movement

386
Q

Fixators

A

Prime movers and antagonists contract together

387
Q

Synergists

A

Muscles called upon to “assist” in accomplishing a movement

388
Q

Myofiber is also known as

A

Muscle cells or muscle fibers

389
Q

Loss of proprioception may result in…

A

Loss of reflexes, coordination and tone

390
Q

Loss of motor innervation may result in…

A

Atrophy of muscle fibers

391
Q

Attachment origin

A

Attachment that is fixed (does not move)

392
Q

Attachment insertion

A

Attachment that is mobile (moves)

393
Q

Atlas (C1)

A

Articulate w/ base of skull and have no body or spinous process

394
Q

Axis (C2)

A

Has large prominence on cranial side of its body called dens or odontoid process

395
Q

How many cervical vertebrae?

A

7

396
Q

How many thoracic vertebrae?

A

12

397
Q

How many lumbar vertebrae?

A

5

398
Q

How many sacral vertebrae?

A

4-5

399
Q

How many coccyx vertebrae?

A

3-4 fused

400
Q

What kind of bone are vertebrae made of?

A

Trabecular bone

401
Q

What kind of cartilage surrounds the articular surfaces of vertebral bodies (endplates)?

A

Hyaline cartilage

402
Q

Cervical vertebrae facet joints face which direction?

A

Obliquely

403
Q

Thoracic vertebrae facet joints face which direction?

A

Coronally

404
Q

Which vertebrae looks like a giraffe?

A

Thoracic vertebrae

405
Q

Which vertebrae looks like a moose?

A

Lumbar vertebrae

406
Q

Lumbar vertebrae facet joints face which direction?

A

Sagittally

407
Q

Intervertebral discs consist of these 2 parts:

A
  1. Nucleus pulposus

2. Anulus fibrosus

408
Q

What kind of cartilage is in intervertebral discs?

A

Fibrocartilage

409
Q

Disc herniation

A

Weakness of anulus fibrosis (fibrocartilage) in intervertebral disc combined with force placed on nucleus pulposus (gel).

410
Q

What region and direction is the most common for disc herniations?

A

Lumbar region; posterolateral direction.

411
Q

Anterior longitudinal ligament

A

Ligament that runs down the anterior surface of the spine (from head to coccyx)

412
Q

What movement does the anterior longitudinal ligament prevent?

A

Hyperextension

413
Q

Posterior longitudinal ligament

A

Situated within the vertebral canal, and extends along the posterior surfaces of the bodies of the vertebrae, from the axis to coccyx

414
Q

What movement does the posterior longitudinal ligament prevent?

A

Hyperflexion

415
Q

Ligamentum flava

A

Ligament that runs between the neural arches/laminae of the vertebrae for the length of the column

416
Q

What movement does the ligamentum flava prevent?

A

Hyperflexion

417
Q

Ligamentum nuchae

A

Ligament extended from supraspinous ligament in cervical region and attaches to the skull and serves as an attachment point for neck muscles

418
Q

What movement does the ligamentum nuchae prevent?

A

Hyperflexion

419
Q

Interspinous ligament

A

Ligament positioned between adjacent spinous processes

420
Q

Supraspinous ligament

A

Ligament that runs along the tips of the spinous processes

421
Q

What movement does the interspinous ligament prevent?

A

Hyperflexion

422
Q

What movement does the supraspinous ligament prevent?

A

Hyperflexion

423
Q

Kyphosis

A

Exaggerated thoracic curvature

424
Q

Lordosis

A

Exaggerated lumbar curvature

425
Q

Scoliosis

A

Right thoracic/left lumbar curvature in frontal plane.

426
Q

Which vertebral region(s) can engage in flexion/extension movements?

A

Cervical and lumbar (not thoracic)

427
Q

Which vertebral region(s) can engage in lateral bending movements?

A

Cervical and thoracic (not lumbar)

428
Q

Which vertebral region(s) can engage in rotational movements?

A

Cervical and thoracic (not lumbar)

429
Q

Which joint is the “yes” joint?

A

Atlanto-occipital joint

430
Q

Which joint is the “no” joint?

A

Atlanto-axial joint

431
Q

What does the axial skeleton consist of?

A

Skull, vertebral column, and rib cage

432
Q

Which ligament in vertebral column helps prevent herniated disc?

A

Anterior longitudinal ligament

433
Q

At which level does the first rib articulate with the sternum?

A

Sternoclavicular joint

434
Q

Where does the subarachnoid space end?

A

S2 vertebral level

435
Q

Intervertebral foramen

A

The space between the superior notch of the adjacent vertebra and the inferior notch of the vertebra

436
Q

Which part of the brain is responsible for integrating information (visceral sensations) for the ANS?

A

Hypothalamus

437
Q

This nervous system is considered a 2-neuron system.

A

Autonomic nervous system

438
Q

Primary function of autonomic nervous system

A

Control visceral MOTOR functions that operate “automatically” and are regulated largely without conscious control. NO SENSORY here.

439
Q

The autonomic nervous system is also called

A

The visceromotor system

440
Q

Describe a one-neuron system

A

In the somatic nervous system,

Cell bodies in ventral horn –> Motor innervation of striated skeletal muscle

441
Q

Describe a two-neuron system

A 
In the autonomic nervous system,
First neuron (preganglionic neuron) cell body in the brain stem or lateral horn --> synapses with the second neuron (postganglionic neuron) in the peripheral nervous system --> postganglionic neuron then travels to the target organ and innervates it.
442
Q

Which fibers of the peripheral motor system are heavily myelinated with Schwann cells?

A

Somatomotor fibers (visceromotor fibers are either light myelinated [preganglionic] or not myelinated [postganglionic])

443
Q

2 parts of autonomic nervous system

A
  1. Sympathetic nervous system

2. Parasympathetic nervous system

444
Q

Where are sympathetic preganglionic cell bodies located?

A

Thoracolumbar division (Lateral horns of T1-L2)

445
Q

Where are parasympathetic preganglionic cell bodies located?

A

Craniosacral division (Brainstem or lateral horns of S2-S4)

446
Q

Where are sympathetic postganglionic cell bodies located?

A

Sympathetic chain ganglia and collateral ganglia

447
Q

Where are parasympathetic postganglionic cell bodies located?

A

Terminal ganglia (organ walls)

448
Q

What are the fiber lengths of sympathetic axons?

A

Short preganglionic, long postganglionic

449
Q

What are the fiber lengths of parasympathetic axons?

A

Long preganglionic, short postganglionic

450
Q

Postganglionic neurotransmitter for sympathetic nervous system

A

Norepinephrine

451
Q

Postganglionic neurotransmitter for parasympathetic nervous system

A

Acetylcholine

452
Q

Sympathetic cell bodies use a specialized pathway to distribute out to the entire body. What is this pathway structure called?

A

Sympathetic chain

453
Q

What are sympathetic chain ganglia connected to?

A

Communicating rami (white and gray)

454
Q

What travels through the white communciating ramus?

A

Preganglionic cell bodies

455
Q

What travels through the gray communicating ramus?

A

Postganglionic cell bodies

456
Q

Target organs of sympathetic fibers divided into 2 regions:

A
  1. Body wall (sweat glands, arrector pili muscles or blood vessels in the skin and limbs)
  2. Organs (heart, stomach, bladder, etc)
457
Q

If sympathetic fibers are destined to innervate the body wall, where will they always synapse?

A

Sympathetic chain ganglia

458
Q

If sympathetic fibers are destined to innervate the organs, where will they always synapse?

A

Sympathetic chain ganglia or collateral ganglia

459
Q

Explain the sympathetic pathway for innervating a sweat gland in T4 dermatome.

A
  1. Preganglionic cell body in lateral horn travels to ventral root of T4 spinal nerve
  2. Through the mixed spinal nerve
  3. Through the ventral ramus
  4. Through the white communicating ramus
  5. To the chain ganglion where it synapses on a postglangionic cell body
  6. Postganglionic cell body exits chain ganglion via gray comunicating ramus
  7. Travels to sweat gland in T4 dermatome to innervate it
460
Q

White communicating rami are located at which spinal nerves of the spinal cord?

A

T1-L2

461
Q

Gray communicating rami are located at which spinal nerves of the spinal cord?

A

All spinal nerves

462
Q

Explain the sympathetic pathway for innervating a sweat gland in C7 dermatome.

A
  1. Preganglionic cell body in lateral horn travels to ventral root of spinal nerve
  2. Through the mixed spinal nerve
  3. Through the ventral ramus
  4. Through the white communicating ramus
  5. To the chain ganglion where the fiber ascends to chain ganglion at C7 (by this point the synapse of preganglionic cell body can occur in any of the chain ganglia it goes through as it ascends)
  6. Postganglionic cell body exits chain ganglion via gray comunicating ramus at C7 spinal nerve
  7. Travels to sweat gland in C7 dermatome to innervate it
463
Q

Splanchnic nerves

A

Alternative exit from sympathetic chain (instead of gray communicating rami) for sympathetic pathways to organs

464
Q

Explain the sympathetic pathway for thoracic organs.

A
  1. Preganglionic cell body in lateral horn travels to ventral root of spinal nerve
  2. Through the mixed spinal nerve
  3. Through the ventral ramus
  4. Through the white communicating ramus
  5. To the chain ganglion where the fiber ascends to chain ganglion at cervical level and synapse
  6. Postganglionic cell body exits chain ganglion via cervical splanchnic nerves
  7. Through cardiopulmonary plexus
  8. To organ target (heart and lungs)
465
Q

True or false: There’s a sympathetic chain ganglion at each level of spinal cord.

A

True

466
Q

Explain the sympathetic pathway for abdominal organs.

A
  1. Preganglionic cell body in lateral horn travels to ventral root of spinal nerve
  2. Through the mixed spinal nerve
  3. Through the ventral ramus
  4. Through the white communicating ramus
  5. To the chain ganglion where IT EXITS IMMEDIATELY (no synapse!)
  6. Through thoracic splanchnic nerves
  7. To the collateral ganglia where they synapse with postganglionic cell body
  8. Through autonomic plexus
  9. To target organs (digestive system, kidneys)
467
Q

Explain the sympathetic pathway for pelvic organs.

A
  1. Preganglionic cell body in lateral horn travels to ventral root of spinal nerve
  2. Through the mixed spinal nerve
  3. Through the ventral ramus
  4. Through the white communicating ramus
  5. To the chain ganglion where IT EXITS IMMEDIATELY (no synapse!)
  6. Through lumbar or sacral splanchnic nerves
  7. To the collateral ganglia where they synapse with postganglionic cell body
  8. Through autonomic plexus
  9. To target organs (bladder and reproductive organs)
468
Q

Explain the sympathetic pathway to the medulla of the adrenal gland.

A
  1. Preganglionic cell body in lateral horn travels to ventral root of spinal nerve
  2. Through the mixed spinal nerve
  3. Through the ventral ramus
  4. Through the white communicating ramus
  5. To the chain ganglion where IT EXITS IMMEDIATELY (no synapse!)
  6. Through thoracic splanchnic nerves
  7. Through the collateral ganglia (STILL NO SYNAPSE!)
  8. To adrenal medulla chromaffin cells where they finally synapse and release norepi and epi into bloodstream.
469
Q

True/False: Parasympathetic nervous system innervates only organs

A

True! Parasympathetic nervous system innervates ONLY organs while sympathetic nervous system innervates both organs and body wall

470
Q

In addition to lateral horns S2-S4, parasympathetic preganglionic cell bodies are also located in these 4 specific cranial nerves of the brainstem.

A
  1. Oculomotor (CN III)
  2. Facial (CN VII)
  3. Glossopharyngeal (CN IX)
  4. Vagus (CN X)
471
Q

Which splanchnic nerve is the only one that follows parasympathetic pathway?

A

Pelvis splanchnic nerve

472
Q

Explain the parasympathetic pathway to structures of the head.

A

Preganglionic cell body in CN III, VII, and IX synapse at ganglia near their target tissue.

473
Q

Explain the parasympathetic pathway to thoracic and abdominal viscera.

A

Preganglionic cell body in CN X go:

  1. Down to neck through cardiopulmonary plexus to synapse at target organs, heart and lung
  2. Down to thorax through esophageal plexus through anterior/posterior trunks to abdomen to synapse at terminal ganglia on/near target organs in foregut and midgut
474
Q

Explain the parasympathetic pathway to sacral portion.

A

Preganglionic fibers in lateral horn S2-S4 travel through ventral root, through spinal nerve, through ventral ramus, through pelvic splanchnic, through autonomic plexus, to synapse at terminal ganglia on/near target organs.

475
Q

True/fase: Viscerosensory neurons are part of the visceromotor system/autonomic nervous system.

A

FALSE! Visceromotor system/autonomic nervous system is ONLY motor fibers! Not sensory.

476
Q

Viscerosensory fibers function

A

Collect sensory information from organs that focus on chemoreceptors (chemical signals), baroreceptors (pressure), stretching, hunger and nausea

477
Q

Where are viscerosensory cell bodies located?

A

Dorsal root ganglia of spinal nerves (shares with somatosensory cell bodies)

478
Q

What does viscerosensory innervation have to do with the autonomic nervous system?

A

Even though viscerosensory innervation is not part of autonomic nervous system, viscerosensory fibers follow sympathetic fibers from the organ back to its origin.

479
Q

Referred pain

A

Pain from an organ is sensed in a dermatome on the skin because visceral sensory fibers synapse in dorsal horn shared with somatic sensory fibers.

480
Q

Autonomic dysreflexia

A

An uninhibited sympathetic response (increased blood pressure and decreased heart rate) of the nervous system in persons with cervical and thoracic spinal cord injuries as a result of noxious stimuli (e.g., pressure, trauma or distension) below the level of the injury.

481
Q

Sympathetic chain extends from ____ to ____.

A

From skull to coccyx

482
Q

The 12 pairs of cranial nerves emerge from where?

A

Brain or brainstem, instead of spinal cord

483
Q

In cranial nerves, cell bodies of sensory fibers are located in ___.

A

Ganglia just outside of brainstem.

484
Q

In cranial nerves, cell bodies of motor fibers are located in ___.

A

the brainstem.

485
Q

General sensory fibers

A

Transmit pain, touch, temperature, and pressure sensations from the face and head.

486
Q

Special sensory fibers

A

Transmit information from the special sensory organs: vision, olfaction, taste, hearing, and equilibrium

487
Q

What are the 4 different fiber types that can be carried by cranial nerves?

A
  1. General sensory fiber
  2. Special sensory fiber
  3. Voluntary motor fiber
  4. Parasympathetic nerve fiber (visceromotor)
488
Q

Cranial nerve I
Name:
Fiber type(s):
Foramina:

A

Name: Olfactory
Fiber type(s): Special sensory (smell)
Foramina: Cribiform plate

489
Q

Cranial nerve II
Name:
Fiber type(s):
Foramina:

A

Name: Optic
Fiber type(s): Special sensory (vision)
Foramina: Optic canal

490
Q

Cranial nerve III
Name:
Fiber type(s):
Foramina:

A

Name: Oculomotor
Fiber type(s): Voluntary motor to 5 extraocular muscles (move eyeball, open eyelid);
Visceromotor/Parasympathetic to pupillary sphincter of eye (smooth muscle)
Foramina: Superior orbital fissure

491
Q

Cranial nerve IV
Name:
Fiber type(s):
Foramina:

A

Name: Trochlear
Fiber type(s): Voluntary motor to 1 extraocular muscle (moves eyeball)
Foramina: Superior orbital fissure

492
Q

Cranial nerve V
Name:
Fiber type(s):
Foramina:

A

Name: Trigeminal
Fiber type(s): General Sensory (Pain, Touch, Temperature) from face (V1, V2, V3);
Voluntary motor to muscles of mastication (V3)
Foramina: Superior orbital fissure (V1);
foramen rotundum (V2);
foramen ovale (V3)

493
Q

Cranial nerve VI
Name:
Fiber type(s):
Foramina:

A

Name: Abducens
Fiber type(s): Voluntary motor to 1 extraocular muscle (moves eyeball)
Foramina: Superior orbital fissure

494
Q

Cranial nerve VII
Name:
Fiber type(s):
Foramina:

A

Name: Facial
Fiber type(s): Special Sensory (Taste) from anterior 2/3 of tongue;
Voluntary motor to muscles of facial expression;
Visceromotor/Parasympathetic to most glands in the head (includes lacrimal gland; does not include parotid gland)
Foramina: Internal acoustic meatus;
Motor component travels through stylomastoid foramen and branches out 5 ways

495
Q

Cranial nerve VIII
Name:
Fiber type(s):
Foramina:

A

Name: Vestibulocochlear
Fiber type(s): Special Sensory (Hearing) cochlea;
Special Sensory (Balance) vestibular system
Foramina: Internal acoustic meatus and cranial cavity

496
Q

Cranial nerve IX
Name:
Fiber type(s):
Foramina:

A

Name: Glossopharyngeal
Fiber type(s): General Sensory (Pain, Touch, Temperature) from posterior 1/3 of tongue and pharynx;
Special Sensory (Taste) from posterior 1/3 of tongue;
Voluntary motor to one muscle of pharynx;
Visceromotor/Parasympathetic to parotid gland
Foramina: Internal jugular foramen

497
Q

Cranial nerve X
Name:
Fiber type(s):
Foramina:

A

Name: Vagus
Fiber type(s): General Sensory (Pain, Touch, Temperature) from larynx;
Special Sensory (Taste) from epiglottis;
Voluntary motor to muscles of larynx and pharynx;
Visceromotor/Parasympathetic to thoracic and abdominal viscera
Foramina: Internal jugular foramen

498
Q

Cranial nerve XI
Name:
Fiber type(s):
Foramina:

A

Name: Spinal accessory
Fiber type(s): Voluntary motor to sternocleidomastoid and trapezius
Foramina: Internal jugular foramen

499
Q

Cranial nerve XII
Name:
Fiber type(s):
Foramina:

A

Name: Hypoglossal
Fiber type(s): Voluntary motor to muscles of the tongue
Foramina: Hypoglossal foramina

500
Q

Brainstem/spinal cord passes through what foramina?

A

Foramen magnum

501
Q

Why do the cranial nerves take weird routes through skull?

A

Embryology! As the skull develops, it actually grows around the already-formed nerves, leaving specific holes (foramina) through which the nerves pass

502
Q

How are the facial nerve (CN VII) and the parotid gland related?

A

They’re not functionally related but the CN VII passes through parotid gland to get from stylomastoid foramen to the muscles of facial expression. If the gland gets a tumor, then it affects the CN VII

503
Q

11 muscles of facial expressions that we need to know:

A
  1. Depressor anguli oris
  2. Depressor labii inferioris
  3. Mentalis
  4. Orbicularis oris
  5. Buccinator
  6. Zygomaticus major
  7. Levator labii superioris
  8. Levator anguli oris
  9. Orbicularis oculi
  10. Occipitofrontalis
  11. Platysma
504
Q

Depressor anguli oris
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type:
Function:

A

CN/Fiber: Facial (VII)/voluntary motor

Function: Draws the corner of the mouth downward and laterally; for frowning

505
Q

Depressor labii inferioris
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type:
Function:

A

CN/Fiber: Facial (VII)/voluntary motor

Function: Draws the lower lip downward; for pouting

506
Q

Mentalis
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type:
Function:

A

CN/Fiber: Facial (VII)/voluntary motor

Function: Elevates and protrudes the lower lip

507
Q

Orbicularis oris
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type:
Function:

A

CN/Fiber: Facial (VII)/voluntary motor

Function: (The sphincter of the mouth) purses the lips, or “puckering”; essential for articulate speech

508
Q

Buccinator
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type:
Function:

A

CN/Fiber: Facial (VII)/voluntary motor
Function: (Forms the wall of the cheek) compresses the cheek wall against the teeth; important for sucking and keeping food within teeth for effective chewing

509
Q

Zygomaticus major
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type:
Function:

A

CN/Fiber: Facial (VII)/voluntary motor

Function: Draws the angle of the mouth upward and laterally; it’s the smiling muscle

510
Q

Levator labii superioris
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type:
Function:

A

CN/Fiber: Facial (VII)/voluntary motor

Function: Raises and everts the upper lip

511
Q

Levator anguli oris
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type:
Function:

A

CN/Fiber: Facial (VII)/voluntary motor

Function: Raises the angle of the mouth; for sneering

512
Q

Orbicularis oculi
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type:
Function:

A

CN/Fiber: Facial (VII)/voluntary motor

Function: (The sphincter of the eye) closes the eyes & spreads tears across the surface of the eye

513
Q

Occipitofrontalis (epicranius)
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type:
Function:

A

CN/Fiber: Facial (VII)/voluntary motor

Function: wrinkles the forehead and raises eyebrows (frontalis only); move scalp (both)

514
Q

Platysma
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type:
Function:

A

CN/Fiber: Facial (VII)/voluntary motor
Function: Draws down the lower lip and corners of the mouth; for expressions of horror and for saying the word ‘platysma’

515
Q

Damage or lesions to the motor component of anywhere on the facial nerve (CN VII) can lead to

A

Facial paralysis

516
Q

Masseter
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type:
Function:

A 
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type: Trigeminal (V) (V3)/Voluntary motor
Function: Elevation of the mandible, but also protracts slightly
517
Q

Temporalis
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type:
Function:

A 
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type: Trigeminal (V) (V3)/Voluntary motor
Function: Elevation and retraction of mandible
518
Q

Lateral pterygoid
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type:
Function:

A 
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type: Trigeminal (V) (V3)/Voluntary motor
Function: Protract mandible (bilateral); deviate mandible to the opposite side (unilateral)
519
Q

Medial pterygoid
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type:
Function:

A 
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type: Trigeminal (V) (V3)/Voluntary motor
Function: Elevation of the mandible, with slight protraction
520
Q

CN V (V1) cutaneous branch:
Foramina:
Innervates:

A

CN V (V1) cutaneous branch: Supraorbital nerve
Foramina: Supraorbital foramen
Innervates: General sensation of upper face, head, and orbit

521
Q

Corneal reflex

CN’s/fibers involved:

A 
CN V (V1) (general sensory)
CN VII (voluntary motor --> orbicularis oculi)
522
Q

CN V (V2) cutaneous branch:
Foramina:
Innervates:

A

CN V (V2) cutaneous branch: Infraorbital foramen
Foramina: Infraorbital foramen
Innervates: General sensory of mid-face skin region, upper teeth, posterior parts of nasal cavity, and maxillary sinus

523
Q

CN V (V3) cutaneous branch:
Foramina:
Innervates:

A

CN V (V3) cutaneous branch: Inferior alveolar nerve; mental nerve
Foramina: Mandibular foramen; mental foramen
Innervates: General sensory of lower teeth; general sensory of chin skin

524
Q

4 muscles of mastication are

A
  1. Masseter
  2. Temporalis
  3. Medial pterygoid
  4. Lateral pterygoid
525
Q

Temporomandibular joint

A

Synovial, fibrocartilage joint btwn mandibular condyle and mandibular fossa

526
Q

The upper joint cavity and lower joint cavity of the TMJ is separated by what structure

A

Fibrocartilaginous interarticular disk

527
Q

Upper joint cavity and lower joint cavity involvement of jaw opening

A

Upper joint cavity: Forward gliding (protraction) movements of TMJ when mouth open wide
Lower joint cavity: Hinge movements of TMJ when mouth open to 15 degrees

528
Q

3 sets of cardinal movements at TMJ

A
  1. Protraction/retraction (gliding forward/backward): upper joint cavity
  2. Depression/elevation: upper and lower joint cavity
  3. Rotation/deviation (side-to-side): upper joint cavity
529
Q

Mylohyoid muscle
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type:
Function:

A 
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type: Trigeminal (V) (V3) voluntary motor
Function: play role movements in mandible and in swallowing
530
Q

Anterior belly of digastric muscle
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type:
Function:

A 
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type: Trigeminal (V) (V3) voluntary motor
Function: play role movements in mandible and in swallowing
531
Q

Common causes of temporomandibular joint disorder

A
  1. Erosion or misalignment of interarticular disk
  2. Damage to articular cartilage
  3. Injury due to an impact to jaw
532
Q

What kind of cells are the surface of the tongue covered with

A

Stratified squamous epithelium, keratinized (like epidermis!)

533
Q

Taste buds
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type:
Function:

A 
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type(s): Facial (VII), Glossopharyngeal (IX), and Vagus (X)/chemosensory (special sensory)
Function: Taste!
534
Q

Intrinsic muscles of the tongue
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type:
Function:

A 
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type: Hypoglossal (XII)/voluntary motor
Function: Changes the shape of the tongue in the mouth
535
Q 
Hypoglossus (external muscle)
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type: 
Function:
A 
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type: Hypoglossal (XII)/voluntary motor
Function: Flattens and depresses the tongue by pulling it down
536
Q 
Styloglossus (external muscle)
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type: 
Function:
A 
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type: Hypoglossal (XII)/voluntary motor
Function: Pulls the tongue upward and backwards (retrusion)
537
Q 
Genioglossus (external muscle)
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type: 
Function:
A 
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type: Hypoglossal (XII)/voluntary motor
Function: Pulls the tongue forward (protrusion)
538
Q

Which cranial nerve is affected if the protruding tongue deviates to one side?

A

Hypoglossal (XII)

539
Q

What 5 cranial nerves innervate the tongue, what fibers, and what areas of the tongue?

A
  1. Trigeminal (V3): general sensory of anterior 2/3 tongue
  2. Facial (VII): special sensory of anterior 2/3 tongue
  3. Glossopharyngeal (IX): general sensory and special sensory of posterior 1/3 tongue
  4. Vagus (X): special sensory at base of tongue/epiglottis
  5. Hypoglossal (XII): voluntary motor of entire tongue
540
Q

2 phases of the patterned motor response in swallowing

A
  1. Voluntary phase: moves bolus from mouth to oropharynx

2. Involuntary (reflexive) phase: moves bolus through pharynx and into esophagus

541
Q

What actions are being done in voluntary phase and what cranial nerve(s) is involved?

A

Contraction of intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of tongue (CN XII)

542
Q

What actions are being done in involuntary (reflexive) phase and what cranial nerve(s) is involved?

A
  1. Elevation of palate, pharynx, hyoid bone, and larynx (CN V, VII, IX, X)
  2. Sequential constriction of muscles of pharynx (CN X)
  3. Closure of larygneal opening, to protect airway (CN X)
  4. Relaxation of upper esophageal sphincter (CN X)
543
Q

Sensory and motor input for:

If something touches your eye, you blink

A

Sensory input from corneal surface: via V1

Motor output to orbicularis oculi muscle: via VII

544
Q

Sensory and motor input for:

If something is flying toward your eye, you blink

A

Sensory input from retina (vision): via II
Motor output to orbicularis oculi muscle: via VII

(Same output as the corneal reflex, but a different input)

545
Q

Sensory and motor input for:

Shine a light in your eye, pupils constrict

A

Sensory input from retina (vision): via II

Motor output to pupillary sphincter (a smooth muscle): via III (visceromotor/parasympathetic)

546
Q

Sensory and motor input for:

Something irritates your nasal mucosa, you sneeze

A

Sensory input from lining of nasal cavity: via V1 or V2

Motor output to diaphragm, thoracic and abdominal wall muscles: via spinal cord

547
Q

Sensory and motor input for:

Something irritates your upper airway, you cough

A

Sensory input from larynx: via X

Motor output to diaphragm, thoracic and abdominal wall muscles: via spinal cord

548
Q

Sensory and motor input for:

Something irritates the inside of your pharynx, you gag

A

Sensory input from lining of pharynx: via IX

Motor output to pharyngeal muscles: via X

549
Q

4 sites of facial nerve (CN VII) damage

A
  1. Within cranial cavity: acoustic neuroma
  2. Within bones of skull: fracture of temporal bone
  3. On surface: parotid gland tumor
  4. Through course of VII: viral infection (Bell’s Palsy)
550
Q

TMJ replacement

A

Mandibular condyle w/ metal
Mandibular fossa w/ plastic

DISK IS NOT REPLACED.

551
Q

Levator papebrae
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type:
Function:

A 
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type: Oculomotor (CN III)/voluntary motor
Function: opens eyelid
552
Q

Pharynx muscles
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type:
Function:

A 
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type: Vagus (CN X)/voluntary motor
Function: Peristalsis and retroperistalsis
553
Q

Larynx vocal apparatus structure

A

Vestibular fold (false vocal cord), ventricle (space), vocal fold (true vocal cord)

554
Q

Larynx muscles
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type:
Function:

A 
Cranial nerve(s)/fiber type: Vagus (CN X)/motor
Function: Change length and tension of vocal ligaments and regulate airway
555
Q

3 salivary (spit) glands and their cranial nerves

A

Parotid gland: Glossopharyngeal N. (IX)

Submandibular & Sublingual glands: Facial N. (VII)

556
Q

Lacrimal (tear) gland innervated by which cranial nerve?

A

Facial (CN VII)

557
Q

Glands of nasal and oral mucosa (snot) innervated by which cranial nerve?

A

Facial (CN VII)

558
Q

4 bones of the pterion region

A
  1. Frontal
  2. Parietal
  3. Temporal
  4. Sphenoid
559
Q

Zygomatic arch formed by which bone?

A

Zygomatic bone and temporal bone

560
Q

Hard palate separates which two cavities?

A

Nasal cavity and oral cavity

561
Q

Neurocranium

A

Part o f the skull that surrounds brain

562
Q

Viscerocranium

A

Part of skull that comprises of facial skeleton

563
Q

Neurocranium divided in 2 parts:

A
  1. Calvaria (skull cap): covers bone on top

2. Cranial base: separates brain from rest of head)

564
Q

Middle meningeal artery

A

Located deep to pterion, it enters cranial cavity to supply dura mater surrounding brain

565
Q

3 bones of orbit region

A
  1. Frontal
    2 Maxilla
  2. Zygomatic
566
Q

3 bones of medial wall of orbit

A
  1. Lacrimal
  2. Ethmoid
  3. Palatine
567
Q

Bone of posterior orbit

A

Sphenoid

568
Q

3 sutures of the skull

A
  1. Coronal suture
  2. Sagittal suture
  3. Lambdoid suture
569
Q

4 paranasal sinuses

A
  1. Frontal
  2. Sphenoid
  3. Ethmoid
  4. Maxillary
570
Q

Systemic circulation

Arteries v. Veins

A

Arteries: carry oxygenated blood to body
Veins: carry deoxygenated blood from body

571
Q

Pulmonary circulation

Arteries v. Veins

A

Arteries: carry deoxygenated blood to lungs
Veins: carry oxygenated blood from lungs

572
Q

Which side of the heart is associated w/ pulmonary circulation?

A

Right heart takes deoxygenated blood from body to lungs

573
Q

Which side of the heart is associated w/ systemic circulation?

A

Left heart takes oxygenated blood from lungs to body

574
Q

Blood flow starting w/ right heart to left heart

A

Right heart
1. Deoxygenated blood from body goes into IVC and SVC –> right atrium –> tricuspid valve –> right ventricle –> –> semilunar valve –> pulmonary trunk –> lungs

Left heart
2. Oxygenated blood from lungs goes into pulmonary veins –> left atrium –> bicuspid valve –> left ventricle –> aortic valve –> aorta –> body

575
Q

Interventricular septum

A

Wall separating ventricles of heart

576
Q

Fossa ovalis

A

Depression in the interatrial septum of the right atrium (remnant of fetal circulation)

577
Q

Atrioventricular valves

A

Regulate blood flow from atria to ventricles. Open in right heart when atria contracts (tricuspid); close in left heart when ventricles contract (bicuspid/mitral)

578
Q

Semilunar valves

A

Regulate blood flow from ventricles to aorta/pulmonary trunk. Close when atria contract (pulmonary valve); open when ventricles contract (aortic valve).

579
Q

Coronary circulation

A

Provides oxygenated blood supply from heart to heart tissue

580
Q

Where does the deoxygenated blood go in coronary circulation?

A

Deoxygenated blood in all coronary veins drain into coronary sinus, which empties into right atrium

581
Q

Stent

A

Mesh stent keeps coronary artery open

582
Q

Coronary bypass

A

Vessels taken from other parts of body and attached to aorta on one end and existing vessel on the other

583
Q

Common vessels taken for coronary bypass

A
  1. Great saphenous vein
  2. Radial artery
  3. Internal thoracic artery
584
Q

Lymphatic system

A

Leftover plasma that weren’t able to get reabsorbed back to blood during capillary exchange get stuck in interstitial fluid. The lymphatic system provides an accessory return route to blood in thorax for the leftover plasma.

585
Q

Lymph nodes

A

Filters out pathogens from plasma fluid and try to stop infection before it gets returned to venous system.

586
Q

Right lymphatic duct

A

Drains right upper limb, thorax, and head

587
Q

Thoracic duct

A

Drains majority of body, empties at junction of left internal jugular vein/subclavian vein

588
Q

Lymphedema

A

Any disruption of lymphatic vessels can cause accumulation of extra fluid and particles in tissues.

589
Q

Common treatment for lymphedema

A

Compression bandages or hand “milking” (pushing fluid back into venous system)

590
Q

2 respiratory system airways

A
  1. Conducting airways

2. Respiratory airways

591
Q

Conducting airways functions

A

Condition, filter, and transport incoming air in respiratory system (nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx)

592
Q

Respiratory airways function

A

Gas exchange in respiratory system (lungs)

593
Q

Pleural sac

A

Encases each lung w/ double-walled sac (parietal and visceral layers w/ fluid in-btwn) and allows friction-free movement during respiration

594
Q

Hilum of each lung

A

Hilum is the large triangular depression where the connection btwn the parietal pleura (covering rib cage) and visceral pleura (covering lung) is made.

595
Q

Root of the lung

A

Located at each hilum and is formed by:

  • Bronchii
  • Pulmonary A/V (for oxygenation)
  • Bronchial A/V (to supply lung tissue)
  • Lymphatics
  • Nerves
596
Q

Branching of airways of respiratory tract

A

Trachea –> primary bronchii (to right or left lung) –> secondary bronchi (to each lobe of lung; 2 on left, 3 on right) –> tertiary bronchi (to each bronchopulmonary segment)

597
Q

What happens if you remove a bronchopulmonary segment?

A

Each segment is an anatomically and functionally independent unit. Each can be removed without affecting the rest of the lung

598
Q

Gas exchange between pulmonary artery and lungs

A

Pulmonary artery (deoxygenated blood) runs with airway to alveoli where gas exchange occurs; pulmonary vein (oxygenated blood) runs separately from airway.

599
Q

Thoracoabdominal diaphragm

A

Sheet of muscle (separating thoracic cavity and abdominal cavity) that has receives motor innervation from phrenic nerve to allow lungs to contract and flatten for inspiration

600
Q

How much does thoracoabdmoinal diaphragm move with each breath?

A

4-6 cm

601
Q

3 major foramina of thoracoabdmoinal diaphragm

A
  1. Vena caval foramen
  2. Esophageal hiatus
  3. Aortic hiatus
602
Q

What runs through the vena caval foramen of the thoracoabdominal diaphragm?

A

Inferior vena cava, right phrenic nerve

603
Q

What runs through the esophageal hiatus of the thoracoabdominal diaphragm?

A

Esophagus, right and left vagal trunks

604
Q

What runs through the aortic hiatus of the thoracoabdominal diaphragm?

A

Aorta, thoracic duct

605
Q

Anterior cervical triangle contains

A

Common carotid artery and internal jugular vein

606
Q

Posterior cervical triangle contains

A

Sensory branches of cervical plexus and spinal accessory (CN XI)

607
Q

Suboccipital triangle contains

A

Skeletal muscles that send proprioceptive info from the heads

608
Q

Suprahyoid (digastric) innervated by

A

Cranial nerves

609
Q

Infrahyoid (omohyoid) innervated by

A

Ansa cervicalis

610
Q

Scalenes innervated by

A

Cervical ventral rami

611
Q

Hyoid muscles assist with…

A

Swallowing and speaking

612
Q

Ansa cervicalis is made of the motor portion of…

A

Cervical plexus (C1-C3)

613
Q

Which ribs articulate directly with the sternum?

A

Ribs 1-7

614
Q

Which ribs articulate with the sternum through common costal cartilage?

A

Ribs 8-10

615
Q

Which ribs do not articulate with the sternum?

A

Ribs 11-12

616
Q

How many vertebrae covered by each muscle in transversospinae group?

A
  1. Semispinalis (4-6)
  2. Rotatores (1-2)
  3. Multifidus (2-4)
617
Q

Classify pivot joint by its degree of movement

A

Uniaxial

618
Q

Lumbar cistern

A

Filled with CSF; cauda equina here; place for lumbar puncture

619
Q

What layers would a needle have to go through to get to CSF in lumbar cistern?

A
  1. Supraspinous ligament
  2. Interspinous ligament
  3. Ligamentum flava
  4. Epidural space
  5. Dura mater
  6. Arachnoid layer
620
Q

Which 2 cranial nerves innervate mechanical digestion in oral cavity and pharynx via use of muscles of mastication and movement of tongue?

A

CN V3 (muscles of mastication) and CN XII (muscles of tongue)

621
Q

The patterned motr response of swallowing starts when food enters the ___.

A

Oropharynx

622
Q

Steps of swallowing

A
  1. Soft palate pulled up to block nasal cavity.
  2. Pharynx contract in series to move bolus inferiorly. Pharynx innervated by CN X.
  3. At same time, epiglottis pushed down to close off airway and food is directed down laryngopharynx.
  4. Laryngopharynx is continuous inferiorly w/ esophagus.
623
Q

Nasopharynx

A

Air only; ends at inferior border of uvula (soft palate)

624
Q

Oropharynx

A

Soft palate to epiglottis; respiratory and digestive

625
Q

Laryngopharynx

A

Air and food superiorly; only food inferiorly; contin. w/ esophagus

626
Q

Pyloric sphincter of the stomach releases food into the ___.

A

Small intestine

627
Q

2 ducts join to empty into proximal duodenum

A
  1. Common bile duct

2. Pancreatic duct

628
Q

Name the segments of large intestine in the order that food would pass through it

A
  1. Ascending colon
  2. Transverse colon
  3. Descending colon
  4. Sigmoid colon
629
Q

What vein corresponds with the anterior interventricular artery?

A

Great cardiac vein

630
Q

What vein corresponds with the posterior interventricular artery?

A

Middle cardiac vein

631
Q

What vein corresponds with the marginal artery?

A

Small cardiac vein

UW Madison Anatomy (3 decks)

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