unit 1 exam Flashcards
1
Q
what are the steps of the scientific method?
A
- make an observation
- create a hypothesis
- test the hypothesis + gather data
- examine results and draw conclusion
- report the results
2
Q
what are: IV, DV, EV, and CV
A
IV = independent variable DV = dependent variable EV = extraneous variable CV = confounding variable (an ev that is present and affects the results)
3
Q
how do you write a hypothesis?
A
begin with “it is predicted that…” or “it is hypothesised that…”
4
Q
what is a population?
A
everyone who could possibly be a participant in the study
5
Q
what is a sample?
A
a representative group from the population
6
Q
what is the difference between a random sample and a stratified sample?
A
a random sample is used to represent the entire population and uses random individuals without consideration.
a stratified sample divides the population into groups based on similar characteristics.
7
Q
what is the difference between the experimental and control groups?
A
the experimental group receives the treatment whose effect the researchers want to study, while the control group does not (they are the standard who the results are compared to)
8
Q
what is the placebo effect and how do you control it
A
when an improvement of symptoms is observed, despite using a non active treatment (pill, injection etc that appears to be medical treatment, but isn’t).
to control it, patients have to be masked from any knowledge of whether or not they are receiving active medication.
9
Q
what is the experimenter effect and how do you control it?
A
when the experimenter’s expectations or interpretations of data influence the results of an experiment.
can be controlled by minimising the contact between the experimenter and the participant/s.
10
Q
what is qualitative data?
A
data that is not easily reduced to numbers (e.g. appearance, smell)
11
Q
what is quantitative data?
A
numerical data expressing a certain quantity, amount, or range (e.g. height, hours, kilometres)
12
Q
what is the difference between objective and subjective data?
A
objective data is observed, examined and measured
subjective data is information from the participant’s point of view like feelings or perceptions (gathered through interviews)
13
Q
what are the research designs?
A
- repeated measures
- matched participants
- independent groups
14
Q
describe the research design repeated measures
A
the same participants take part in each condition of the independent variable
15
Q
describe the research design matched participants
A
pairs of participants are matched in terms of similar characteristics, then one member is placed in the experimental group, and one in the control group
16
Q
describe the research design independent groups
A
(most common) different participants are used in each condition of the independent variable
17
Q
list the ethical considerations
A
- informed consent
- confidentiality
- voluntary participation
- withdrawal rights
- deception
- debriefing
18
Q
what are the 2 main parts of the nervous system?
A
the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system
19
Q
what are the parts of the central nervous system?
A
the brain and the spinal cord
20
Q
what are the parts of the peripheral nervous system?
A
the autonomic nervous system and the somatic nervous system
21
Q
what are the parts of the autonomic nervous system?
A
the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system
22
Q
what are the parts of the somatic nervous system?
A
motor and sensory neurons
23
Q
what does the autonomic nervous system do?
A
regulated involuntary movement like heart rate, digestion, blood pressure, respiration etc.
24
Q
what does the somatic nervous system do?
A
controls voluntary movement by transmitting and receiving messages from the senses
25
what is the difference between the function of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system?
the sympathetic nervous system controls the body's response to stress (accelerated heart rate, large intestine movement, pupil dilation, sweating)
the parasympathetic nervous system controls the body's functions when at rest (stimulating digestion, decreases heart rate and respiration)
26
what do motor neurons do?
transmit impulses from the CNS to skeletal or smooth muscles
27
what do sensory neurons do?
transmits impulses from sensory receptors to the CNS
28
what are the parts of a neuron?
- dendrites
- nucleus
- soma (cell body)
- axon
- axon terminal
- myelin
- glial cells
29
what do dendrites do?
receive signals from the axon terminals of other neurons, convert them into electrical impulses and send them to the soma
30
what does the nucleus do?
controls the activities of the entire neuron
31
what does the soma (cell body) do?
(contains the nucleus), carries genetic info, maintains structure and provides energy to drive activities
32
what does the axon do?
carries nerve impulses away from the soma (cell body), and release the neurotransmitters of the pre synaptic cell.
33
what is myelin and what does it do?
an insulating layer made of protein and fatty substances.
| protects the axon and enhances transmission of electrical impulses.
34
what are glial cells and what do they do?
they form myelin, as well as nourishing, protecting, and supporting the neuron, and removing dead cells.
35
what is the process of transmitting information between neurons called?
neurotransmission
36
what happens in neurotransmission?
the axon terminals of one neuron release chemical signals into the synapse, the dendrites of the next neuron pick up these signals
37
what is a synapse?
the small space between the axon terminal of the presynaptic neuron and the dendrites of the postsynaptic neuron
38
what are the three main parts of the brain
forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain
39
what are the parts of the forebrain?
- hypothalamus
- thalamus
- cerebrum
40
what are the parts of the midbrain?
- reticular formation
41
what are the parts of the hindbrain?
- cerebellum
- medulla
- pons
42
what does the hypothalamus control?
body temperature, eating and drinking, energy maintainence, overall controls homeostasis
43
what does the thalamus control?
regulation of conciousness and alertness, relaying sensory and motor signals
44
what does the cerebrum control?
muscle functions, speech, thought, emotions, reading and writing, learning
45
what does the reticular formation control?
maintains alertness, arousal, and sleep to waking
46
what does the cerebellum do?
coordination of voluntary movement
47
what does the medulla do?
respiration and cardiac function, and reflexes like sneezing, coughing, and vomiting
48
what does the pons do?
eye movement, hearing, taste, respiration
49
what are the lobes of the brain?
- frontal lobe
- parietal lobe
- temporal lobe
- occipital lobe
50
which cortex is in the frontal lobe?
the primary motor cortex
51
which cortex is in the parietal lobe?
the primary somatosensory cortex
52
which cortex is in the temporal lobe?
the primary auditory cortex
53
which cortex is in the occipital lobe?
the primary visual cortex
54
what is hemispheric specialisation? + examples
the different functions performed by the two hemispheres of the brain e.g:
the left hemisphere controls speech, comprehension, writing, and arithmetic (math)
the right hemisphere controls creativity, spatial ability, artistic, and musical skills
55
what is the difference between developmental and adaptive plasticity?
developmental plasticity is changes in neural connections as a result of interactions with the environment (occurs over lifespan)
adaptive plasticity is the brain compensating for lost functionality due to brain damage and interaction with environment by reorganising it's structure (happens over lifespan but is more effective in childhood)
56
what are the five stages of developmental plasticity?
1. proliferation
2. migration
3. circuit formation
4. synaptic pruning
5. myelination
57
what happens during the proliferation stage of developmental plasticity?
the unborn baby's cells divide and multiply
58
what happens during the migration stage of developmental plasticity?
the newly formed cells / neurons move to their specific destination in the brain
59
what happens during the circuit formation stage of developmental plasticity?
axons of the neurons branch out and form synapses
60
what happens during the synaptic pruning stage of developmental plasticity?
some neurons and synapses are eliminated as there are more than the child will ever need
61
what happens during the myelination stage of developmental plasticity?
the axons of the remaining neurons are covered with myelin
62
what does synaptogenesis mean?
the formation of synapses between neurons
| explosion of formation during early brain development, but occurs throughout rest of the life
63
which structures in the brain develop during adolescence?
the brainstem, cerebellum, lobes of the brain especially frontal (controls coordination, movement, judgement, language etc.)
64
what are some common causes of brain damage?
- stroke
- anoxia (insufficient amount of oxygen)
- brain tumor
- brain trauma
65
how did adaptive plasticity help cameron mott?
after the removal of the right hemisphere of her brain, the left hemisphere was able to compensate and rewire itself.
because cameron was a child, she had more plasticity in her brain.
66
what causes Broca's aphasia?
damage to Broca's area in left hemisphere of the frontal lobe
67
what are the characteristics of Broca's aphasia?
- non fluent speech
- CAN comprehend what is being said
- poor grammar
- difficulty reading and writing
68
what causes Wernicke's aphasia?
damage to wernicke's area in the left hemisphere of the temporal lobe
69
what are the characteristics of Wernicke's aphasia?
- unaware of their mistakes
- fluent speech
- nonsense
- difficulty understanding / comprehending
70
what is spatial neglect?
damage to the right parietal lobe, when a person systematically ignores stimuli on one side of their body (usually the left)
71
what is heredity?
the transmission of characteristics from biological parents to their children (nature)
72
what is environment?
experiences, objects, and events to which we are exposed throughout our lifetime (nurture)
73
what is the interactionist approach?
the idea that both heredity (nature) and environment (nurture) are important factors in development
74
how many chromosomes do cells contain?
23 pairs
75
what are dominant and recessive genes?
dominant genes WILL be displayed, recessive genes will NOT be displayed unless there are two genes (e.g. blue eyes)
76
what is a genetic predisposition?
an increased likelihood of developing disease / condition due to genetic factors
77
what are some common genetic disorders?
- down syndrome
- fragile x syndrome
- alzheimer's disease
- turner syndrome
- triple x syndrome
- supermale syndrome
78
how are monozygotic (or identical) twins formed?
when a single fertilised egg splits into 2. They share 100% of their genes
79
how are dizygotic (or fraternal) twins formed?
when 2 seperate eggs are fertilised by 2 seperate sperm cells. They share 50% of their genes
80
what disease has an increased genetic link between twins?
schizophrenia
81
what are the stages of the lifespan?
1. pre-natal
2. infancy
3. childhood
4. adolescence
5. early adulthood
6. middle adulthood
7. late adulthood.
82
what is physical development?
the development of body structures and functions including gross and fine motor skills.
83
what is cognitive development?
the development of our mental abilities
| eg. memories, thinking, language, problem solving
84
what is social and emotional development?
the ability to interact with other people and the ability to
| regulate and understand emotions.
85
what is the difference between maturation and learning?
maturation is a genetically programmed process, while learning is a change in behaviour due to experience
86
what are inborn reflexes?
behaviour that is automatic and doesn't have to be learned
87
what are developmental norms?
an indication of the average age that a certain skill or behaviour should be achieved, provides feedback on whether a child is progressing normally
88
what are critical periods?
a period in life where certain experiences must happen for normal development to proceed
89
what are teratogens?
toxic substances that are capable or harming an unborn child
90
what are sensitive periods?
best times for psychological development in certain areas
| e.g. learning to speak in the first few years of life
91
what is the difference between experience-expectant and experience-dependent learning?
experience expectant learning is processes that are critical for development (e.g. language)
experience dependent learning is the brain's capacity to change in response to the environment (e.g. video games)
92
what is infant attachment in emotional development?
the close social and emotional bond of affection that develops between the infant and their caregivers or parents
93
what is privation?
if a child never forms a close relationship with anyone
94
what did Harry Harlow's study conclude?
contact comfort is more important than feeding
95
what is Ainsworth's attachment theory?
infants can form different types of attachment with their caregivers
96
what are the different types of attachment?
secure attachment, insecure avoidant attachment, and insecure resistant attachment
97
what are characteristics of secure attachment?
- infant shows a balance of dependence and exploration
- infant uses caregiver as a safe base in new environments
- shows some distress when caregiver departs
- is enthusiastic when caregiver returns, and seeks physical contact
98
what are some characteristics of insecure avoidant attachment?
- infant does not seek closeness with caregiver, treats them as a stranger
- doesn't care when caregiver leaves
- ignores caregiver when they return
99
what are some characteristics of insecure resistant attachment?
- infant is anxious even when caregiver is near
- infant is upset when separated from caregiver
- when caregiver returns, infant wants to be picked up, them fights to get away
100
what are the four stages of cognitive development?
1. sensorimotor stage
2. pre operational stage
3. concrete operational stage
4. formal operational stage
101
what is assimilation and accomodation?
assimilation is fitting new information into an existing idea (e.g. a child calling a truck a car)
accomodation is altering existing ideas and forming new ideas (e.g. separating the idea of a car and a truck)
102
what are the 6 approaches to normality?
1. situational
2. societal and cultural
3. historical
4. statistical
5. functional
6. medical
103
what is the situational approach to normality?
different situations require specific behaviours
| e.g. not laughing at a funeral
104
what is the societal and cultural approach to normality?
society has norms and rules that govern behaviour
| e.g. in japan it is rude for a child to look an adult in the eyes
105
what is the historical approach to normality?
time changes the concept of what is normal
| e.g. teenagers didn't use to have lots of piercings
106
what is the statistical approach to normality?
normality is defined by what most frequently occurs in a population
e.g. it is abnormal to be 7 feet tall
107
what is the functional approach to normality?
dependent on the person being able to carry out their normal activities
e.g. its not normal for panic attacks to prevent a person from going to work
108
what is the medical approach to normality?
abnormality is defined by the diagnosis of mental illness from specific symptoms
e.g. its not normal to hear voices
109
what is typical and atypical behaviour?
typical behaviour means that at most times the person acts as though they 'typically' do
atypical behaviour means that a person acts in a way that is unusual for them / out of character
110
what is the difference between adaptive and maladaptive behaviour?
adaptive behaviour involves actions that enable a person to carry out their usual everyday tasks (like going to work)
maladaptive behaviour interferes with a person's ability to carry out their usual activities
111
what is the difference between a mental health problem and a mental health disorder?
a mental health problem occurs as a result of a life stressor, has a shorter duration, is less severe, and resolves with time
BUT
a mental health disorder is thoughts, feelings, or behaviours that affect the ability to function effectively in everyday life
(other characteristics include significant personal distress, atypical actions and reactions clinically diagnosable dysfunction in thoughts, feelings, or behaviour)
112
define mental health
a state of wellbeing in which an individual realises their own abilities can cope with the normal stresses of life, can work productively and are able to contribute to their community
113
what internal factors influence mental health?
- genetics
- personality predisposition
- locus of control
- self-esteem
- physical health
- immune system response
- intelligence
- emotions
- attitudes
- cognitive processes
- memory
114
what external factors influence mental health?
- attachment
- family background
- friends
- school
- social support
- cultural traditions
- socioeconomic status
- poverty
- neglect, abuse
- homelessness
- interpersonal relationships
115
what is a "locus of control"
reflects whether a person believes that they have control over their behaviour, or they are controlled by external factors
116
give an example of the different between an internal and an external locus of control?
an internal locus of control would be a student who takes responsibility for their own learning
an external locus of control would be someone who believes their behaviour is governed by outside influences like luck
117
what is the difference between distress and eustress?
distress is a negative psychological response to a perceived threat (bad stress)
eustress is a positive psychological response to positive events / news (good stress)
118
what is neurosis?
a mild mental disorder characterised by physical and mental disturbance (anxiety, depression)
119
what is psychosis?
a major personality disorder characterised by mental and emotional disruptions (hallucinations, schizophrenia, insanity)
120
what did Ronsehan's study highlight?
the issues surrounding diagnosis of mental health disorders, whether it is reliable or not (41 of 193 patients were suspected of being 'fake' by hospital staff when in reality none of them were fake)
