Unit 1 Quiz Review Primary Markets And Secondary Markets Flashcards
(34 cards)
The Federal law requiring companies offering public equity or debt securities to provide a prospectus to investors known as:
A. The Securities Investor Protection Act of 1970
B. The Securities Act of 1933
C. The trust Indenture Act of 1939
D. The Securities exchange act of 1934
B. The securities act of 1933 is also known as the prospectus act. with limited exceptions, companies looking to offer securities to the public, must provide a prospectus to those who are approached about purchasing those securities. A Prospectus is a disclosure document that provides key information about the company.
What is the maximum number of non-accredited investors allowed in a regulation D exempt transaction under the rule 506b?
A. 50
B. None
C. 35
D. 25
C. The SEC does not require registration of an offering under Regulation D as long as there is no more than 35 non accredited investors. There is no limit to the number of accredited investors that may invest in a private investment.
A broker - dealer designated as a carrying firm would be expected to do all the following except:
A. Maintain a lower net capital than non carrying broker dealers.
B. Perform back office functions, such as sending trade confirmations to customers
C. Take custody of customers funds and securities
D. Clear transactions for customer accounts
A. A firm carrying customer funds and securities assumes certain risks and is therefore required to maintain levels of net capital higher than that of firms that do not accept custody of funds or securities ( non carrying firms).
Trading hours on the New York Stock Exchange are:
A. 9:30pm to 4:00pm Eastern Time
B. 9:30am to 4:00pm Eastern Time
C. 9:00am to 4:00pm Central time
D. 9:00am to 4:00pm Eastern Time
B. Trading hours on the NYSE are from 9:30am to 4:00pm Eastern time on business days.
Sea coast securities, a broker - dealer, maintains an inventory in DEF INC. common stock. When transacting business in DEF stock, Seacoast is most likely acting in what capacity?
A. Broker
B. Market Maker
C. Agent
D.Underwriter
B. When a BD acts as a dealer( or market maker) , they are selling securities from the firms inventory to a customer or buying a security from a customer for the dealers inventory.
An investor enters a sell stop limit order at 60. Following an order entry, trades occur at 62, 60, 59, 61, 63. The investor will most likely receive;
A. 60
B. 63
C. 59
D.61
D. This is really two orders. The first is to stop at 60. Once the trades at 60 or lower, the order is elected( triggered) and becomes a live working order. That order is to sell at 60 or better. Therefore the first time the stock hits 60 or less is the trade at 60. That triggers the sell limit order to sell at 60 or better. The next trade is 59 and that is not an acceptable price given the limit order is set to 60. The following order, however is 61, is the next acceptable price after the order is triggered and that’s when the order would most likely be executed.
Regarding the purchase of a new equity issue, an account where a restricted person has a beneficial interest would be allowed to purchase the new shares at the public offering price.
A. Only if the interest exceeds 15%
B. Only if the interest does not exceed 10%
C. Without Restriction
D. Never
B. Restricted persons will be able to have an interest in an account ( one that is not wholly their own) that purchases new equity issues as long as it’s no more than 10% of the accounts beneficial owners are restricted persons.
Your client , Jane Anderson, has owned QRS for a few years but has now turned bearish on QRS. What transaction would you recommend?
A. Buy QRS to close
B. Sell QRS to open
C. Buy QRS to open
D. Sell QRS to close
D.Because Anderson already owns the stock, this would be a closing transaction , and because she is bearish it would be a sell.
A closing transaction can be?
A. A sell only
B. A short sale
C. A buy only
D. Either a buy or sell
D.A closing transaction can be either a buy or a sell depending on what the opening ( initial) transaction was. The closing transaction will always be the opposite of the opening one- buy to open, sell to close, buy to close.
The statement “ These securities have not been approved or disapproved nor have any representations been made about the accuracy or the adequacy of the information @ is?
A. The disclaimer placed by the underwriters in a tombstone advertisement
B. Mandated to be in the final prospectus Bu the Security and Exchange Commission ( SEC).
C. Mandated by the Financial Industry Regulatory ( FINRA) to be placed in both the preliminary and final prospectus
D. Placed by the issuer in the preliminary prospectus.
B.Commonly known as the securities and Exchange Commission’s disclaimer, the SEC mandates that it be found in the final prospectus.
Your client is buying Municipal bonds and wants to know when payment is due. You should tell them:
A. Trade day plus 3 days
B. Trade date
C. Trade date plus 1 business day
D. Trade date plus 2 business days
D. Regular way settlement is T + 2 for everything except treasuries , money market securities, and options
Selling Long is equivalent to which of the following?
A. Selling to open then buying to close
B. Selling to open
C. Selling short
D. Selling to close
D. When a customer owns a position and then sells that position, that is referred to as selling long or selling to close
As participants in a firm commitment underwriting agreement , the underwriters know that:
A. They, the underwriters, will be acting as principals buying the securities from the issuer
B. They, the underwriters, will not be at risk for any securities left unsold
C. For. The issuer , there are only committing to making a best effort to selll securities for them.
D. If shares cannot be sold to the public, the issuer will not be able to raise capital needed as an agent.
A. In a firm commitment, the underwriters contract with the issuer to buy the securities from them and thus acting as principals rather than agents. In this type of underwriting, it is the underwriters who are at risk for any shares they cannot sell to the public, not the issuer. The issuer knows that ultimately all of the securities will be sold and all capital needed will be raised.
An investor with no other positions in LMN stock purchases 600 shares at the market. The investor is?
A. Short LMN stick and bullish
B.Long LMV stock and bearish
C. Short LMN Stock and bearish
D. Long LMN stock and bullish
D. With no other positions in LMN stock, the purchase was an opening transaction. Having purchased the stock in a opening transaction, the investor now has a long position in LMN stock and bullish- wanting to see the stock rise in value.
Regarding the issuance of new securities to the public, which of the following is true?
A. Underwriters are permitted to accept orders for securities during the Securities and Exchange Commission ( SEC ) review period period
B. The Securities Act of 2933 criminal penalties for fraud.
C. Registrations become effective within 10 business days of Securities and Exchange commission filing
D. The Securities and Exchange commission ( SEC) review of a new issue filing must always be longer than 20 days.
B. The Securities Act of 1933 , which provides for criminal penalties for fraud in the issuance of new securities, ensures that investors are fully informed about a security and its issuer when the security is offered to the public. The SEC review or cooling off period must last a minimum of 30 days before the SEC releases the securities for sale to the public ( effective date). Solicitations and the acceptance of orders may never occur before the effective date.
Great Plains investment is a member firm that maintains an inventory in BigBox Inc, common stock. When transacting business in Big Box stock, the firm is most likely acting in what capacity?
A. Agent
B. Broker
C. Underwriter
D. Market maker
D. When a BD acts as a dealer ( or market maker) , they are selling securities from the firm’s inventory to a customers or buying a security from a customer for the dealers inventory.
For initial public offerings (IPOs) of common stock, all of the following would be considered a restricted persons except:
A. Employees of a member firms
B. A message firm
C a person owning at least 5% of the member firm
D.Fiduciaries acting on behalf of the underwriters
C. An individual person or entity would have to own 10% or more of a member firm before they would be considered a restricted person.
Your customer, Ellesha , places a sell stop at 50 on DEZ stock while it is trading at $53 per share. After the order is elected, Ellesha may sell her shares at which of the following prices?
I. $48
II. $49
III.$50
I’V.$51
A. I,II, and III
B. iII and IV
C. III and IV
D. I, II, III, and IV
D. Once triggered ( I.e, elected) ,this becomes a market order to sell. Market orders may sell at any price.
After the filing of a registration for a new issue with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC), and still in the registration’s cooling-off period, broker- dealers may:
A. Distribute sales literature with the preliminary prospectus.
B. Give a red herring to prospective investor
C. Take binding indicators of interest received from prospective investors
D. Never publish tombstone advertisements.
B. During the cooling - off period, red herring ( preliminary prospectus) may be distributed and tombstones advertisements may be published. Indications of interest can be taken but are non binding on all parties. Sales literature may not be distributed during the cooling off period.
After the issuer files a registration statement with the Securities and Exchange commission (SEC) the time is known as the cooling off period begins. This allows a registration to be effective as early as;
A. 20 business days after the date the sec has received it.
B. 40 business days after the SEC had received it.
C. 20 calendar days after the date the SEC received it.
D. 40 calendar days after the date the SEC has received it
C. Once the registration statement has been received by the SEC, a cooling- off period begins and it must last at least 20 calendar days. This allows the registration to become effective as early as 20 calendar days after the date the SEC has received it.
All of the following are exempt from the Securities ACT of 1933 except:
A. US Treasury Securities
B. Fixed annuity contracts
C. Debt securities issued by religious organization.
D Limited partnerships
D. Limited partnerships interests are not exempt securities. The exempt securities include US government securities, municipal bonds, commercial paper and bankers acceptances that have maturities of less than 270 days, insurance policies and fixed annuity contracts ( but not variable annuities), charitable, religious, educational and nonprofit associations issues and more.
An investor is viewing a company’s prospectus on the Securities Exchange Commission’s (SEC’S) website which of the following true:
A. This satisfies the access equals delivery rule for the preliminary prospectus
B. Access equals delivery can only mean physical delivery of the prospectus and not viewing one on a website
C. This does not satisfy the access equals delivery rule for an aftermarket prospectus
D. This satisfies the access equals delivery rule for a final prospectus
D. A prospectus will be deemed to precede or accompany a security for Sale if the final prospectus has been filed with the SEC and can be viewed on the SEC website. The access equals delivery model applies to the final prospectus and aftermarket prospectus delivery obligations but not to the preliminary prospectus delivery obligation.
A person who looks to provide advise to advice to a city government concerning the issuance of municipal debt securities would best be described:
A. A municipal securities representative
B. A municipal
C. An investment adviser
D. A market maker
B. A municipal advisor is a person that provides advice to or on behalf of a municipal entity with respect to municipal entity with respect to municipal products or municipal products or the issuance of municipal securities.
For nonexempt securities being offered to the public for the first time by a corporate issuer, which of the following would be applicable?
A. Securities ACT of 1933 regulating issues that must be offered by prospectus
B. Securities ACT of 1934 regulating securities that must be offered by prospectus
C. Securities ACT of 1933 regulating securities traded in the secondary market
D. Securities ACT of 1933 regulating securities traded in the secondary market
Non exempt securities are those that must be registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission ( SEC) under the Securities ACT of 1933. The 1933 mandates that offering of these securities must be by prospectus.