Unit 12: Molecular biology techniques Flashcards

1
Q

define locus

A

specific site of a gene on a chromosome

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2
Q

define allele

A

one of two or more alternative forms of a gene

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3
Q

Define polymorphism

A

Presence of more than one allele of a gene/locus in a population at a frequency greater than that of new arising mutation

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4
Q

genotype vs. phenotype

A

genotype: entire genetic makeup
phenotype: physical and physiological characteristics. the specific trait associated with a particular allele

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5
Q

describe dominant mutations

A
  • when the mutant phenotype is expressed with the WT allele present
  • typically gain of function that results in increased activity and new function
  • there is sometimes loss of function
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6
Q

name and describe types of loss of function in dominant mutations

A

haploinsufficiency: one gene copy is inactive, the functional copy does not provide enough gene product for the WT phenotype

dominant-negative: mutation interferes with WT protein function

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7
Q

describe recessive mutations

A
  • WT phenotype expressed with WT allele present
  • typically gene is inactivated partially or completely resulting in loss of function
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8
Q

Loss of function mutations vs. conditional loss-of-function mutation

A
  • these are null mutations
  • loss of function mutations include point mutations and deletions. these completely get rid of gene function
  • conditional loss-of-function mutations depend on temperature. Usually dysfunctional at high temperatures
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9
Q

Describe conditional mutations

A
  • mutations cause proteins to be functional only under certain conditions such as temperature
  • permissive temperatures produce the WT phenotype
  • non permissive temperatures produce the mutant phenotype
  • this helps us study lethal mutations
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10
Q

what is the purpose of genetic complementation experiments?

A

genetic complementation- growth indicates different loci b/c of normal function
non-complementation- no growth indicates same loci but different alleles

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11
Q

what is the purpose of epistasis experiments?

A

experiments help determine order of function of gene products in a pathway

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12
Q

explain how gene loci are mapped in the genome

A
  • gene loci are mapped by determining distance to known loci
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13
Q

what is complementation

A
  • when several genes contribute to phenotype
  • crossing heterozygotes with mutant recessive alleles in different loci will restore WT phenotype
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14
Q

what is epistasis

A

one gene’s alleles mask the effect of another gene’s alleles

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15
Q

what are single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNP)

A

single base sequence variation between individuals at a particular point in the genome

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16
Q

what are the required components and general process of DNA cloning

A
  1. generate recombinant vector
  2. transfer recombinant vector into host cell
  3. produce multiple copies of recombinant DNA by host
  4. select/identify recombinant host cells
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17
Q

how do you generate a recombinant vector

A
  • cut source DNA at edges of gene
  • select a suitable carrier DNA (vector) that is capable of self replication in a host
  • insert gene covalently into vector
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18
Q

explain the principle of electrophoresis and how it is applied to DNA

A

separate based on mass using electric field
- it is used for
1. qualitative DNA analysis (determine purity of plasmid prep)
2. DNA purification: isolation of restriction fragments from gel
3. DNA-protein interaction studies: electrophoretic mobility shift assay

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19
Q

what do restriction enzymes do?

A

catalyze single strand breaks (nicks) on either DNA strand or double-strand breaks in DNA
- they hydrolyze phosphodiester bonds of DNA. producing free 3’-OH group and 5’-phosphate group

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20
Q

how is host DNA protected from restriction enzymes

A

methylation

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21
Q

where do restriction enzymes cleave on foreign DNA

A

restriction enzyme cleaves unmethylated foreign DNA within 4-8 base pair recognition site
- they recognize inverted repeats in DNA (aka palindromes) and cleave at the 3’ or 5’ site of/or at symmetry axis

22
Q

are restriction enzymes used to cut out DNA segments of interest?

A

yes

23
Q

define palindrome

A
  • inverted sequence repeats that read in the same direction on each strand
24
Q

what does choosing a cloning vector depend on?

A
  1. size of DNA insert
  2. efficiency of the host cell to uptake vector
  3. amplification
25
Q

the three essential properties cloning vectors must possess

A
  1. restriction site that allows insertion of target DNA
  2. autonomous replication in a host cell so that amplification of target DNA can occur independent of host DNA synthesis
  3. a selectable feature that allows transfected host cells containing the vector to be identified from other cells w/o vector
26
Q

describe plasmid vectors

A
  • circular molecules
  • replicate autonomously
  • transfer to host via transformation
  • selective marker is antibiotic resistance gene(s)
  • can accommodate up to 15 kb
27
Q

describe bacteriophages

A
  • viruses infecting bacteria (e.g. lambda)
  • transfer to host via transduction (aka phage infection)
  • can insert up to 15-25 kb
28
Q

describe cosmids

A
  • plasmids with lambda segments or lambda phages
  • accommodate larger inserts
  • can hold up 20 kb
29
Q

describe bacterial artificial chromosomes (bac)

A
  • plasmids for very large fragments
  • can hold 150-350 kb
  • maintained at low copy numbers due to par genes regulating distribution of plasmids at division
  • includes selectable markers and genes that regulate plasmid distribution
30
Q

Yeast artificial chromosomes (YAC)

A
  • contain all elements required for maintenance in eukaryotic cells ( origin, centromere, telomeres) and selective markers
  • Circular and linear form
    circular for rapid replication and stable storage
    removable product that linearizes for transformation and restriction site for cloning
  • can insert 150-3000 kb
31
Q

what are DNA libraries

A

collection of DNA molecules stored in vectors

32
Q

genomic libraries vs. cDNA libraries

A

Genomic libraries:
- store complete genome of an organism
- tissue- independent
- contain complete coding region, including introns
- obtained from restriction enzyme digestion of the entire genome of an organism
- vectors used: plasmids, cosmid, lambda phage, BAC, YAC
- large fragments

cDNA (complementary DNA) libraries:
- store mRNA converted to DNA of a cell/tissue.
i.e all expressed genes of particular cell/tissue
- obtained from the mixture of mRNAs expressed by a particular tissue under given physiologic conditions
- clones lacks introns and a promoter region
enzymes: spliceosome, reverse transcriptase, and DNA polymerase
- vectors used: plasmid, lambda phage,
- small fragments

33
Q

methods that use nucleic acid hybridization

A
  • Gene analysis- based on reversible denaturation of DNA and complementarity
  • southern blotting
  • northern blotting
  • western blotting
  • eastern blotting
  • south-western blot
34
Q

what does gene analysis by hybridization utilize

A

probes- short ssDNA or RNA molecules complementary to specific region. are meant to hybridize with target DNA
- they are labeled for detection using radioactive isotopes, fluorescent/biotin tags
- their design is based on sequence formation

35
Q

describe southern blotting

A
  • DNA is denatured during transfer onto filter membrane. this allows probes to access.
  • uses labeled DNA probes
  • filter hybridized with probe to detect specific DNA fragment
  • detects presence or absence of genes or alleles
  • detects specific restriction fragment out of the millions present in a restriction digest
36
Q

describe northern blotting

A
  • detects RNA with labeled DNA probes
  • useful in determining whether a specific mRNA is expressed in a particular tissue
37
Q

describe western blotting

A
  • detects proteins by using labeled antibodies
38
Q

describe south-western blotting

A

-detects DNA-binding proteins with labeled DNA probes
- useful for detecting expression of transcription factors that interact with regulatory sequences controlling specific genes

39
Q

describe eastern blot

A
  • detects posttranslational modifications
40
Q

what does PCR do?

A

amplifies specific regions of DNA in vitro replication using DNA polymerase
-oligonucleotides act as replication primers
- forward and reverse primers selected to flank target region
- does not require cloning

41
Q

steps of PCR

A
  1. denature template using heat
  2. lower temp to allow hybridization of primers
  3. extend strand using heat-stable DNA polymerase
  4. repeat multiple cycles (25-45)
    heat stable taq polymerase
42
Q

what are PCR applications

A
  1. exponential amplification of DNA: increases efficiency in recombinant DNA procedures
  2. isolation and subcloning of specific segment of genomic DNA
    - design of primers with restriction site to facilitate sub cloning
  3. preparation of DNA probes
  4. diagnostics
  5. quantification of DNA or cDNA by qPCR (quantitative/real time PCR)
  6. forensic DNA analysis
  7. Gene expression analysis by Reverse transcriptase PCR
43
Q

what is the Sanger dideoxy method

A
  • in vitro synthesis of one strand (template based)
  • uses didoexynucleotides to interrupt DNA synthesis using the unknown DNA as the template
  • length is determined by the last base in sequence
44
Q

describe Sanger dye termination sequencing

A
  • daughter strand is denatured and separated by electrophoresis
  • capillary gel electrophoresis separation for high resolution
  • automated process using sequnators
45
Q

how is the efficiency of net-generation sequencing achieved?

A

through pre-amplification of templates by PCR

46
Q

how are genome sequences accessible

A

through databases:
- Genbank
- EMBL

47
Q

How are sequences compared

A

using BLAST (Basic local alignment search tool)
- nucleic acid or protein sequences
- uses similarity scores (p-values)

48
Q

ways of whole genome sequencing

A

early on: physical mapping and ordered sequencing of restriction fragments

shotgun approach: random sequencing and in silico assembly of single contiguous assemblies

49
Q

gene expression studies

A
  1. northern blotting- mRNA expression. through electrophoresis separation, denaturation and blot transfer, hybridization w/ mRNA specific probe for mRNA detection
    - semi-quantitative comparison w/ standard mRNA signal
  2. in situ hybridization- detection of mRNA using labeled DNA or RNA probes. analysis of spatial and/or temporal expression patterns
  3. DNA microarrays- uses high density DNA chips to screen expression of large # of genes
    - isolates total mRNA, requires RT, and flourescently labeled dye & hybridization
    - allows analysis of comparative expression in clinical and lab settings
50
Q

gene functional studies

A
  • in vivo gene expression
  • genetically modified animals
51
Q

novel methods for gene expression analysis

A
  1. RNAseq- applying sequencing methods to RNA for transcriptome analysis. does not require prior knowledge of RNA sequences
  2. ribosome profiling- identify mRNA being actively translated
    -isolated RNA and RNAse digest of free RNA followed by sequencing
    -isolation and sequencing of remaining RNA
    - requires reverse transcription of RNA sequences into cDNA
52
Q

strategies to manipulate gene expression

A
  1. in vivo gene expression- transfection of foreign DNA into eukaryotic cells
    - constitutive (continuous) or inducible (conditional) expression
    - untagged or tagged target protein
    - types of transfection: transient- expression is from cDNA in plasmid DNA; Stable (transformation)- expression from cDNA is integrated into host chromosome
  2. genetically modified animals-
    transgenic animals: animals carry foreign genes into genome and pass to offspring.
    -by injecting trans gene into fertilized egg, random insertion by NHEJ, Selection and breed offspring
    knockout animals: targeted gene inactivation by HR (deleted gene)
    knockin animals: targeted gene replacement (modified gene)
  3. IoxP Cre recombination system- for tissue specific targeted gene disruption by somatic cell recombination.
    -viral recombinase Cre recognizes specific IoxP sequences. cleaves intervening sequences between IoxP sites.
    - targeted gene knockout
  4. CRISPR- bacterial defense using non-coding RNA
    - targets bacteriophages.
    integrates phage DNA fragment into specific genomic regions
    when reinfected, sequences cleaves due to complementarity w/non-coding RNA