Unit 2 Flashcards
(154 cards)
1
Q
In 2nd and 3rd degree AV block, what part of the ECG wave is dropped?
A
QRS complex
2
Q
what are the 5 main leukocytes?
A
neutrophils
monocytes/macrophages
lymphocytes
eosinophils
basophils
3
Q
neutrophils
A
“marine”
makes up ~60-70% of total WBC count
granulocytic segmented cells that are first to response to an immune signal, especially bacterial infections
- phagocytosis
- degranulation
- release of neutrophil extracellular traps (NETS)
4
Q
monocytes/macrophages
A
“general”/”clean up crew”
phagocytic process of using acidic ph to kill microbes and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis
monocytes = blood; macrophages = tissues
boost immune response by presenting antigens on surface to other cells of immune system
3-8% of leukocyte count but largest one
5
Q
lymphocytes
A
originates in bone marrow and moves to lymphoid tissue, develops into T and B cells
- cell mediated immunity (t cells)
- humoral immunity (b cells)
6
Q
T cells
A
cell mediated immunity
form many lymphocytes to destroy foreign antigens and infected cells
cytotoxic, memory, or helper
7
Q
B cells
A
humoral immunity
make antibodies to signal other cells to attack
agglutination, precipitation, neutralization, or lysis
plasma or memory
8
Q
cytotoxic T cells
A
receptors bind to specific receptors that activate cells to release toxic substances into foreign cells
9
Q
helper T cells
A
most numerous, helps activate cytotoxic T cells and B cells, amplifying response
10
Q
memory T cells
A
long lived and respond to antigens later
11
Q
plasma B cells
A
produce antibodies to attach to antigens and signal for destruction
12
Q
memory B cells
A
similar to memory T cells
long lived, respond to antigens later
13
Q
immune mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA)
A
immune system attacks its own RBCs and signals for their destruction
too many RBCs are tagged with antibodies for destruction
14
Q
what causes IMHA?
A
usually is idiopathic, can be trauma, infection, toxins, or neoplasia
15
Q
extravascular IMHA
A
antibody coated RBCs are recognized and phagocytosed by macrophages
16
Q
intravascular IMHA
A
antibody/complement on RBC surface directly leads to cell lysis in circulation
17
Q
clinical signs of IMHA
A
pale/icteric gums
lethargy
collapse and exercise intolerance
anorexia
dark orange/brown urine
tachypnea
vomiting
fever
necrosis of distal extremities
18
Q
risk factors of IMHA
A
basenjis, beagles, westies, cairn terries, abyssinian and somali cats
dogs 2-8 years old
4x more likely in females
19
Q
PE for IMHA
A
depressed/obtunded
weak
tachycardia/tachypnea
bounding pulses +/- grade II left systolic murmur
jaundice
hemoglobinemia/hemoglobinuria
20
Q
diagnostics for IMHA
A
CBC/chem: severe anemia (<15% HCT/PCV)
RET elevated
Leukocytosis + neutrophilia
Thrombocytopenia
TBIL, ALT elevated
UA: r/o hematuria and other kidney damage
smear to look at RBC structure and r/o infectious causes such as mycoplasma or bartonella
autoagglutination test: add small sample of blood on slide and add sterile saline, then move sample around on slide looking for clumping
21
Q
other tests for IMHA
A
coomb’s test looks for antibodies and complement that sticks to RBCs
imaging
bone marrow biopsy to r/o neoplasia
PCR test for infectious disease
22
Q
treatment for IMHA
A
hospitalize with IVF and blood transfusion if PCV < 15%
Dexamethasone IV BID
chronic care on oral steroids (predniso (lo) ne
other immunosuppressive medications such as azathioprine, mycophenolate, or cyclosporine
23
Q
prognosis for IMHA
A
guarded; 30-40% if in crisis, with tx
relapse rate is 11%
24
Q
immune mediated thrombocytopenia
A
destruction of platelets on liver, spleen, or bone marrow
usually idiopathic, but may be due to drugs, neoplasia, or infection
25
clinical signs of IMTP
lethargy
weak
petechia and ecchymotis hemorrhage (bruising)
melena (upper GI blood in stool)
epistaxis (nose bleed)
pale MM
26
PE for IMTP
QAR-obtunded
petechiation
epistaxis
splenomegaly
fever
hemorrhage in eyes
heart murmurs edema or erythema
lymph node enlargement
27
diagnostics for IMTP
cbc/chem: thrombocytopenia (<40,000), anemia
PROT, ALB low
BUN elevated
clotting factor tests usually normal
rads can r/o other issues (splenic mass)
AUS looks for lesions on liver/spleen and can allow aspirates
PCR/ELISA test for infectious disease
28
tx for IMTP
hospitalization with IVF to improve volume and plasma transfusion
chronic care on immunosuppressive drugs (prednisone, azatioprine, cyclosporine)
monitor PLT count q 2 weeks until stable
29
prognosis for IMTP
fair, better than IMHA
16% mortality rate + 10% relapse rate
increased BUN, melena, CNS bleeds indicate - prognosis
30
immune mediated polyarthritis (IMPA)
diseases that cause joint pathology and systemic illness, affecting at least 2 joints with no infectious component, responsive to immunosuppressive tx
31
erosive IMPA
radiographic evidence of cartilage and subchrondal bone destruction in 1+ joints; rare = 1%
frequent in smaller breeds, age 2-6 yrs, stiff, intermittent lameness, swelling of joints, fever, lethargy, inappetence, lymphadenopathy
genetic form in greyhounds
32
nonerosive IMPA
no radiographic evidence of destruction
most common
types:
1. not associated w distant disease, most common
2. associated w infectious or chronic inflammatory disease
3. associated w chronic GI disease
4. associated w distant neoplasia
33
clinical signs of IMPA
difficulty walking/lameness
joint swelling and pain
vomiting
decreased appetite
fever
pitting edema
34
diagnostics for IMPA
synovial fluid analysis
CBC/chem: neutrophilic leukocytosis mild thrombocytopenia and anemia, elevated ALP and UPC ratio, low hypoalbuminemia
antinuclear antibodies test: helps identify autoimmune conditions
rads to r/o other causes of lameness, determine if erosive
PCR/ELISA to r/o vector borne or infectious causes
35
tx for IMPA erosive
prednisone, azatioprine, cyclophosphamide
disease modifying agents such as gold salts, hydroxychloroquine, penicillamine, methotrexate, leflunomide
36
tx for IMPA nonerosive
prednisone, azathioprine, cyclophosphamide, levamisole
37
how can you monitor the progression of IMPA?
recheck CBC q 3-6 mo to ensure not oversuppressing immune system
CHEM to monitor liver/kidney values
repeat synovial fluid analysis PRN
prognosis good is caught before permanent damage
38
what two breeds have specific IMPA?
akita and shar peis
39
nasal cavity
mucus lined airway with bony turbinates to help humidify inhaled air
40
pharynx
area containing structures at back of throat
41
larynx
opening to the trachea, with epiglottis, glottis, and arytenoid cartilage
42
epiglottis
triangle shaped fold that cover the opening to the trachea
43
what are the 4 layers of the trachea?
mucosa, submucosa, musculocartilaginous, adventitia
44
bronchi
first branches from the trachea into each lung lobe
contains less cartilage, muscle, and goblet cells
with clara cells to produce surfactant
45
bronchioles
further branching from bronchi
no cartilage or goblet cells, less muscle
46
alveolar sacs
terminal ends of respiratory tract, made of pneumocytes 1/2 and alveolar macrophages/dust cells
47
pneumocytes type 1
perform gas exchange with pulmonary capillaries
48
pneumocytes type 2
produce surfactant to reduce surface tension
49
alveolar macrophages/dust cells
clear out particles not cleared by URT
50
eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy
eosinophil infiltration of lower respiratory tract (especially bronchial mucosa), due to a hypersensitivity, parasites, chronic bacterial/fungal infections, viruses, external antigens, or allergens
51
eosinophils
related to allergies, hypersensitivities, and parasites
52
what breeds are predisposed to eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy?
huskies, malamutes, labs, gsd, belgian shepherds, fox/jack russels
rare in mini/giant breeds
avg 4-6 years
53
clinical signs of eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy
cough
gagging/retching
dyspnea
nasal d/c
exercise intolerance
lethargy
anorexia
54
PE for eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy
BAR-QAR, sometimes NSF
tachypnea w/ dyspnea
increased lung sounds, wheezing, crackles
+/- serous/mucous discharge
55
what diagnostics for eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy?
cbc: eosinophilia, leukocytosis, neutrophilia, basophilia
chem: nsf
rads: r/o other causes
elisa/pcr tests for VFT, HWT, etc
56
additional ($$$) diagnostics for eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy
bronchoscopy, bronchial lavage, or CT scan
57
treatment for eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy
treat co infections first with antibiotics, anti-fungals, anti-parasitics
pred chronically
58
what causes feline asthma?
scents or other allergens, cats are very sensitive
immune cells trigger inflammatory substances, decreasing the diameter of airways and allowing mucus to accumulate within the passages
59
what breeds are predisposed to feline asthma?
siamese
4-5 yrs
60
what are the clinical signs for feline asthma?
dyspnea
wheezing
tachypnea
coughing/hacking
open mouth breathing
vomiting
61
PE for feline asthma
increased tracheal sensitivity
harsh lung sounds, crackles, wheezes
abdominal breathing
may present w extreme dyspnea, cyanosis, open mouth
hunched with extended neck
62
diagnostics for feline asthma
rads: diffuse bronchial/bronchiointerstitial patterns, hyperinflation, collapse of right middle lung lobe caused by mucus plug obstruction
cbc/chem: neutrophilia, eosinophilia, hyperproteinemia
bronchoscopy: examine mucosa of respiratory tract and definitively diagnose samples
63
treatment for asthma
inhalant albuterol (1-3 puffs SID-BID)
Prednisolone periodically to control episodes
64
canine bronchitis
most common chronic canine airway disorder, where airways become inflamed and cause a chronic cough and excessive mucus production, leading to difficulty maintaining appropriate o2 levels
65
what causes canine bronchitis?
bacterial infections, hypersensitivities, inhalation of airway irritants
66
what are the risk factors of canine bronchitis
no breed disposition but common in toy breeds
6yo +
67
what are the clinical signs of canine bronchitis?
deep harsh cough
wheezing
dyspnea
gagging, choking, or swallowing after cough
exercise intolerance
68
PE for canine bronchitis
BAR-QAR
slightly lethargic
inspiratory/expiratory crackles/harshness
all else NSF
69
diagnostics for canine bronchitis
rads: interstitial or bronchointerstitial pattern in dorsal caudal lung lobes
broncheoalveolar lavage: cytology shows lots of neutrophils, +/- lymphocytes, eosinophils, and epithelial cells
tracheobronchial culture: if poss infection
bronchoscopy with biopsy: definitively diagnose, but not required
r/o tests: HWT, VFT, PCR/ELISA
70
tx for canine bronchitis
prednisone to decrease inflammation and decrease mucus production, taper to lowest dose for chronic management
antibiotics, antiparasitics, antifungals only if necessary
cough suppressants to relieve discomfort of dry cough
71
what is the prognosis for canine bronchitis?
treatable, not curable
can life a normal QOL if well managed
72
URI
can be viral or bacterial
infect the conjunctiva of the eye and nasal cavity, then organisms are shed in ocular, nasal, and oral secretions to transmit infection by direct contact
73
what are the most common URIs in cats?
feline herpesvirus type 1 (FHV)
feline calicivirus (FCV)
Bordetella bronchiseptica
Chlamydophila felis
74
what are the most common URIs in dogs?
Bordetella bronchiseptica
Canine adenovirus type 2
Canine parainfluenza virus
canine influenza
75
what are 2 infectious viruses that affect cats?
FHV and FCV
76
FHV
infects conjunctiva of eyes, will go into latent stage in trigeminal ganglion for long periods of time
sneezing, conjunctivitis, oculonasal d/c, depression, inappetence, dehydration, salivation, ulcerative keratitis
most common cause of URIs in cats
incubation pd is 10-14 days
77
FCV
causes moderate, self limiting acute disease, some strains can induce lameness
sneezing nasal congestion, fever, drooling, oculonasal d/c, inflammation and ulcers on tongue and lining of mouth
if virulent systemic disease: swelling of head and legs, crusing sores and hair loss on nose, eyes, ears, footpads, liver damage, spontaneous bleeding, fatal in up to 60%
incubation pd is 14 days and can take 5-6 weeks to resolve
78
what are 3 infectious viruses that infect dogs?
adenovirus type 2, parainfluenza, influenza (H3N8 and H3N2)
79
adenovirus type 2
transmitted through dogs by close contact w resp secretions
dry hacking cough, retching/gagging, coughing up white foamy d/c, fever, nasal d/c, conjunctivitis
incubation pd 3-10 days
80
parainfluenza
spread via aerosolized respiratory secretions
low grade fever, deep dry cough, watery nasal d/c, pharyngitis/tonsilitis
in puppies, may have lethargy, fever, inappetence, pneumonia
incubation pd 2-8 days
81
influenza
spread via aerosolized respiratory secretions and fomites
oculonasal d/c (purulent), sneezing, lethargy, anorexia, fever
incubation pd: 1-5 days
82
what are 2 bacteria that infect cats?
chlamydia felis and bordetella bronchiseptica
83
chlamydia felis
requires direct contact between cats
conjunctivitis, protruding 3rd eyelids, mild fever, purulent ocular d/c, sneezing
incubation pd is 3-10 days
84
bordetella bronchiseptica
highly infectious and spread via aerosolized resp secretions and fomites
loud honking cough, oculonasal d/c, swollen tonsils, wheezing, anorexia, lethargy
incubation pd is 2-14 days
85
diagnostics for URIs
clinical signs lead to diagnosis usually
viral infections: PCR of swab of conjunctiva, nose, and throat
bacterial infections: PCR or cultures
rads: bronchointerstitial pattern, used to r/o pneumonia as secondary infection
86
tx of viral URI
NSAID to reduce fever
- dogs: carprofen, previcox, galliprant, metacam
- cats: onsior and metacam
abx if secondary bacterial infection
l-lysine supports immune system if FHV
87
tx of bacterial URI
doxycycline, clavamox, orbax (cats), enrofloxacin (dogs), eye drops/ointment
88
pneumonia
bacterial infections in lower resp tract
host defenses fail and lead to bacterial colonization
89
what are host defenses of respiratory tract against bacteria?
nasoturbinate filtration
protective airway reflexes
mucociliary clearance
phagocytosis and killing by macrophages
90
what are the bacteria most likely to be found in pneumonia?
bordetella bronchiseptica
streptococcus
staphylococcus
pasteurella
klebsiella
e coli
mycoplasma
chlamydia
91
routes of infection
inhallation of hematogenous (seeding of lung from bacteremia with infection of any distant tissue site)
92
clinical signs of pneumonia
fever, dyspnea, exercise intolerance, lethargy, coughing, nasal d/c, loud breathing, tachypnea, weight loss, anorexia, dehydration
93
risk factors of pneumonia
pre existing respiratory disorder/infection or other diseases such as pulmonary thromboembolism, esophageal dysphagia (megaesophagus), soft palate deformities, sepsis, fb, neoplasia
94
PE for pneumonia
BAR-depressed
wheezing, crackles, and inc/dec breathing sounds
lethargic
fever
95
diagnostics for pneumonia
rads: alveolar pattern in entire lung lobe or ventral tips, most often affecting cranioventral lung and R middle lung lobe
CBC/chem: leukocytosis with neutrophilia
transtracheal wash: cytology/culture
96
pleural effusion (pneumonia associated)
transudate: cellular and proteinaceous fluid due to leaky vessels
septic: spread of infection into pleural space
97
tx for pleural effusion
SQF, treat underlying cause with antifungals, antiparasitics, palliative treatment, hosp generally not needed
send out culture to not best abx to use
can take 1-6 weeks to clear
98
what is parvovirus?
a non-enveloped DNA virus
the leading cause of enteritis in dogs
99
what are the 2 types of parvovirus?
CPV-2a
CPV-2b
100
CPV-2a
first mutation from original parvovirus, can be very aggressive
101
CPV-2b
most common form of parvovirus, can affect cats
felines vaccinated against distemper usually protected
102
how is parvovirus transmitted?
direct dog/dog contact and contact with contaminated feces, environments, and people (easily carried by fomites)
resistant to heat, humidity, drying, cleaners
shed in feces 4-5d post exposure up to 10d in recovery
103
pathogenesis of parvovirus
1. myocardial failure: neonatal pups infected in utero or shortly after birth
2. enteritis:
- targets tissue with rapid turnover (intestinal epithelium, lymphoid tissue, bone marrow)
- causes epithelial necrosis in intestinal tract, atrophy
and collapse of epithelium, loss of absorptive capacity -> hemorrhagic d and v
- lymphoblasts (lymphatic tissue) + myeloblasts (bone marrow) are destroyed --> lymphopenia
104
clinical signs of parvovirus
lethargy
anorexia
abd pain/bloat
fever or hypothermia
vomiting
severe diarrhea +/- hemorrhagic
rapid dehydration
shock
105
risk factor of parvovirus
young (6wk-6mo) unvaccinated or incomplete vx
little-no colostrum as a neonate
rottweilers, dobys, APBT, springer spaniels, gsd
106
how long does it take for clinical signs of parvovirus to show?
5-7 days of exposure, can range from 2-14
107
PE for parvovirus
depressed
fever or hypothermia
long CRT due to dehydration
intestinal loops dilated/fluid filled on palpation
abd pain
poor pulse quality
tachycardia
108
diagnostics for parvovirus
parvo snap test
CBC/Chem: leukopenia with lymphopenia and neutropenia, azotemia, hypoalbuminemia, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypochloremia, hypoglycemia, increased liver enzymes
rads: r/o GIFB and intussusception
109
tx for parvovirus
supportive care
IVF (isotonic crystalloids) to add electrolytes and protein
antiemetics: cerenia/metoclopramide
antidiarrheals: probiotics +/- metronidazole
abx: penicillins to prevent sepsis
antacids: calm stomach and balance ph
in severe cases, glucose, tube feeding, and blood transfusion may be needed
110
what is canine distemper?
enveloped RNA virus, not species specific
2nd leading cause of virus induced fatality in dogs
111
what is the mortality rate of parvovirus?
20%
survivual rate: 9% if untreated, 90% if hospitalized
112
what animals are susceptible to canine distemper?
large felids, most canids, raccoons, red pandas, otters, ferrets, bears, elephants, japanese monkeys, seals, dolphins
113
how is canine distemper transmitted?
close contact via oronasal aerosol, can be shed in urine
shed from all body secretions
114
pathogenesis of canine distemper
macrophages carry to preferred site of infection
can spread to lymphoid organs and cause severe immunosuppression, resulting in risk of secondary infections
lymphocyte loss due to direct viral damage and apoptosis of uninfected lymphocytes, especially CD4+ T cells
can end up in cerebrospinal fluid and infect tissues in CNS
can result in recovery OR usually irreversible neurological form
115
risk factors of canine distemper
unvaccinated puppies >12wks old
116
what are the clinical signs of canine distemper in the neurologic phase?
localized involuntary muscle twitching
seizures with salivation and chewing movements
circling
head tild
nystagmus (circular eye motion)
paresis - paralysis
117
what are the clinical signs of canine distemper in the cararrhal phase?
fever 3-6d post infection
anorexia
serous nasal d/c
mucopurulent ocular d/c
lethargy
diarrhea
pustular dermatitis
hyperkeratosis of food pads/nose
hypoplasia of enamel on unerupted teeth
118
diagnostics for canine distemper
often via clinical signs
PCR, ELISA, IFA
cerebrospinal fluid analysis
necropsy for distemper inclusion bodies
r/o for other diseases- parvo, pneumonia, URI, parasites
119
tx for distemper
supportive care, treat secondary infections
antidiarrheals, IVF, anti-seizures, pain, anti-inflammatories, etc
120
what is the mortality rate of distemper?
50%, can be 80% in puppies
121
what happens after a patient recovers from distemper?
will have permanent damage and suffer from same clinical signs presented with
122
prevention for distemper and parvo
vx
123
rabies
zoonotic disease found in almost every mammal (not rabbits/rodents)
enveloped RNA virus
124
pathogenesis of rabies
infected animal's saliva enters victim's tissue in bite
virus attached to muscle cells for 2 days, then local nerves, then brain
immune system useless once in nerves
slow progression (3-8wk avg) can take 1 yr
reaches brain, in 2-3 days more in saliva
transmissible, symptoms begin
125
clinical signs of rabies
prodromal stage (first 2-3 days of symptoms): personality change, larynx spasms, licking/scratching of wound
excitative stage (next 1-7 days): fearless animal, hallucinations, aggressive
paralytic/dumb stage (next 2-4 days): weakness/paralysis, larynx is paralyzed, inability to swallow, drooling/foaming
126
diagnosis of rabies
fluorescent antibody testing of the brain
animal must be euthanized, decap, and brain sent to lab
bw, PCR, etc can r/o other diseases (dangerous to attempt)
127
tx of rabies
no treatment, ~100% fatal within 10 days
preventable with vaccine, >99% effective
can have a post-exposure vx booster
128
infectious
disease or disease causing agent transmitted to animal/human via environment
129
contagious
disease or disease causing agent transmitted between animals and/or humans
130
FIV (feline immunodeficiency virus)
enveloped RNA virus that infects 2.5-5% of healthy cats
can have a long latent period (avg 5 years)
lifelong and eventually fatal infection
131
how is FIV transmitted?
direct contact via bite wounds
cohabitation transmission rare
queens may transmit vertically to kittens in utero, during birth, or through ingestion of infected milk
IV transmission of contaminated blood
132
pathogenesis of FIV
infects/destroys T lymphocytes (CD4+), impairing cell mediated immunity and leading to chronic/recurrent infections
impaired production/dysregulation of cytokines
133
risk factors of FIV
most common in cats >6y
adult male cats (aggression -> bites)
living outdoors or in high density habitats
134
clinical signs of FIV
can be asymptomatic
progressive phase:
eye d/c
coughing
gingivitis + severe dental disease
weight loss
seizures
behavioral changes
lymphadenopathy
135
diagnostics for FIV
idexx FIV/Felv/HW snap test, following by western blot or PCR
cbc/chem: neutrophenia, low ALT/GGT, hyperglobulinemia
136
tx for FIV
no tx and no vx
reduce risk by avoiding feral cats and testing new cats prior to introduction, spay/neuter, balances diets, avoid raw foods
treat secondary infections as needed to improve prognosis
137
Felv (feline leukemia)
enveloped RNA virus that affects 2-3% of cats in US
can be a lifelong infection with long latency period
138
transmission of Felv
direct contact via saliva and nasal secretions
indirectly via contact with feces from shedders
mother to offspring via nursing (latent in mammary glands)
does not survive >few hours outside of cat's body
139
pathogenesis of Felv
oropharynx --> local lymphoid tissues --> bone marrow
infects blood cells precursors --> viremia
infects salivary glands and intestinal lining
viremia can be overcome, leading to high antibody titers and cytotoxic T lymphocytes
140
risk factors of Felv
12-16wk old kittens are at highest risk
males (esp intact)
multi cat households or outdoors
141
clinical signs of Felv
can be asymptomatic
dec appetite
progressive weight loss
poor coat condition
lymphadenopathy
fever
pale MM
gingivitis, stomatitis (oral mucosa)
infections of skin, UTI, URI
diarrhea
seizures, behavior changes, other neurological signs
eye issues
abortion
142
PE of Felv
can be NSF
fever
lethargy
painful along spin due to lymphoma
eye/skin infection
petechia
abscesses
enlarged abd organs (liver/spleen)
143
diagnostics for Felv
idexx FIV/Felv/HW snap test, followed by PCR and ELISA
rads if concerned about spine/vertebrae
cbc/chem: neutropenia, anemia, thrombocytopenia, leukocytosis, lymphocytosis, low CREA
bm biopsy: r/o other neoplasia and dysfunction
144
tx for Felv
treat secondary infections and neoplasia
median survival time is 2.5y, can live long/normal life
preventable with vx and reducing exposure factors
145
what would a histopathology of an infected Felv show?
enlarged lymph nodes
thickened alveolar walls of lung, occasional necrotic cells
white matter tracts in cerebrum and cerebellum
146
FIP (feline infectious peritonitis)
mutated form of enteric coronavirus, infectious but not contagious to cats or people
common in catteries
147
how is coronavirus transmitted in cats?
fecal oral
virus is killed with disinfectants
148
how does the enteric coronavirus affect cats?
attacks intestinal epithelial cells and creates GI upset
149
pathogenesis of FIP
macrophage consumed infected material and creates antibody response, resisting tx
infected macrophages produce ineffective macrophages and immunologic proteins and creates a pyogranuloma
150
risk factors of FIP
<1y old
genetic factor
early weaning
overcrowding and litter box sharing
151
clinical signs of FIP
sneezing
watery eyes
nasal d/c
diarrhea
inappetence
weight loss
lethargy
fever
jaundice
dry: seizures and ataxia
wet: pleural effusion, ascites
152
PE for FIP
fever, lethargy, ascites, wheezing on pulmonary auscultation, ataxia
153
diagnostics for FIP
no definitive diagnostics, only r/o tests
cbc/chem: non-regenerative anemia, leukocytosis, hypoalbuminemia, hyperglobulinemia
test effusions: ascites thick and yellow, Rivalta's test requires acetic acid, can do immunofluorescent stain
PCR
154
tx for FIP
no tx but antiviral drug in testing at UCD
100% fatal, can take days-months for body to eventually shut down
