Unit 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What AF program is designed to restore health while optimizing and sustaining human
performance?

O

A

OEH program.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why is AFI 48–145 considered the foundational document for the overall AF OEH program?

In

A

Instructions towards capturing, analyzing, documenting & communicating information risks in the work place.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why are agencies within the federal government such as EPA, OSHA, NRC, DOT, and others,
called regulatory agencies?

enforce

A

enforce rules & regulations that carry the law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

If you needed to research a topic dealing with protecting human health and welfare related to a
work place, which CFR title would you need?

L

A

Title 29 CFR, Labor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Within which AF publication series would you find most of the BE-related publications?

4…

A

48 series.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which agency has chemical hazard risk assessments that provide MEGs used for exposures to OEH chemical hazards?

US army

A

US Army Public Health Center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does the acronym DOEHRS-IH stand for?

Defense

A

Defense Occupational and Environmental Health Readiness System - Industrial Hygiene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the four DOEHRS-IH modules is used to record complete/potentially complete
exposure pathways?

Env

A

Environmental Health.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the primary tool BE uses for identifying and evaluating OEH threats not captured in
Industrial Hygiene?

which survey?

A

OEHSA survey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is contained in and individual’s LER?

history of

A

history of
(1) Pre-deployment.
(2) Deployment.
(3) Post-deployment exposure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the difference between an HRA and HRM?

A

HRA is the process of identifying and defining dose-response relationships and hazard criteria,

HRM is the process of evaluating, and
implementing courses of action to reduce risk to human health.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Why are the terms HRA and HRM used interchangeably?

both do

A

Individuals who assess OEH risks both evaluate the risk (HRA) and implement courses of action and
conduct follow-up assessments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the four principles for implementing RM?

accept no

A

(1) Accept no unnecessary risk.
(2) Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.
(3) Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.
(4) Anticipate and manage risk by planning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the ultimate goal of the HRA?

provide lead

A

provide leadership with clear health related impacts and advises on how to minimize health risks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Is a special OEH assessment typically a qualitative or quantitative assessment?

A

Quantitative.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What two goals does the workplace categorization process achieve?

prioritizing

A

(1) Prioritizing places that pose the greatest health risks
(2) Scheduling frequency for routine assessments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How often are routine OEH assessments performed in Workplace Category 1 shops and Workplace Category 2 shops?

A

Category 1 - Every 12 months
Category 2 - 30 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the first step you should take before visiting the work place?

L

A

learn existing OEH data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How is a shop process defined within DOEHRS?

lowest level of

A

As the lowest level of work performed in a shop that may pose a risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are three acceptable methods for establishing a SEG?

observing

A

(1) Observing work practices.
(2) OEH hazard assessment & define the SEG.
(3) A combination of both activities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When is a special OEH assessment required?

routine assesment…

A

1- routine assessment identifies an OEH risk.
2- required on a recurring basis ( expanded standards )
3- requests from workplace supervisors, medical providers, and/or other base agencies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Purpose of using the the exposure assessment priority (EAP) ?

prioritize s

A

prioritize special assessments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How do you communicate to the work place the results of its OEH assessment?

C

A

closing conference with the workplace supervisor
provide written routine OEH assessment report.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the purpose of conducting an occupational illness or injury investigation?

Determine

A

(1) Determine if a worker’s injury or illness is or was related to his/her job.
(2) Identify the reason(s) why a person experienced the illness/injury so future occurrences can be
prevented.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the difference between an occupational injury and an occupational illness?
injury - evolves over the period a single workday illness - evolves over more than one work shift
26
What are pregnant worker evaluations designed to accomplish?
Protect the fetus from chemical, biological, radiological, or physical substances.
27
Who is responsible for reviewing the facts and making a determination whether or not to remove the pregnant individual from current workplace duties? | H
health care provider
28
Air Force Inspection System (AFIS) provide commanders? | a units...
(1) A unit’s compliance with established directives (2) A unit’s ability to report and fix deficiencies. (3) A unit’s ability to prevent fraud
29
What type of external inspections and evaluations might BE be involved with? | unit effectiveness ... and two other
unit effectiveness inspection RAM permit inspection nuclear surety inspection
30
What four major grading areas does a unit effectiveness inspection follow? | managing
(1) Managing resources. (2) Leading people. (3) Improving the unit. (4) Executing the mission.
31
Which external inspection is no-notice?
RAM Inspection.
32
Who will determine the appropriate training and resourcing requirements; assess status of discipline; evaluate wing readiness; and formulate command welfare strategies?
Commander.
33
What program addresses internal inspections? | c
CC’s inspection program (CCIP)
34
Who executes the wing inspection program?
Wing IG.
35
What two tools are used in the self-assessment program? | s
The SAC and MICT.
36
AF program of record used to accomplish self-assessment of program management | m
Management Internal Control Toolset
37
List two reasons why we review self-help projects, work order requests, and construction design plans. | assess
- assess the long-term impact on workplace - hazards the construction itself may generate
38
What types of hazards should you consider when reviewing work orders? | c
Chemicals, biological, and physical hazards.
39
Who is responsible for initiating work requests or corrective action in the facility?
Facility manager.
40
When it is the best time to review construction plans and introduce engineering controls?
When the facility is in the design phase.
41
What are the five elements of an exposure pathway that must be considered? | source...
(1) Source of an OEH threat release. (2) Environmental media. (3) Health threat. (4) Route of exposure. (5) PAR.
42
What OEHSA tool provides a visual representation of all OEH threats
Conceptual site model
43
What is a Complete Exposure Pathway? | all 5
All five elements of an exposure pathway are present
44
Major difference in the pre-deployment/baseline activities step of an OEHSA performed in-garrison versus deployed? | info
information available on the site.
45
What is the objective of site sectoring? | separate
separate known OEH threats & PARs.
46
What is the recommended radius distance for evaluating off-site OEH threats to the base population?
10 kilometers around installation
47
What is the term for a quick qualitative exposure assessment that is used to determine whether or not an exposure pathway is complete?
Initial assessment.
48
What two RM concepts are used to prioritize a special OEH assessment of CSM exposure pathways? | P
Probability & severity
49
Once you have a consolidated CSM and the OEHSA survey in DOEHRS is complete, to whom are you required to communicate the outcome and findings of the OEHSA survey? | Oeh..
The OEWHG.
50
When recommending engineering controls, what are three approaches that can be used to control OEH hazards? | sub
Substitution, isolation, and ventilation.
51
What three parameters can be applied to assess the effectiveness of a control? | able to
(1) able to mitigate the OEH threat exposure (2) The responsible organization must be able to reasonably implement the control option. (3) The control must be practical
52
What four concepts describe the quality of PPE chemical resistance? | P
Permeation, breakthrough time, penetration and degradation qualities.
53
Describe permeation as it relates to PPE.
chemical dissolves in or moves through a material on a molecular basis.
54
Describe breakthrough time as it relates to PPE.
The time it takes a chemical to permeate completely through a material.
55
What are some of the physiological effects of wearing PPE? | Changes in heart...
Changes in heart rate, increase water loss, impair vision, mobility and communication.
56
What are the five minimum PPE training requirements that BE is responsible to provide to workers? | .... is necessary
(1) When PPE is necessary. (2) What PPE is necessary. (3) How to properly don, doff, adjust, and wear PPE. (4) The limitations of the PPE. (5) The proper care, maintenance, useful life and disposal of the PPE.
57
The general guidelines for selecting PPE include what six factors? | clothing ...
(1) Clothing design, (2) material chemical resistance, (3) physical properties, (4) ease of determination, (5) cost, and (6) chemical protective clothing standards.
58
What is the best source of information on material compatibility with chemical hazards? | M
The manufacturer of the selected clothing.
59
What is a RAC? | Degree
degree of risk
60
According to AFI 91–202, who is qualified to evaluate hazards or deficiencies and assign a RAC? | S
safety, fire protection, BE, aerospace medicine
61
For a health-related RAC, how is the health hazard severity category (HHSC) determined? | Comibning
combining the points for exposure & the effects
62
Describe where viruses are typically found. | in the host...
In the host’s bodily fluids.
63
What must happen in order for infection to occur? | Pathogen...
pathogen from the source to the host.
64
What is the primary difference between a direct and an indirect mode of transmission?
Direct transmission is exposure through direct physical contact Indirect transmission is not.
65
What process can be used to identify potential biological threats? | oeh...
OEHSA process.
66
What sources can be used to identify biological health threats? | d
DOEHRS, National Center for Medical Intelligence [NCMI]) intelligence reports
67
List five examples of occupations that have a greater chance of coming into contact with biological threats. | n
Nurses, technicians, doctors, laboratory personnel, janitorial staff, and emergency response personnel
68
The formal biological threat assessment will be performed with which other organizations? | med
Public health & medical professionals.
69
What is the goal of control measures? | break
To break the chain of infection.
70
Which type of controls are methods of isolating, removing, or transmitting the transmission of biological hazards?
Engineering controls.
71
What is the first step before you can make chemical hazard control recommendations? | what makes
what makes the chemical hazardous.
72
Why are gases and vapors usually grouped together? | b
behave similarly
73
Why is it important to have a working knowledge of a chemical’s physical properties, nomenclature, and exposure effects? | ensure proper
To ensure a proper assessment of a solvent exposure.
74
Why is paint itself not a chemical you can evaluate?
is composite mixture
75
If an SDS is not provided with the first shipment of a hazardous chemical, how is one obtained? | supervisor
The workplace supervisor must request it from the manufacturer or supplier.
76
When must carcinogenic chemicals be listed on an SDS?
If the concentration of the chemical is ≥ 1%.
77
What part of an SDS provides information on how to handle an accidental chemical spill? | acc
Accidental release measures.
78
Where on the SDS would you look to determine if there are any PPE requirements when working with a specific chemical? | exposure
Exposure controls section.
79
Why did OSHA develop/publish substance specific standards? | adherence to the...
adherence to the PEL is not enough.
80
When must the requirements contained in a substance specific standard be implemented? | if sampling results
If air sampling results indicate exposure levels greater than the PEL.
81
On what two factors does the degree of risk of exposure to a given substance depend? | m
magnitude& duration of exposure.
82
When do you begin identifying chemical threats? | defining
When defining the processes
83
What is the primary source for locating chemical ingredient information? | s
SDS
84
After having identified the chemicals that could potentially cause adverse health effects, what is the next step? | detemine
determine if a completed exposure pathway exists.
85
What percentage of occupational skin contact injuries are caused by primary irritants?
80 %
86
When would you use indirect dermal monitoring? | high
high hazard chemicals where dermal exposure is expected
87
What are the most commonly recognized routes of exposure when considering occupational hazards?
Inhaling chemical substances
88
What effect does high VP or high temperature have on a chemical? | producing
producing high vapor concentrations
89
What is the next step to take once it is determined that a chemical process poses a risk to personnel? | obtain
Obtain information needed to formulate potential controls.
90
Simply stated, what is the best way of controlling chemicals that can cause dermatitis? | prevent
Prevent skin contact with the offending substance(s).
91
What must be done before you can recommend a specific type of protective glove? | identify
Identify the constituents in the chemicals that can potentially contact a person’s skin.
92
Why should direct vented eye goggles not be used for protection against liquid chemical exposures? | they do not
They do not provide the necessary protection.
93
Explain the reason why occupational skin disorders can result in complex impairment to workers. | large surfaces
Because large surfaces of skin are often directly exposed to the worker’s environment.
94
When is using substitution as an engineering control not an option? | specific material
When a specific material is required by a technical order.
95
What are examples of administrative controls for a chemical absorption hazard? | H
Housekeeping & personal hygiene
96
Using a bead blasting booth is an example of what type of engineering control? | I
Isolation.
97
Why use caution when implementing worker rotation to reduce or limit exposures to chemical threats? | Larger numbner
A larger number of workers will be exposed to the chemical threat.
98
How does a regulated area limit workers’ exposures? | it res
It restricts access
99
What publication would you reference to determine if a work area requires the establishment of a regulated area? | osha
The OSHA standard for specific criteria relevant to the substances or chemicals of concern.`
100
How does a sound source cause variations in atmospheric pressure? | bends
The surface of a sound source first bends in one direction and the air molecules next to it become compressed.
101
Explain the difference between a pure tone and complex sounds. | sound wave
A pure tone is a sound wave characterized by one single frequency.
102
What characteristic or quality of a sound wave represents the speed of sound?
Velocity.
103
Describe sound pressure and state its unit of measure. | difference between
difference between normal atmospheric pressure and the actual pressure DB
104
What does weighting mean in relation to sound? | calibrated to respond
Sound measuring instruments are calibrated to respond to frequencies in the same way as the human ear.
105
Describe auditory effects of noise.
hearing loss, tinnitus and acoustic trauma.
106
Describe non-auditory effects of noise.
undesirable effects on the body other than hearing effects.
107
What noise levels define potentially hazardous noise? | steady state noise
Steady-state noise having an 8-hour TWA noise level greater than or equal to 85 dB(A),
108
Distinguish between criterion level and exchange rate.
The criterion level - sound level allowed for an 8-hour exposure exchange rate - increase of 3 dB, the allowable exposure time is cut in half.
109
What information about the workroom should you gather to help when evaluating noise sources/areas? | shape
shape, size, layout of equipment, workstations, & break areas.
110
When must you calibrate a SLM? | b
Before and after each period of measurement.
111
To what setting do you set the SLM to perform a noise source survey? | a
A-weighting, slow response.
112
Where should you position the microphone of a SLM when taking noise source survey measurements? | at the
at the ear but preferably with the operator at least 3 feet away.
113
What measurements do you take with an octave band analyzer? | d
Measurements are taken for dB(A), dB flat, and one for each of the octave bands.
114
You have performed an OBA in an audiometric booth. All of your octave band measurements were below the limits established in AFI 48–127. How often will you monitor the audiometric booth?
Annually.
115
What is the primary purpose for performing noise dosimetry? | quantify
To quantify worker exposure and determine if personnel need to be enrolled in the HCP.
116
At what parameters should your dosimeter be set? | criterion -
(1) Criterion Level: 85 dB(A). (2) Threshold Level: 80 dB(A). (3) Exchange Rate: 3 dB.
117
When do you perform noise dosimetry? | determined
determined for all AF workers routinely
118
Name the ways noise can be controlled at the source. | process substitution
Process substitution, product substitution and machine treatments.
119
Name ways noise can be controlled in its path. | s
Shields and barriers, enclosures, and room treatments.
120
How and where must a hazardous noise area be labeled? | marked where
marked where feasible to alert personnel of the potential hazard.
121
When should you use the octave band method for determining HPD noise attenuation? | exceeds
When the 8-hour TWA exceeds 94 dB(A).
122
When should you use the NRR method of estimating HPD noise attenuation?
When the 8-hour TWA is less than 94 dB(A).
123
Ergonomic risk factors include what type of hazards? | v
Vibration, repetition, awkward and/or static postures, forceful exertion and heavy lifting, contact stress, and temperature.
124
What questions should you ask while gathering information for an ergonomic assessment? | how many
How many workers are employed in each job? - caracteristics of the workforce
125
How can you help determine if fatigue influences the way work is performed? | visiting
By visiting the shop at different times during the day.
126
List some examples of engineering controls that you might recommend for ergonomic hazards. | change
Change the transportation methods, change the process or product, modify containers or parts presentation for easier reach, and change workstation layout.
127
What are some benefits of administrative controls? | they can be implemented..
They can be implemented quickly, often at low cost, making them useful as temporary measures while awaiting engineering control implementation.
128
List the signs and symptoms of heat illness. | dizziness
(1) Dizziness or confusion. (2) Nausea or vomiting. (3) Staggering. (4) Disturbed vision. (5) Confusion, collapse or loss of consciousness.
129
What is the most serious heat-related disorder?
Heat stroke.
130
List the work-related risk factors to consider when accomplishing a heat stress evaluation. | hot
Hot environments, high work demands, and protective clothing requirements.
131
What climatic factors influence the rate of heat exchange between a person and the environment? | air
Air temperature and air speed.
132
What are the physiological responses to cold stress?
reducing blood circulation to the skin shivering,
133
At what outside daily high temperature are wet bulb globe temperature (WBGT) measurements taken and how often? | at
At 85 °F, WBGT measurements are to be taken a minimum of four times, evenly spaced, during the hottest part of the day.
134
What offices/personnel are involved in determining the FITS zones and notifying the aircrews?
Meteorological/weather staffs, BE personnel, and squadron operations flights.
135
Who approves and authorizes unit commanders to reduce the MOPP level?
The senior AF commander.
136
List the equipment and supplies needed to perform a WBGT.
(1) WBGT apparatus/kit. (2) Tripod or stand to mount or suspend thermometers for unrestricted airflow. (3) Distilled water. (4) Equipment instructions (if using a digital WBGT kit).
137
No matter what device is used to obtain a WBGT, how should it be positioned? | ensure there is un
Ensure there is unrestricted airflow around the device.
138
How should the device be oriented if you use the WGBT model with a globe on the end? | towards
Orient the instrument so that the globe end is towards the sun.
139
At what temperatures is a red flag is displayed?
88–89.9 oF.
140
Which engineering control involves using a fan to reduce the temperature in a work area? | d
Dilution ventilation.
141
List the administrative controls for thermal stress. | acc
Acclimatization, pace of work, sharing work, scheduling of work, work times, self-determination, personal monitoring, fluid replacement, diet, life-style, and general health, as well as awareness training.
142
What form of control is used when a worker varies the amount of clothing worn in a cold climate? | p
PPE.
143
Explain the possible injuries that can occur when personnel don protective masks in extremely cold temperatures. | frost
frostbite on the face.
144
Describe how wearing chemical protective rubber gloves can hinder a person’s protection from cold weather. | unable to
unable to wear cold weather mittens over the rubber gloves.