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Physiology > Unit 2 > Flashcards

Unit 2 Flashcards

1
Q

the Central Nervous System (CNS) consists of the _____ +_____, while the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) consists of the _____+_____

A

brain + spinal chord;

cranial nerves + spinal nerves (and all their branches

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2
Q

what are the two principal types of nervous system cells?

A

neurons and supporting (glial) cells

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3
Q

define neurons

A

the functional (conducting) cells of the nervous system; does the work; permenant

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4
Q

true or false: neurons undergo mitosis

A

FALSE; no mitosis bc are considered permenant cells, only regeneration of dendrites and axons can occur as longs as the cell body is intact

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5
Q

______ is considered the bundle of axons

A

nerve

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6
Q

_____ is a structure where neuron cell bodies are clustered together and surrounded and protected as part of the PNS, while still regulated by the CNS

A

ganglion

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7
Q

while most neuron cell bodies are in the _____, some can be found in the _____.

A

CNS;

ganglion

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8
Q

name the 3 parts of a neuron

A
  1. cell body
  2. dentrites
  3. axon
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9
Q

what is an association neuron (aka interneuron)?

A

multipolar neuron located entirely within the CNS

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10
Q

what is a sensory neuron?

A

neuron that transmits impulses from a sensory receptor in the CNS

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11
Q

what is a motor neuron?

A

a neuron that transmits impulses from the CNS to an effector organ, like a muscle

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12
Q

a sensory neuron is ______ while a motor neuron is ______.

A

afferent;

efferent

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13
Q

a _____ is a cablelike collection of many axons in the PNS; may be “mixed” (containing both sensory and motor fibers)

A

nerve

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14
Q

what is a nerve that stimulates the contraction of skeletal muscles?

A

somatic motor nerve

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15
Q

what is a nerve that stimulates the contraction (or inhibits contraction) of smooth muscle and cardiac muscle and that stimulates glandular secretion

A

autonomic motor nerve

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16
Q

____ is a grouping of neuron cell bodies located OUTSIDE the CNS

A

ganglion

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17
Q

_____ is a grouping of neurons cell bodies WITHIN the CNS

A

nucleus

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18
Q

____ is a grouping of axons that interconnect regions of the CNS

A

tract

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19
Q

_____ ______ is energy dependent and is often divided into a fast component and 2 slow components

A

axonal transport

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20
Q

the dierection in which axonal transport may occur from the cell body to the axon and dentrites is called

A

anterograde transport

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21
Q

what does anterograde transport involve?

A

molecular motors of kinesin proteins that move cargo along microtubules of the cytoskeleton

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22
Q

_________ involves axonal transport along the axon and dendrites toward the cell body

A

retrograde transport

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23
Q

what does retrograde transport involve

A

molecular motor proteins of dyneins that move membranes, vescicles, and various molecules along microtubules of the cytoskeleton toward the cell bodt of the neuron; can also move various viruses and toxins

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24
Q

true or false: the cytoplasm can only move in one direction

A

FALSE: the cytoplasm can more in both directions; it is constantly moving and recycling so that the entire cell is constantly receiving the nutrients is needs

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25
Q

define sensory neurons

A

afferent; into the CNS; provide feedback to the brain from the body

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26
Q

define motor neurons

A

efferent; out of the CNS to effector organs

*note: motor means action, not necessarily movement

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27
Q

______ motor neurons involve reflex and voluntary control of skeletal muscles

A

somatic motor

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28
Q

______ motor neurons are involuntary effectors (smooth/cardiac muscle, glands; flight/flight or rest/digest)

A

autonomic

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29
Q

supporting cells are also known as _____ or ____ cells and ___ (do or do not) have mitotic ability

A

neuroglia; glial;

do

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30
Q

______ cells from myelin (protein) sheaths around peripheral axons

A

schwann

think of the schwann trucks that deliver food/protein around the city

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31
Q

_____ cells support cell bodies in the ganglia and are responsible for what?

A

satellite;

responsible for: maintaining, protecting, providing nutrition, and making the outer protection of the ganglion

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32
Q

what are the 4 kinds of supporting cells in the CNS

A

oligodendrocytes, microglia, astrocytes, apendymal cells

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33
Q

true or false: while all supporting cells of the nervous system have the ability to do mitosis, the CNS support cells are more likely to do so

A

true

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34
Q

describe oligodendrocytes

A

form myelin sheaths around axons inside CNS

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35
Q

white matter in the CNS consists of more _____

A

myelin

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36
Q

_____ are cells that migrate through the brain and do phyagocytosis to clean up and are very small cells

A

microglia

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37
Q

what cells regulate the external environment of neurons through the BBB

A

astrocytes

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38
Q

how do astrocytes regulate the BBB

A

star ends of astrocyte cells wrap around capillaries and monitor what is trying to enter the brain, destroyed many things in process

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39
Q

what does the BB have to do with some diseases that are hard to treat?

A

since a lot of molecules/drugs have a hard time crossing into the brain bc of the BBB, treatment can be especially difficult for issues in the brainm such as the low dopamine problem with parkinsons

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40
Q

how have doctors gotten around the issue of the BB in order to treat parkinsons

A

since they cannot give dopamine to patients that is able to cross the BBB, docs now give l-dopa, which is a precursor to dopamine that can cross the BBB

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41
Q

describe ependymal cells

A

a form of epithelial cells that line ventricals/central canal and produce CSF.

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42
Q

what cells are responsible for the internal environment of the CNS?

A

ependymal cells

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43
Q

how likely are you to develop a tumor from a neuron, and why or why not?

A

never, because tumors are a result of cells that undergo too much mitosis, and thus would only be occuring in support cells, especially the astrocytes, or from other parts of the body that metastisize to the brain

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44
Q

t or f: the effect of any condition in the brain is more dependent on the location than on the particular cell

A

true

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45
Q

in concussions, ____ is the first site of the impact, and the _____-____ injury is where the brain bounces and as a result is injured after the impact

A

coup; counter-coup

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46
Q

what are fluid-filled saks surrounding the brain

A

meninges

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47
Q

explain why the BBB is good and bad

A

good: prevents brain from getting systemic diseases
bad: can prevent brain from getting drugs for treatment

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48
Q

____ axons have neurilemma, whereas ____ axons do not.

A

PNS;

CNS

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49
Q

what is a neurilemma?

A

sheath of Schwann cells surrounding PNS axons

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50
Q

what are the gaps between the sheaths of Schwann cells , and what is their purpose?

A

nodes of Ranvier - purpose is to help speed up the rate of conduction and thus produce faster nerve impulses

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51
Q

_____ in the CNS is a higher concentration of cell bodies and dendrites and no myelin

A

gray matter

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52
Q

What is the most abundant glial cell in the CNS?

A

astrocytes

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53
Q

describe some of the functions of actrocytes

A

-end-feed surround CNS capillaries and have other extension near synapses

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54
Q

what are the proposed functions of the astrocytes

A

take up K+ from ECF
take up some neurotransmitters released from axon terminals
take up glucose from blood
formation of synapses and BBB in CNS

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55
Q

neurons exhibit _____/_____, or the ability to change membrane potential with stimulation

A

excitability/irritability

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56
Q

what is the resting membrane potential of axons

A

-70 mV

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57
Q

______ is when postive charges flow into the cell, whereas _______ is the return to resting membrane potential

A

depolarization;

repolarization

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58
Q

_____ is when the inside of the cell becomes more negative than resting membrane potential

A

hyperpolarization

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59
Q

______ is excitatory for nerve impulses, while _______ is inhibitory or nerve impulses

A

depolarization;

hyperpolarization

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60
Q

_____ are proteins that can open or close in response to certain changes

A

gated channels

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61
Q

what kinds of channels are always open in a resting cell?

A

Na+ channels

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62
Q

what kind of channel has 2 types: one that is always open and one that is closed in a resting cell

A

K+ channels

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63
Q

the opening of a Na/K voltage regulated channel results in what?

A

an action potential

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64
Q

_____ is a connection between a neuron and another cell

A

synapse

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65
Q

____ is the 2nd cell; the synapse is connected to it

A

effector cell

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66
Q

in _____ synapses, the action potential has to convert to a chemicalto cross the synaptic cleft

A

chemical

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67
Q

t or f: in synapses, the transmission is almost always in only one direction

A

true

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68
Q

what are the 2 different types of synapese

A

electrical and chemical (neurotransmitters)

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69
Q

an example of electrical synapses is ___ ____, in which adjacent cells are electrically coupled together

A

gap junctions

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70
Q

where in the body are electrical synapses used, and why?

A

in cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, brain;

because they allow excitation of large masses of muscle cells

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71
Q

______ ____ may allows 2-way transmission, especially in embyronic tissues (this disappears as tissue specializes)

A

electrical synapses

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72
Q

the majority of chemical synapses are in the ____ _____

A

nervous system

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73
Q

does chemical synapse always have one-way or two-way transmission?

A

one way

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74
Q

the ______ converts the electrical transmitter in the first cell to the electrical transmitter in the second cell

A

neurotransmitter

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75
Q

____ is an excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS and in all neuromuscular nunctions

A

acetylcholine (ACh)

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76
Q

true or false: autonomic nerve endings are always excitatory

A

FALSE: autonomic nerve endings are excitatory or inhibitory, depending on the organ

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77
Q

____ are proteins on the end of cell/targets

A

receptors

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78
Q

what aspect of post-synaptic cells helps the nervous system to generate different kinds of responses?

A

that not every post-synaptic cell is going to have the same receptor

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79
Q

T or F: the neuron is the functional cell of the nervous system; the supporting cells of the nervous system are glial cells

A

T

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80
Q

______ is a cluster of neuron cell bodies

A

ganglion

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81
Q

where are ganglia located

A

outside the CNS

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82
Q

describe a purpose of Ganglia

A

they are the site of synapses between 2 neurons (pre and post-synaptic neurons

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83
Q

Ganglia are part of the CNS or PNS?

A

PNS

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84
Q

the somatic motor nervous system originates where?

A

in the cerebrum

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85
Q

all messages of the somatic motor nervous system are ____ and _____

A

efferent and motor

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86
Q

what provides reflex and voluntary control of skeletal muscles?

A

somatic motor system

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87
Q

describe the movement of action potentials for the somatic motor system

A

from the CNS through the PNS to muscles

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88
Q

what nervous system includes only efferent messages

A

the autonomic nervous system

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89
Q

what parts of the body does the ANS control

A

cardiac muscle, smooth muscle and glands

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90
Q

is the ANS voluntary or involuntary?

A

involuntary

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91
Q

the sympathetic and parasympathetic (and perhaps enteric) systems are part of….

A

the ANS

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92
Q

what is the glial cell responsible for myelin production in the PNS

A

schwann cells

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93
Q

identify the glial cell responsible for CSF production in the CNS

A

ependymal cells

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94
Q

t or f: the BB is a well-defined physical structure that blocks entrance into the brain

A

false

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95
Q

what are some of the functions of the BBB

A

it highly regulates molecules entering the CNS
it does not rely on fluid pressures for molecule movement in and out of capillaries
it can prevent therapeutic molecules from entering the brain

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96
Q

t or f: Acetylcholine causes the exact same effect on the post-synaptic cell

A

false: the effects on the post-synaptic cell depends on which receptor is present on that cell

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97
Q

t or f: Ach is in all neuromuscular synapses

A

true

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98
Q

what activates Ach in the synapse

A

acetycholinesterase (AChE)

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99
Q

______ have the same function and ___ have the opposite function of a referenced neurotransmitter

A

agonists; antagonists

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100
Q

what do SSRI medications do?

A

inhibit reuptake so to increase function of serotonin in the synapse

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101
Q

cholinergic synapses include what?

A

nicotine and muscarinic receptors

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102
Q

the brain required significantly _____ (less/more) blood circulation than its size suggests

A

more

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103
Q

white matter in the CNS is found where?

A

in the center of the brain and the cortex of the spinal cord

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104
Q

what does the corpus callosum connect?

A

the right and left CEREBRAL hemispheres

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105
Q

what brain structure produces releasing and inhibiting hormones

A

hypothalamus

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106
Q

what brain structure produces melatonin and helps regulate the duurnal cycle

A

pineal gland

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107
Q

what brain structure includes the choroids plexus, the site of CSF production

A

epithalamus

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108
Q

muscle movement is initiated by the ____ and regulated by the _____

A

cerebrum; cerebellum

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109
Q

the autonomic nervous system is only _____ and _____ and is responsible for maintaining _______

A

efferent, involuntary;

homeostasis

110
Q

in the ANS, fight or flight refers to ______ and rest and digest refers to ______

A

sympathetic; parasympathetic

111
Q

loaction of sympathtic NS

A

thoracolumbar

112
Q

the ANS is a __-way pathway usually

A

2

113
Q

where is the exception, in which only a single axon innervates

A

adrenal medulla

114
Q

how does the adrenal medulla indirectly affect the skeletal muscles

A

adrenal goes via the blood and is released and circulated in the body, including in skeletal muscles. (there is not direct sympathetic nerve connection to skeletal muscles, but adrenalin hormone connects them)

115
Q

identify the splitting of preganglonic neurons at a ganglion

A

divergence

116
Q

identify what happens on second neurons when multiple preganglionic neurons come together

A

convergence

117
Q

______ increase the frequency of an action potentail on the second neuron

A

convergence

118
Q

ganglia exit where?

A

in the ventral roots of spinal nerves

119
Q

where do preganglionic fibers synapse?

A

in collateral ganglia

120
Q

when stimulated by the AND the adrenal medulla secretes _____ and ____

A

epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine

121
Q

describe the location of the parasympathetic ANS

A

carniosacral

122
Q

because the effector organ is close, the 1stParasympathetic neruon is ____, and the second is ____

A

long;

short

123
Q

true of false: parasympathetic ANS involves mass activation

A

false: involves very directed effects

124
Q

what 4 cranial nerves contain preganglionis parasympathetic fibers

A

III - oculomotor
VII - facial
IX glossopharyngeal
X - vagus

125
Q

identify what only recieves input from sympathetic NS,

A

effectors

126
Q

what are examples of parts of the body that only have sympathetic input?

A

blood vessels, sweat glants, erector pili

127
Q

define dual innervation

A

organs are innervated by both the sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers

128
Q

what are 3 kinds of dual innervation for the ANS

A

antagonistic
complementary
cooperative

129
Q

in ______ relationship of dual innervation, the sympathetic system causes one effect, while the parasympathetic system causes the opposite, and thus an organ cannot be innervated by both at the same time

A

antagonistic

130
Q

give an example of an antagonistic relationship of dual innervation

A

sympathetic ANS causes heart to speed up and pump harder, but the parasympathetic response causes it to slow down (cant do both at the same time)

131
Q

______ relationship of dual innervation is when the organ can get messages from both sympathetic and parasympathetic, and have complementary/similar effects but are specifically different

A

complementary

132
Q

describe an example of complementary dual innervation

A

salivary glands: can only produce saliva, but in parasympathetic innervation is more watery and has a higher concentration of digestive enzymes, important for the digestion of food. sympathetic innervation makes salivae more concentrated and with mucus to coat mucus membranes and conserve water

133
Q

_____ relationship of dual innervation is when an organ requires both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation at the same time, but in diff locations of the organ

A

cooperative

134
Q

give an example of cooperative dualistic innervation of an organ

A

micturition (urination reflex) need both inputs to use bladder effectively, sympathetic input to remain tone of the bladder, allow it ti increase and hold onto urin while maintaining spincters, and parasympathetic to contract and relax to release bladder;
also needed for sexual intercourse

135
Q

what regulate all ANS receptors input?

A

medulla oblongata

136
Q

identify the term referencing the cerebrum influence on the medulla oblongata

A

biofeedback

137
Q

give an example of biofeedback

A

taking a deep breath helps to switch from para to sympathetic ANS by reducing the response of the medulla oblongata to the cerebrum

138
Q

t or f: ACh synapses are found in all preganglionic neurons

A

true

139
Q

t or f: ACh is found in all parasympathetic post-ganglionic fibers

A

FALSE: found in MOST, not all

140
Q

list general functions of the sympathetic ANS

A

mass activation: prepares for intense physical activity By..:
increase HR; increase blood glucose (­ glycogenolysis; ­ lipolysis)
Divert blood to skeletal muscle (from skin and viscera – GI tract)
Dilates pupil; stimulates sweat; decreased salivation; increased mucus in saliva (thicker)
Increased epi from adrenal medulla; dilates lung bronchioles
Inhibits GI tract movement; inhibition of endocrine secretions
Contraction of spleen (­ circulating blood volume); aids bladder muscle tone
Erection of hair and goose bumps (look big)
Reproduction: Contraction of uterus if pregnant (relaxation if not pregnant, for conception)
Ejaculation in male (erection is parasympathetic)

141
Q

what are the two kind of parasympathetic most ganglionic fibers

A

nicotinic and muscarinic receptors

142
Q

what are the 2 kinds of adrenergic receptors that determine the effect of that neurotransmitter?

A

Alpha and Beta

143
Q

what is the neurotransmitter of all pre-ganglionic fibers (both sympathetic and para)?

A

acetylcholine

144
Q

what is the neurotransmitter released by most postganglionic sympathetic nerve fibers

A

norepinephrine

145
Q

transmission at most postganglionic sympathetic nerve fibers is said to be _____.

A

adrenergic

146
Q

transmission at synapses of parasympathetic postganglionic fivers is said to be ______.

A

cholinergic

147
Q

t or f: psotganglionig axons can release neurotransmitters along a length of the axon rather than just at the tip

A

true

148
Q

t or f: sympathetic and para always innervate different target cells

A

FALSE: the often innervate the same target cells (but have diff transmitters)

149
Q

what promotes neurotransmitter action

A

agonist

150
Q

what blocks neurotransmitter action

A

antagonist

151
Q

what are other transmitters in some postganglionic axons

A

nonadrenergic, noncholinergic ifbers

152
Q

what is the purpsoe of Beta blockers and how how it evolved?

A

medicine used for reducing hypertension by blocking all of beta blockers
now have more advanced beta blockers (beta 2 blockers)that are very specific for the receptors in the heart and blood pressures without blocking all beta receptors of the body

153
Q

what are the 2 systems used to regulate homeostasis

A

nervous and endocrine systems

154
Q

in general the endocrine system uses ____ to travel thru the body

A

chemical receptors

155
Q

define neurohormones

A

chemicals that can act as neurons or hormones

156
Q

t or f: almost every organ in the body is considered to be an endocrine organ

A

true

157
Q

what are the 2 categories of hormones

A

protein and steroid hormones

158
Q

describe protein hormones

A

soluble in water, travel easily thu blood, generally wont need carried proteins. need a kind of mechanism to cross PM bc are water soluble. most are extracellular

159
Q

describe steroid hormones

A

fat-soluble, nonpolar, need carrier molecules to travel thru the blood, can be intracellular bc can cross PM of target cell easily

160
Q

what kind of hormones can you take orally

A

steroid hormones

161
Q

give an example of protein hormones

A

insulin

162
Q

steroid hormones are often derived from ______

A

cholesterol

163
Q

how do the nervous and endocrine systems differ in how they send and recieve messages?

A

in nervous: brain measures frequency of action potentials

in endocrine: looks at amplitude of chemicals

164
Q

______ is the amount of time it takes for 1/2 of the original quantity to go away

A

half-life

165
Q

what removes hormnoes from the blood

A

Urine

excretion thru the liver

166
Q

what is an important organ for designatiing the excrtetion of hormones

A

liver

167
Q

what are the 3 basic mechanisms that tell the endocrine glands how much of the hormone is necessary?

A
  1. non-hormone substance levels (ex: oxygen/glucose levels in blood)
  2. nervous system - adrenal medulla secretes hormones as a result of the sympathetic nerve, as well as in other organs
  3. another endocrine gland - ex: hypothalamus produces releasing and inhibiting hormones, ant pit produces stimulating hormones
168
Q

what decreases blood glucose levels by storing it in cells as glycogen

A

insulin

169
Q

what raises blood sugar

A

glucagon

170
Q

what are three types of interactions of hormones

A

antagonistic
synergistic
permissive

171
Q

describe antagonisic hormones

A

only one can be in effect at a give time

172
Q

describe synergistic hormones and give an example

A

2 or more hormones that work together for a similar result; are both required to be present at some level
ex: for milk production in mammary glands, need appropriate levels of progesterone, PRL, oxytocin, and estrogen

173
Q

_______ interaction of hormones has a critical timing sequence of the hormones. for one function to occur, one hormone has to spike to cause a change in order for the next hormone to cone in and cause a change

A

permissive

174
Q

in ______ of permissive interaction of hormones, the 1st hormone cause an increase in the number of receptors for a 2nd hormone

A

upregulation

175
Q

______ of permissive regulation of hormones reduces the number of receptors, making that tissue less responsive to the 2nd hormone

A

downregulation

176
Q

tissue can become ______, in which they are less responsive to those chemical hormones (burnout)

A

desentized

177
Q

name 3 methods to prevent burnout in the body

A

pulsatile, physiological dose, and pharm, doses

178
Q

describe pulsatile

A

manner in which hormones are produced and secreted in which teh body puts out hormones in small doses of exocytosis, allowing for an adjustment period before giving out more

179
Q

_____ doe is the hormonal level and is relatively small, while ____ doses are exogenous and used to be huge doese

A

physiological ;

pharmacological

180
Q

while receptors can be ____ or _____, ____ receptors need a second messenger to cross the membrane of the cell to cause the desired effect

A

extracellular or intercellullar;

extracellular

181
Q

describe specificity

A

hormones bind with high affinity (attraction) for the receptor) (and with low capacity (dont need a lot of hormones to make a response)

182
Q

________ receptors are hormones that impact DNA and effect transcription. they regulate how fast cells are producing a particular protein, or how many are being produced

A

nuclear

183
Q

what are examples of nuclear receptors

A

steroids, thyroid hormones

184
Q

_____ bind to DNA as homodimers

A

steroids

185
Q

_____ is when 2 molecules of hormone must bind at the same time in the right place of the DNA

A

homodimers

186
Q

______ hormones bind to nuclear receptors a a heterodimer

A

thyroid

187
Q

_____ is 1 molecules of thyroid hormone, and 1 molecuels of RXR

A

heterodimer

188
Q

what are 2 nutrients necessary for thyroid function

A

Vitamin A and iodine

189
Q

what hormones does the hypothalamus produce

A

ADH/vasopressin and oxytocin (which are stored in the post pit). also produces releasing and inhibiting hormones to regulate release of hormones

190
Q

what endocrine gland received info and neg feedback from all feedback loops, and monitors all hormones levels

A

hypothalamus

191
Q

what is the only endocrine gland that does not produce its own hormones

A

posterior pituitary

192
Q

post stores ____ and ____ and responds to releasing and inhibiting hormones of _____

A

ADH/vasopressin ; oxytocin;

hypothalamus

193
Q

what is the target receptor for ADH

A

kidney

194
Q

where is the target receptor for oxytocin and what does it do

A

reproductive system; stimulates smooth muscle in contractionand menstrual cycles, is in mammory glands, and in brain, and male reproductive system. “love hormone”

195
Q

________ gland is adenohypophysis, aka made of epithelial/glandular tissue

A

anterior pituitary

196
Q

what hormones does the anterior pit produce

A 
GH
prolactin
TSH
ACTH
gonadotropins (LH and FSH)
197
Q

purpose of GH and wher eare its target receptors

A

target receptors: everywhere;

stimulates growth: development of tissues, healing injuries

198
Q

describe function and receptor location of prolactin

A

stimulates milk production; receptors in reproductive system (also in males, can cause gynocomastia - male breat tissue producing milk)
also has target receptors in kidneys to ensure body has enough Ca+ and water while breatfeeding

199
Q

Prolactin is regulate by …

A

relasing and inhibiting hormones of hypothalmus

200
Q

describe receptor location and function of TSH

A

receptor in thyroid;

hormones that tells thyroid to release hormones

201
Q

describe receptor location and function of ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone)

A

goes to adrenal cortex, tells cortex to regulare cortisol production

202
Q

what are gonadotropins

A

hormones that go to the gonad s to regulate functions: LH and FSH

203
Q

descibe LH

A

regulated ovulation, tells ovary to stop preparing for release of egg. is elevated in 2nd part of menstruation

204
Q

describe FSH

A

stimulates 1st half of menstrual cycle to prepare. targers are mostly in gonads

205
Q

__________ is an endocrine gland that is most active in humans during fatal development

A

intermediate pituitary lobe

206
Q

what hormones are produced by intermediate pituitary lobe

A

melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH) - produces melanin) and proopiomelanocorpin (POMC) hormone related to the endorphines (endogenous pain-release hormones)

207
Q

the ____ is the part of the adrenal gland that can go into exhaustion when someone is under extreme stress, bc the body struggles to continue adrenalin

A

medulla

208
Q

what are the 3 categories of hormones for the adrenal cortex, and what is the purpose and an example of each

A

mineralocortocoids - regulate electrolytes in bloodstream, ex: aldosterone

glucocorticoids - regulate glucose when extra is needed, ex: cortisol hormone - increases gluconeogenesis

androgens - sex hormones percursors, anabolic steroids - encourage protein prodcution and hypertrophy of muscles, ex: androsteodiol

209
Q

what are the 2 categories of hormones produces by the thyroid

A

thyroxine (thyorid hormones)

parafollicular cells

210
Q

are thyroid hormones lipophilic or hydrophilic?

A

lipophilic

211
Q

what is the active form of thyorid hormone

A

T3

212
Q

if ____ is elevated, it means that there may be an issue in producing thyroid

A

TSH

213
Q

describe the feedback system for the thyroid hormones

A

hypothalamus produces releasing and inhibiting hormones to tell ant pit to produce TSH to tels thyroid to produce hormones that go ultimately to all body cells that need vit A deritives RXR. every location provided feedback up the chain.

214
Q

T4 is converted to T3 to regulate

A

BMR

215
Q

thyroid follicles contain _____ that accumulated iodine

A

colloid

216
Q

_____ hormone is from parafollicular cells in the thyorid

A

calcitonin

217
Q

calcitonin is antagonist to ____

A

PTH

218
Q

function of calcitonin

A

lowers blood [Ca2+] by inhibiting dissolution of bone crystals and stimulating Ca excretion in urine

219
Q

______ glands are 4 separate glands embedded in the thyroid

A

parathyroid glands

220
Q

function of parathyorid hormone (PTH)

A

most important in blood Ca regulation; raises blood Ca by acting on bones, kidneys, and intestine

221
Q

what organ is both endocrine and exocrine

A

pancrease

222
Q

alpha cells of the pancreas do what

A

produce glucagon to raise blood sugar

223
Q

beta cells of the pancreas do what

A

produce insulin to lower blood sugar thru storage of glucose in cells

224
Q

what organ makes melatinin and regualtes the diunral cycle

A

pineal gland

225
Q

what organ has hormones that stimulate T cells, and is involved with the GI tract, gonads, and placenta

A

thymus

226
Q

define autocrine

A

produced in the same tissue of an organ

227
Q

define paracrine

A

produced in 1 tissue and reguate a diff tissue of the same organ

228
Q

____ is the general term for autocrine/paracrine regulatory molecuels of the immune system

A

cytokines

229
Q

_____ ____ promote growth and cell division

A

growth factors

230
Q

______ guide regenration and peripheral neurons that have been injured

A

neruotrophins

231
Q

____ promotes relaxation (dilation) of vasculare smooth muslce (produced by endothelium) and is an important component of the inflammatiory process

A

Nitric oxide (NO)

232
Q

____ are the most diverse group of autocrine regulators; are 20-C long fatty acids from arachidonic acid that are produced in almost every organ

A

prostaglandins

233
Q

examples of prostaglandin (Pg) actions:

A 
Immune system (inflammation)
	Reproductive system (ovulation, CL function, premature labor, endometriosis, menstrual cramps, etc.)
	Digestive system (inhibit gastric secretion, intestinal motility, peptic ulcers, etc.)
	Respiratory system (vasodilation, bronchoconstriction, bronchodilation)
	Circulatory system (vasoconstrictors, vasodilators, blood clotting, etc.)
	Urinary system (vasodilation, increased excretion of water and electrolytes)
234
Q

what are inhibitor of prostaglandin synthesis

A

antiinflammatiories (NSAIDs) such as aspirin, ibuprofen, indomethacin

235
Q

what are the 2 isoenzzyme forms of COX and describe them

A

COX-1 - produced continuously in stomach, kidneys, blood platelets
COX-2 cells that respond to cytokinesis - produced when needed for itus (inflammation)

236
Q

how to newer NSAIDs work better

A

old drugs did only COS-1 inhibition, which produced stomach irritation.
newer drugs only inhibit COX-2, therefore reduced side effects

237
Q

t or f: aspirin thins your blood

A

false: aspirin works to permenantly change the cell membrane surface of platelets so that they are less sticky and less likely to clot

238
Q

the functional cell of a msucle system is a ______ ____.

A

muscle fiber

239
Q

purpose of muscle fibers:

A

to contract

240
Q

what are tendons

A

connect muscle to bone, originate as muscle bellies

241
Q

____ is the attachment that is less movable (usually prximal on extremities) and ____ is the attachment that is most movable (usually distal on extremity

A

origin; insertion

242
Q

list the order of the CT structures that grossly organizes muscles, from inside to outside

A

Sarcolemma = muscle cell membrane
Endomysium = immediate CT membrane outside (bound to) sarcolemma
Perimysium = several fibers (cells) bound together = fasciculus (fascicles = column)
Epimysium = around muscle (irregular fashion)

243
Q

what is the minimum structure required to make work

A

sacromere

244
Q

sacromerees are separated and connected by ____

A

z-lines

245
Q

what tells the sacromere to contract

A

action potential

246
Q

______ is wher the message is received to do work, while ____ sends the message to the muscle as to how many fibers are sent into action potential to do work

A

cerebral; cerebellum

247
Q

______ require energy and more calcium against the concentration gradient

A

Calcium pumps

248
Q

Ca is pumped into the ____ _____ for storage, and then when muslces need to contract, a _______ ___ is opened

A

sarcoplasmic reticulum; Ca channel

249
Q

what happens when Ca channels are opend

A

Ca floods the sacromere and opens binding sites on actin so ti can reach the binding sites on myosin to bind and contract

250
Q

___ is the internal trigger that allows attraction to occur, while ____ is the external trigger that stimulates the release of Ca

A

Ca+;

ACh

251
Q

t or f: how much shortening occurs of a sarcomere directly related to how much Ca+ is allow to leave, which is dependant on how many action potentials are send to to open that channel

A

true

252
Q

what is the hormones in sympathetic ANS that allow muscle to work harder

A

adrenaline

253
Q

true or false: sliding filament theory also occurs in smooth and cardiac muslce and requires an action potential

A

false, bc smooth and cardiac do not always require an action potential

254
Q

_____ is required for muscle contraction and relaxation - why

A

ATP is needed for binding and moving of sliding sliding of the filaments, and to break the bridge btwn actin and myosin and allow them to return to their resting state

255
Q

what is a motor unit

A

one somatic motor neuron

256
Q

what happens to skeletal muslces when denervated

A

Muscle fibers undergo atrophy bc no longer receiving message to work

257
Q

What is the connection btwn nerv system and skeletal muscle fibers?

A

ACh

258
Q

what is a twitch

A

an individual contraction of a muslce or fiber due to random electrical events, oftne bc of a pathological disease

259
Q

_____ is when a smooth sustained contraction of that muscle occurs without any evidence of that message breaking to tell it to relax

A

tetanus

260
Q

in aerobic respiration, what must be present

A

oxygen

261
Q

_____ increase duing exercise to help pull more glucose out of the bloodstream to improve effenciency

A

GLUT (glucose carrier proteins

262
Q

in ____ ___, muslces turn to other ways other than oxygen to get ATP

A

anaerobic respiration

263
Q

of the 2 microfilaments, ___ is thick and ___ is thin

A

myosin; actin

264
Q

_____ is when the muscles run out of ATP and dont relax until decomposition of the body being

A

rigor mortis

265
Q

for ATP, phosphate groups are donated by ___ ____.

A

creatine phosphate

266
Q

describe slow-twitch fibers

A

red, can have sustained contractions without fatigue. are rich in capillary supply, mitochondria, aerobic respiratory enzymes, and myoglobin

267
Q

describe fast twitch fibers

A

white, have fewer capillaries and mitochondrea and myoglobin. are adapted to respire anaerobically by a large store of glycogen

268
Q

______ is exercise induced reduction in ability to generate force or powr

A

muscle fatigue

269
Q

what are the 3 kinds of muscle fatigue

A

central or psychologic fatigue - varies
muscular fatigue - ATP depletion
synaptic fatigue - neruotransmitter depletion (very rare)

270
Q

describe adaptations of muscles to exercise training

A

Endurance training -  aerobic capacity of muscle fibers (use of fatty acids)
 susceptibility to fatigue
Resistance training – hypertrophy of muscle fibers ( in size/number of myofibrils)

271
Q

in the spinal cord, the dorsal root is ____, while the ventral root is ____

A

sensory;

motor

Physiology (4 decks)

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