Unit 2 Flashcards

(72 cards)

1
Q

3 Essentials of a crime

A

1) demonstrate that his alleged acts violated a criminal statute
2) prove beyond a reasonable doubt that he committed those acts
3) prove that he had the capacity to form a criminal intent 135

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2
Q

the best example for commercial speech is…

A

an advertisement for a product, service, or business 139

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3
Q

obscene expression receives _____ First Amendment protection.

A

No 139

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4
Q

The Miller Test / Controlling obscenity test (3-part)

A

a) [That] the average person, applying contemporary community standards, would find that the work, taken as a whole, appeals to the prurient interest;
b) that the work depicts or describes, in an offensive way, sexual conduct specifically defined by the applicable state law
c) that the work, taken as a whole, lacks serious literacy, artistic, political, or scientific value 140

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5
Q

Fair notice doctrine (2 parts)

A

a) statute must provide fair notice of what conduct is prohibited; and
b) and must NOT encourage arbitrary and discriminatory enforcement 142

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6
Q

8th Amendment

A

prohibits cruel and unusual punishment 143

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7
Q

mens rea

A

criminal intent 143

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8
Q

criminal law recognizes 3 General types of incapacity

A

Intoxication, infancy, and insanity 144

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9
Q

Evidence of a defendants nolo plea is ________ in later civil cases against the defendant

A

inadmissible 145

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10
Q

What remedy is commonly used for unreasonable searches or seizures?

A

The exclusionary rule 146

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11
Q

Surveillance, searches, and other investigatory intrusions of suspected terrorists require a warrant from the ______ court.

A

FISA 155

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12
Q

company records generally do ______ qualify for 5th Amendment protections.

A

NOT 159

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13
Q

corporations and similar entities have no ________ Amendment protections

A

5th 159

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14
Q

Due Process clauses are covered under the _____ Amendment

A

5th

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15
Q

6th Amendment

A
  • speedy trial
  • right to an attorney
  • impartial jury
  • right to confront and cross-examine witnesses against them 161
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16
Q

Corporations now may face criminal liability for almost any offense if the statute in question indicates a ________ to hold corporations responsible

A

Legislative intent 162

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17
Q

Strict liability offenses (under corporate offenses)

A

ordinarily require proof that the defendant committed some wrongful act 164

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18
Q

Vicarious liability offenses (under corporate offenses)

A

Impose criminal liability on a defendant for the acts of the third parties (usually their employees), but may require proof of some form of mens rea such as the defendants negligence or reckless failure to supervise 164

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19
Q

how does the “Corporate Sentencing guidelines” impose fines upon corporate violators?

A

Culpability score 165

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20
Q

Deferred prosecution agreement

A

Corporations can avoid formal criminal charges and trials in return for their agreement to pay monetary penalties and submit to outside monitoring of their activities 165

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21
Q

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002

A
  • created the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board
  • higher levels of accuracy in corporate reporting of financial info
  • promote responsible conduct on part of the corporate officers and directors 169
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22
Q

In response to highly publicized financial scandals and accounting controversies involving Enron, Arthur Anderson, Global Crossing, WorldCom, and other firms, the _____________ of 2002 was enacted

A

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 169

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23
Q

The Foreign Corrupt Cractices Act

A

Criminalizes the offering or giving of anything of value to officials of foreign governments in an attempt to influence their official actions 169

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24
Q

Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organizations Act (RICO)

A

originally concerned with organized crime’s entry into legitimate business practices, it is presently a tool to attack unethical business practices 169

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25
To show a pattern of racketeering the prosecution must prove the defendants commission of at least ____ acts of racketeering activity within a _____ period
two, 10 year 170
26
The federal Computer Fraud and Abuse Act (CFAA)
1) knowingly, and with intent to defraud 2) accesses a protected computer without authorization, or exceeds authorized access; 3) and by means of such conduct furthers the intended fraud and obtains anything of value 174
27
Tort
A civil wrong that is not a breach of a contract 182
28
4 types of civil wrong, as applied to torts
- intent - recklessness - Negligence - Strict liability 182
29
Recklessness
Willful and wanton conduct 182
30
Negligence
A failure to use reasonable care, with harm to another party occurring as a result 182
31
Strict liability
Liability without fault or, more precisely, liability irrespective of fault 183
32
A plaintiff does not have to prove ______ in a _____ liability case.
fault, strict 183
33
Compensatory damages
Recovered for the harm she suffered as a result of the defendants wrongful act 183
34
Punitive damages
These damages are reserved for the worst kinds of wrong doing. They are intended to punish the wrongdoer. 183
35
battery
The intentional and harmful or offensive touching of another without their consent 186 Note: Touching may not even occur as is the case in a shooting or laying of a trap
36
Assault
- An intentional attempt or offer to cause a harmful or offensive contact with another person - must be reasonable apprehension of imminent battery in the other persons mind 188
37
Tort of intentional infliction of emotional distress (4 elements)
1. the alleged tortfeasor acted intentionally or recklessly 2. the alleged tortfeasors conduct was extreme and outrageous 3. the conduct cause the plaintiff emotional distress, and 4. the emotional distress was severe
38
False imprisonment
The intentional confinements of another person for an appreciable time without his consent - a few minutes is enough 191
39
Defamation (4 elements)
1. unprivileged 2. publication of 3. false and defamatory 4. statements concerning another 194
40
2 forms of defamation
Libel and slander 194
41
Libel
Written or printed defamation or to other defamation having a physical form, such as a defamatory picture, sign, or statue 194
42
Which is more serious and why? Libel or Slander?
Libel because it is permanent. The plaintiff can presumed damages to compensate for presumed reputational harm. 194
43
slander
Refers to all other defamatory statements, mainly oral deformation 194
44
Slander, on the other hand, is generally not actionable without proof of ___________, unless the nature of the slanderous statements is so serious that it can be classified as __________
special damages, slander per se 194
45
Slander per se (4 main types)
slanderous statement that the plaintiff has.... 1. has committed a crime involving moral turpitude or potential imprisonment 2. has a loathsome disease 3. is professionally incompetent or guilty of professional misconduct, or 4. is guilty of a serious sexual misconduct 194
46
could a publisher be liable for defamation?
yes 195
47
can a distributor be liable for defamation
no 195
48
Defamation is an _______ tort
intentional 195
49
for a public official to prove defamation they must show...
knowledge of falsity and actual malice by clear and convincing evidence 199
50
Invasion of privacy - 3 distinct torts
- intrusion on solitude or seclusion (requires REP) - public disclosure of private facts (Generally doesn't apply to public officials) - faults light publicity (publicity that places a person in a false light in the public eye) 208
51
Commercial appropriation of name or likeness
Liability for invasion of privacy can exist when, without the person's consent, the defendant commercially uses someone's name or likeness, normally to imply her endorsement of a product or service, or non-existent connection with a defendants business. 209
52
Malicious prosecution (3 elements)
1. defendant caused criminal proceedings against plaintiff without probable cause 2. defendant did so for and improper purpose 3. criminal proceedings were eventually terminate in favor of the plaintiff 214
53
Abuse of process
imposes liability when a defendant initiates legal proceedings for some other reason than the one for which the proceedings were designed. 214
54
private nuisance
some interference with the plaintiff's use and enjoyment of their land (no physical trespass). Ex: odor, noise, light, etc. 215
55
conversion
intentional exercise of dominion or control over the plaintiff's personal property without the plaintiff's consent 218
56
Negligence tort (3 elements)
1) that the defendant owed a duty of care to the plaintiff 2) that the defendant committed a breach of this duty; and 3) that this breach was the actual and proximate cause of injury experienced by the plaintiff 227
57
Premises Liability cases (3 types)
1) Invitees (customers, visitors, etc): must exercise reasonable care 2) Licensees (Someone who enters property for their own purposes such as door-to-door salesperson, solicitors, etc): ONLY required to warn of dangerous premises conditions that are unlikely to be discovered. 3) Trespassers: NO duty, however, must not willfully and wantonly injure trespassers once their presence is known 235
58
negligence per se
the defendants violation of such laws may create a breach of duty if the plaintiff: 1) was within the class of persons intended to be protected by the statute of law, and 2) suffered harm of a sort that the statute or law was intended to protect against. 240
59
personal injury
harm to the plaintiffs body 242
60
property damage
harm to the plaintiffs real estate or personal property item. 242
61
the usual rule is ______ damages are only recoverable in negligence cases.
compensatory 242
62
The causation link (required link between the breach and the injury, 3 questions)
1) was the breach an actual cause of the injury 2) was the breach a proximate cause of the injury, and 3) what was the effect of any intervening cause arising after the breach and helping to cause the injury.
63
actual cause (test)
the defendants conduct is the actual cause of the plaintiff's injury when the plaintiff would not have been hurt BUT FOR (if not for) the defendants breach of duty 246
64
proximate cause - typical with negligence torts
concerns the required degree of proximity or closeness between the defendants breach and the injury it actually caused 246
65
foreseeable acts after the fact the defendant ___ liable for while unforeseeable acts after the fact the defendant ____ liable for
is, isn't 249
66
an intervening cause is an ______ act
unforeseeable 249
67
res ipsa loquitur
when the plaintiff was in NO way responsible for their injury and the defendant had excessive control over preventing the harm, THEN the burden of proof shifts to the defendant 253
68
negligence defenses (4)
- contributory negligence - assumption of risk - comparative negligence - comparative fault 253
69
contributory negligence
plaintiffs failure to exercise reasonable care for their own safety (full defense) 253
70
comparative negligence
plaintiffs recovery = defendants percentage share of the negligence causing the injury X plaintiffs proven damages 253
71
assumption of risk
plaintiffs voluntary consent to a known danger (full defense) 254
72
exculpatory clause
contract by which a plaintiff expressly assumes the risk of injury thereby relieving the defendant of duty of care. 255