Unit 2 Quizzes

Question 1

Cells or organs that selectively remove, concentrate, or alter materials in the blood and then secrete them back into the body are called:
Select one:
a. glands. 
b. neurotransmitters.
c. hormones.
d. neoplasms.

Answer 1

a. glands.

Question 2

The ilium is defined as the:
Select one:
a. lower part of the small intestine.
b. bony prominence of the pelvis. 
c. ligament that overlies the femoral vessels.
d. structure that overlies the bladder.

Answer 2

b. bony prominence of the pelvis.

Question 3

When oxygen levels are low or absent, the cells revert to a process of:
Select one:
a. anaerobic anabolism.
b. anaerobic metabolism. 
c. aerobic metabolism.
d. aerobic catabolism.

Answer 3

b. anaerobic metabolism.

Question 4

All of the following are voluntary muscles, except:
Select one:
a. striated muscle.
b. skeletal muscle.
c. somatic muscle.
d. smooth muscle.

Answer 4

d. smooth muscle.

Question 5

The movement of a solute from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration is called:
Select one:
a. endocytosis.
b. diffusion. 
c. exocytosis.
d. osmosis.

Answer 5

b. diffusion

Question 6

The second heart sound (S2) represents:
Select one:
a. closure of the aortic valve.
b. closure of the semilunar valves. 
c. closure of the atrioventricular valves.
d. closure of the pulmonic valve.

Answer 6

b. closure of the semilunar valves.

Question 7

The respiratory center of the brain is located in the:
Select one:
a. medulla.
b. cerebellum.
c. cerebrum.
d. hypothalamus.

Answer 7

a. medulla.

Question 8

Detoxification of toxic substances, production of bile, and production of certain clotting factors are all functions of the:
Select one:
a. pancreas.
b. liver.
c. kidneys.
d. gallbladder.

Answer 8

b. liver.

Question 9

The most common solvent in the body, in which solutes or other substances will dissolve, is:
Select one:
a. water. 
b. bile.
c. blood.
d. plasma.

Answer 9

a. water.

Question 10

The hypoxic drive, a backup system to control breathing, is stimulated when:
Select one:
a. arterial PaO2 levels decrease. 
b. arterial PaCO2 levels decrease.
c. arterial PaO2 levels increase.
d. arterial PaCO2 levels increase.

Answer 10

a. arterial PaO2 levels decrease.

Question 11

Tidal volume is defined as the volume of air that:
Select one:
a. is exhaled from the lungs following a forceful exhalation.
b. is moved into or out of the lungs during a single breath.
c. is moved in or out of the lungs following maximal expiration.
d. remains in the lungs following expiration.

Answer 11

b. is moved into or out of the lungs during a single breath.

Question 12

How do the blood vessels of the skin respond to cold temperatures?
Select one:
a. Constriction, which diverts blood away from the skin
b. Constriction, which pulls blood to the skin’s surface
c. Dilation, which diverts blood away from the skin
d. Dilation, which pulls blood to the skin’s surface

Answer 12

a. Constriction, which diverts blood away from the skin

Question 13

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) targets the adrenal cortex and causes it to secrete:
Select one:
a. adrenaline.
b. cortisol
c. calcitonin.
d. antidiuretic hormone.

Answer 13

b. cortisol

Question 14

Chemicals that become ionic conductors when dissolved in water are called:
Select one:
a. ions.
b. exocytes.
c. endocytes.
d. electrolytes.

Answer 14

d. electrolytes.

Question 15

The movement of a substance against a concentration or gradient, such as the cell membrane, is called:
Select one:
a. crenation.
b. osmosis.
c. facilitated diffusion.
d. active transport.

Answer 15

d. active transport.

Question 16

In response to shock or stress, sympathetic nervous system stimulation causes:
Select one:
a. increased gastrointestinal function.
b. vasoconstriction.
c. shunting of blood to the extremities.
d. slowing of the heart rate.

Answer 16

b. vasoconstriction.

Question 17

Phagocytosis is the process by which:
Select one:
a. phagocytes are destroyed.
b. monocytes digest microbes.
c. phagocytes are produced.
d. microbes destroy monocytes.

Answer 17

b. monocytes digest microbes.

Question 18

Which of the following physiologic responses would you expect to see in a patient with a pH of 7.50?
Select one:
a. Bicarbonate retention
b. Increased respirations
c. Decreased respirations
d. Hydrogen ion excretion

Answer 18

c. Decreased respirations

Question 19

The shoulder joint is a ball-and-socket joint where the humeral head articulates with the:
Select one:
a. acetabulum.
b. glenoid fossa. 
c. acromion process.
d. popliteal fossa.

Answer 19

b. glenoid fossa.

Question 20

If the concentration of H+ increases, the pH of the blood will:
Select one:
a. decrease. 
b. increase, then decrease.
c. remain unchanged.
d. increase.

Answer 20

a. decrease.

Question 21

The normal pH of the human body ranges from:
Select one:
a. 7.25–7.30.
b. 7.60–7.75.
c. 7.35–7.45. 
d. 7.50–7.55.

Answer 21

c. 7.35–7.45.

Question 22

A buffer is a substance that can absorb or donate:
Select one:
a. sodium.
b. bicarbonate.
c. hydrogen ions
d. water.

Answer 22

c. hydrogen ions

Question 23

The atrioventricular (AV) valves of the heart include the:
Select one:
a. tricuspid and mitral. 
b. mitral and aortic.
c. tricuspid and pulmonic.
d. bicuspid and aortic.

Answer 23

a. tricuspid and mitral.

Question 24

The movement of a solvent from an area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration is called:
Select one:
a. diffusion.
b. passive transport.
c. osmosis. 
d. crenation.

Answer 24

c. osmosis.

Question 25

The germinal layer contains cells that produce pigment granules, which help to produce:
Select one:
a. skin color.
b. fatty tissue.
c. sebum.
d. sweat.

Answer 25

a. skin color.

Question 26

Which of the following is an uncontrollable risk factor for disease?
Select one:
a. Poor diet
b. Genetics 
c. Stress
d. Smoking

Answer 26

b. Genetics

Question 27

What role does the spleen play in the body’s compensatory response to hypoperfusion?
Select one:
a. It releases additional glucose.
b. It releases catecholamines.
c. It releases sequestered red blood cells.
d. It releases pyrogens, which cause fever.

Answer 27

c. It releases sequestered red blood cells.

Question 28

Your patient presents with a serum potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which of the following would most likely cause this?
Select one:
a. Laxative use
b. Hypovolemia
c. Renal failure 
d. Diuretic use

Answer 28

c. Renal failure

Question 29

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) targets the adrenal cortex, resulting in the release of:
Select one:
a. epinephrine.
b. norepinephrine.
c. cortisol. 
d. glucagon.

Answer 29

c. cortisol.

Question 30

Relative to other microorganisms, mycobacterium tuberculosis:
Select one:
a. lacks a capsule, yet resists destruction.
b. contains a thick, impenetrable capsule.
c. is not transported in the body by phagocytes.
d. is easily destroyed with antibiotics.

Answer 30

a. lacks a capsule, yet resists destruction.

Question 31

Which of the following conditions would cause a proportionate increase in both sodium and water and an increased total body sodium?
Select one:
a. Steroid use 
b. Sweating
c. Diuretic use
d. Diarrhea

Answer 31

a. Steroid use

Question 32

The most common cause of cardiogenic shock is:
Select one:
a. a myocardial infarction.
b. a cardiac dysrhythmia.
c. a ventricular septal defect.
d. pulmonary edema.

Answer 32

a. a myocardial infarction.

Question 33

White blood cells that develop from B cells and produce large volumes of specific antibodies are called:
Select one:
a. killer T cells.
b. plasma cells.
c. mast cells.
d. lymphocytes

Answer 33

b. plasma cells.

Question 34

Hypernatremia exists when serum sodium levels are \_\_\_\_\_ mEq/L or greater.
Select one:
a. 143 
b. 134
c. 139
d. 128

Answer 34

a. 143

Question 35

A patient with liver failure has an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity. This is called:
Select one:
a. lymphatic edema.
b. ascites.
c. sacral edema.
d. anasarca.

Answer 35

b. ascites.

Question 36

Which of the following clinical signs is a manifestation of fluid leakage into the interstitial spaces?
Select one:
a. Stridor 
b. Wheezing
c. Urticaria
d. Tachycardia

Answer 36

a. Stridor

Question 37

A patient is diagnosed with left ventricular hypertrophy. This means that the left ventricle is:
Select one:
a. small in size.
b. weakened.
c. enlarged. 
d. abnormally strong

Answer 37

c. enlarged.

Question 38

A young female overdosed on heroin and has slow, shallow breathing. Which of the following condition will she develop initially?
Select one:
a. Metabolic acidosis
b. Respiratory alkalosis
c. Respiratory acidosis
d. Metabolic alkalosis

Answer 38

c. Respiratory acidosis

Question 39

Blood gas analysis at the hospital reveals that your patient has a pH of 7.29. Which of the following conditions would most likely cause this?
Select one:
a. Hyperventilation
b. Mild hypoglycemia
c. Antacid overdose
d. Diabetic ketoacidosis

Answer 39

d. Diabetic ketoacidosis

Question 40

A full-term neonate has a total body water percentage of:
Select one:
a. 60%.
b. 80%. 
c. 50%.
d. 70%.

Answer 40

b. 80%.

Question 41

The term metaplasia refers to:
Select one:
a. a decrease in cell size due to a loss of subcellular components, resulting in decreased organ size.
b. an increase in the actual number of cells in an organ or tissue, resulting in increased organ size.
c. an increase in the size of the cells due to synthesis of more subcellular components.
d. the reversible cellular adaptation in which one adult cell type is replaced by another adult cell type.

Answer 41

d. the reversible cellular adaptation in which one adult cell type is replaced by another adult cell type.

Question 42

Which of the following is correct?
Select one:
a. Decreased pH = increased hydrogen ion concentration = acidosis
b. Increased pH = increased hydrogen ion concentration = alkalosis
c. Decreased pH = decreased hydrogen ion concentration = alkalosis
d. Increased pH = decreased hydrogen ion concentration = acidosis

Answer 42

a. Decreased pH = increased hydrogen ion concentration = acidosis

Question 43

A consistently high level of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ suppresses the immune system by increasing production 
of interleukin-6
Select one:
a. insulin
b. aldosterone
c. cortisol 
d. glucose

Answer 43

c. cortisol

Question 44

The protein that bonds to form the fibrous component of a blood clot is called:
Select one:
a. a thrombocyte.
b. fibrin. 
c. plasminogen.
d. plasmin.

Answer 44

b. fibrin

Question 45

It has been statistically proven that the lifespan of a person with obesity is decreased by as many as \_\_\_ years.
Select one:
a. 13 
b. 8
c. 5
d. 18

Answer 45

a. 13

Question 46

What three lines of defense does the body have to protect itself against disease-causing agents?
Select one:
a. The renal system, anatomic barriers, and increased red blood cell production
b. Blood coagulation, the parasympathetic response, and anatomic barriers
c. The inflammatory response, blood coagulation, and the immune response
d. Anatomic barriers, the inflammatory response, and the immune response

Answer 46

d. Anatomic barriers, the inflammatory response, and the immune response

Question 47

Which of the following fluid imbalances would result from severe burns?
Select one:
a. Proportionate gain in both water and sodium; increased total body sodium
b. Proportionate loss in both water and sodium; decreased total body sodium
c. Proportionate loss in both water and sodium; increased total body sodium
d. Proportionate gain in both water and sodium; decreased total body sodium

Answer 47

b. Proportionate loss in both water and sodium; decreased total body sodium

Question 48

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the general term used to describe diseases of the myocardium that ultimately progress to heart failure.
Select one:
a. Cardiomyopathy 
b. Cardiomegaly
c. Atrophy
d. Hypertrophy

Answer 48

a. Cardiomyopathy

Question 49

The disease process caused by damage to the myelin sheath is called:
Select one:
a. multiple sclerosis.
b. muscular dystrophy.
c. Huntington disease.
d. Alzheimer disease.

Answer 49

a. multiple sclerosis.

Question 50

In response to hypoperfusion, the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, along with antidiuretic hormone, causes:
Select one:
a. salt and water excretion and peripheral vasoconstriction.
b. salt and water retention and peripheral vasoconstriction.
c. salt and water retention and peripheral vasodilation.
d. salt and water excretion and peripheral vasodilation.

Answer 50

b. salt and water retention and peripheral vasoconstriction.

Question 51

The human body should be functioning at its optimal level between the ages of:
Select one:
a. 25 and 35 years.
b. 18 and 22 years.
c. 21 and 30 years.
d. 19 and 25 years.

Answer 51

d. 19 and 25 years.

Question 52

By the end of the first year of life, a child's tidal volume typically ranges between:
Select one:
a. 6 and 8 mL/kg.
b. 15 and 20 mL/kg.
c. 10 and 15 mL/kg.
d. 8 and 10 mL/kg

Answer 52

c. 10 and 15 mL/kg.

Question 53

Which of the following statements regarding toddlers and preschoolers is correct?
Select one:
a. Toddlers and preschoolers have well-developed lung musculature, even though they have less lung tissue.
b. The normal respiratory rate in toddlers and preschoolers is between 12 and 20 breaths/min.
c. Toddlers and preschoolers commonly experience upper respiratory infections because of a loss of passive immunity.
d. Muscle mass and bone density decrease in toddlers and preschoolers because of increased physical activity.

Answer 53

c. Toddlers and preschoolers commonly experience upper respiratory infections because of a loss of passive immunity.

Question 54

An infant or small child’s airway can be occluded if it is overextended or overflexed because:
Select one:
a. the tongue is proportionately large and the airway is shorter and narrower.
b. he or she has a long neck, which makes the trachea prone to collapse.
c. the tongue is proportionately small and can fall back into the posterior pharynx.
d. the back of the head is flat, which prevents a neutral position.

Answer 54

a. the tongue is proportionately large and the airway is shorter and narrower.

Question 55

Physical changes that typically occur in early adults include an increase in:
Select one:
a. fatty tissue, which leads to weight gain.
b. muscle strength and reflexes.
c. height because of spinal disc expansion.
d. respiratory rate due to increased metabolism.

Answer 55

a. fatty tissue, which leads to weight gain.

Question 56

Which of the following are noticeable characteristics of a 9-month-old infant?
Select one:
a. Knows his or her name, can walk without any assistance
b. Places objects in the mouth, pulls him- or herself up
c. Walks without help, becomes frustrated with restrictions
d. Responds to his or her name, crawls around efficiently

Answer 56

b. Places objects in the mouth, pulls him- or herself up

Question 57

Infants are often referred to as “belly breathers” because:
Select one:
a. an infant’s ribs are brittle and are less able to expand.
b. their rib cage is less rigid and the ribs sit horizontally.
c. their intercostal muscles are not functional at an early age.
d. their diaphragm does not receive impulses from the brain.

Answer 57

b. their rib cage is less rigid and the ribs sit horizontally.

Question 58

In contrast to secure attachment, anxious-avoidant attachment occurs when a child:
Select one:
a. shows little emotional response to a parent or caregiver following repeated rejection.
b. clings to a parent or caregiver because he or she knows that the person can be trusted.
c. reaches out and explores because he or she knows that the parents are there as a safety net.
d. becomes acutely anxious at the presence of strangers or in unfamiliar surroundings.

Answer 58

a. shows little emotional response to a parent or caregiver following repeated rejection.

Question 59

The average pulse rate of individuals between 19 and 60 years of age is typically:
Select one:
a. 70 beats/min. 
b. 60 beats/min.
c. 80 beats/min.
d. 90 beats/min.

Answer 59

a. 70 beats/min.

Question 60

The anterior fontanelle fuses together between the ages of:
Select one:
a. 6 and 8 months.
b. 9 and 18 months. 
c. 7 and 14 months.
d. 3 and 4 months.

Answer 60

b. 9 and 18 months.

Question 61

The decline in cardiac function that commonly occurs in late adulthood is largely related to:
Select one:
a. atherosclerosis. 
b. medication use.
c. hypotension.
d. kidney failure.

Answer 61

a. atherosclerosis.

Question 62

Neonates are defined as children:
Select one:
a. between birth and 1 month of age. 
b. who weigh at least 5.5 pounds.
c. during the first few hours of life.
d. who are at least 1 month premature.

Answer 62

a. between birth and 1 month of age.

Question 63

The high normal body temperature for an infant is:
Select one:
a. 100.3
b. 97.9
c. 98.5
d. 99.6

Answer 63

d. 99.6

Question 64

At what age does separation anxiety typically peak in infants and small children?
Select one:
a. 6 to 8 months
b. 18 to 24 months
c. 24 to 36 months
d. 10 to 18 months

Answer 64

d. 10 to 18 months

Question 65

Which of the following factors would have the least effect on a 75-year-old patient’s vital signs?
Select one:
a. Overall health
b. Medical conditions
c. Increased weight 
d. Medications

Answer 65

c. Increased weight

Question 66

Which of the following statements regarding psychosocial development in the adolescent age group is correct?
Select one:
a. Family conflict decreases as the adolescent gains control of his or her life.
b. Antisocial behavior and peer pressure peak during the eighth or ninth grade.
c. Because they think rationally, adolescents are at the lowest risk for suicide.
d. Adolescents are less fixated on their public image than younger children.

Answer 66

b. Antisocial behavior and peer pressure peak during the eighth or ninth grade

Question 67

An infant’s blood pressure typically increases with age because:
Select one:
a. his or her normal heart rate usually increases with age.
b. blood pressure directly corresponds to body weight.
c. the infant’s total blood volume decreases with age.
d. as the infant gets older, his or her blood vessels dilate.

Answer 67

b. blood pressure directly corresponds to body weight.

Question 68

An infant or small toddler would most likely gain trust in an individual who:
Select one:
a. provides a planned, organized, routine environment.
b. frequently changes the infant or toddler’s regular routine.
c. maintains eye contact, even if the person is a stranger.
d. stands at a level that is only slightly higher than him or her.

Answer 68

a. provides a planned, organized, routine environment.

Question 69

Factors that contribute to a decline in the vital capacity of an elderly patient include all of the following, except:
Select one:
a. a loss of respiratory muscle mass.
b. increased surface area available for air exchange.
c. increased stiffness of the thoracic cage.
d. decreased residual volume.

Answer 69

b. increased surface area available for air exchange.

Question 70

Which of the following is a physical change that typically occurs in the early adolescent age group?
Select one:
a. Muscle and bone growth both decrease.
b. The systolic blood pressure decreases.
c. The normal pulse rate steadily increases.
d. Secondary sexual development begins.

Answer 70

d. Secondary sexual development begins.

Question 71

Which of the following medications would the AEMT typically not be allowed to administer to a patient?
Select one:
a. Naloxone
b. Amiodarone 
c. Aspirin
d. Glucagon

Answer 71

b. Amiodarone

Question 72

Subcutaneous injections deliver the medication:
Select one:
a. below the layer of muscle.
b. between the skin and the muscle. 
c. into the muscle.
d. deep within the dermis.

Answer 72

b. between the skin and the muscle.

Question 73

As an AEMT, which of the following medications would you be allowed to administer to a patient?
Select one:
a. Atropine
b. Amiodarone
c. Epinephrine 
d. Lidocaine

Answer 73

c. Epinephrine

Question 74

A known contraindication to the administration of 50% dextrose (D50) is:
Select one:
a. hypertension.
b. dehydration.
c. intracranial hemorrhage. 
d. inability to follow commands.

Answer 74

c. intracranial hemorrhage

Question 75

Factors that alter a patient's response to a drug include:
Select one:
a. over-the-counter versus prescription.
b. the route of administration.
c. the type of drug given.
d. body mass and psychological factors.

Answer 75

d. body mass and psychological factors.

Question 76

. A 40-year-old man with diabetes has a blood glucose level of 38 mg/dL. However, because he is unconscious and unable to swallow oral glucose, that medication is:
Select one:
a. idiosyncratic.
b. ineffective.
c. contraindicated. 
d. indicated.

Answer 76

c. contraindicated.

Question 77

Which of the following is not a physiologic effect of sympathetic nervous system stimulation?
Select one:
a. Reduced digestion
b. Vasoconstriction
c. Dilated pupils
d. Decreased heart rate

Answer 77

d. Decreased heart rate

Question 78

While reading the package insert that accompanies a medication, you note that it has been assigned a pregnancy category D. This means that:
Select one:
a. studies in animals have not demonstrated a risk to the fetus; however, adequate studies have not been performed in humans.
b. risk of adverse effects has clearly been demonstrated in humans; therefore, the drug should not be administered to pregnant women.
c. studies in animals have demonstrated adverse effects; however, studies have not been conducted in humans.
d. risk to the human fetus has been demonstrated; however, administration of the drug may outweigh the risk of potential adverse effects in certain circumstances.

Answer 78

d. risk to the human fetus has been demonstrated; however, administration of the drug may outweigh the risk of potential adverse effects in certain circumstances.

Question 79

Atropine increases the heart rate by:
Select one:
a. increasing sympathetic nervous system discharge.
b. agonizing the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system.
c. blocking the vagus nerve and preventing innervation by ACh.
d. blocking the release of norepinephrine.

Answer 79

c. blocking the vagus nerve and preventing innervation by ACh.

Question 80

Medications that the AEMT is authorized to administer are ultimately determined by:
Select one:
a. his or her medical director.
b. the EMS chief or supervisor.
c. the patient's personal physician.
d. his or her scope of training.

Answer 80

a. his or her medical director.

Question 81

You administer 0.4 mg of nitroglycerin to your 55-year-old patient with chest pain. Which of the following adverse reactions should you be most observant for?
Select one:
a. Palpitations
b. Headache
c. Nausea
d. Hypotension

Answer 81

d. Hypotension

Question 82

What is the mechanism of aspirin when given to a patient who is experiencing an acute myocardial infarction?
Select one:
a. Decreases swelling around the infarct site.
b. Increases local vasoconstriction and increases BP
c. Decreases platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction
d. Blocks the body’s plasminogen system

Answer 82

c. Decreases platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction

Question 83

Which of the following physiologic responses would you expect to occur following administration of a drug that possesses alpha-1 properties?
Select one:
a. Increased cardiac contractility
b. Peripheral vasoconstriction 
c. Dilation of the bronchioles
d. Systemic vasodilation

Answer 83

b. Peripheral vasoconstriction

Question 84

The Narcotic Control Act of 1956:
Select one:
a. assigned each controlled substance a specific schedule, based on its use and potential for addiction.
b. made the possession of heroin illegal and outlawed the acquisition and transportation of marijuana.
c. regulated the import, manufacture, prescription, and sale of several nonnarcotic medications, as well as cocaine and opium.
d. protected the public from mislabeled, poisonous, or otherwise harmful foods and medications.

Answer 84

b. made the possession of heroin illegal and outlawed the acquisition and transportation of marijuana.

Question 85

You are unable to establish an IV on a critically injured conscious patient. What route should you use for gaining vascular access?
Select one:
a. Intradermal
b. Intramuscular
c. Subcutaneous
d. Intraosseous

Answer 85

d. Intraosseous

Question 86

Which of the following signs indicate narcotic-induced CNS depression and would indicate the administration of naloxone?
Select one:
a. Hypoventilation 
b. Tachycardia
c. Violent behavior
d. Hyperventilation

Answer 86

a. Hypoventilation

Question 87

A drug’s therapeutic index refers to:
Select one:
a. how quickly the drug will be excreted from the body.
b. the maximum concentration that can safely be given.
c. the difference between a therapeutic and lethal dose.
d. the minimum dose required to achieve the desired effect.

Answer 87

c. the difference between a therapeutic and lethal dose.

Question 88

What might happen if a drug is given to a patient with liver disease?
Select one:
a. The drug would be rendered ineffective.
b. Toxic blood levels of the drug
c. Decreased elimination time of the drug
d. Increased detoxification of the drug

Answer 88

b. Toxic blood levels of the drug

Question 89

Which of the following drugs dissolves a thrombus and prevents it from entering the bloodstream?
Select one:
a. Diuretic
b. Anticoagulant
c. Antiplatelet
d. Fibrinolytic

Answer 89

d. Fibrinolytic

Question 90

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ solutions provide a stable medium for the administration of medications and provide effective fluid and electrolyte replacement.
Select one:
a. Isotonic 
b. Hypotonic
c. Colloid
d. Hypertonic

Answer 90

a. Isotonic

Question 91

Adverse reactions associated with epinephrine include all of the following, except:
Select one:
a. dysrhythmias.
b. bradycardia. 
c. anginal pain.
d. headache.

Answer 91

b. bradycardia.

Question 92

Which of the following medications would the AEMT help a patient self-administer?
Select one:
a. Glucagon
b. 50% dextrose
c. Naloxone
d. Albuterol

Answer 92

d. Albuterol

Question 93

Which of the following medications is administered in gel form?
Select one:
a. Oral glucose 
b. Fentanyl
c. Nitroglycerin
d. Activated charcoal

Answer 93

a. Oral glucose

Question 94

If you administered naloxone (Narcan) to a patient who overdosed on morphine, what effect would occur?
Select one:
a. Hypersensitivity
b. Cross-tolerance
c. Antagonism 
d. Potentiation

Answer 94

c. Antagonism

Question 95

Benzodiazepines are a classification of medication that are used to:
Select one:
a. reduce fatigue.
b. induce sedation. 
c. increase heart rate.
d. relieve pain.

Answer 95

b. induce sedation.

Question 96

What is the approximate weight in kilograms of a 155-lb patient?
Select one:
a. 74 kg
b. 76 kg
c. 72 kg
d. 70 kg

Answer 96

d. 70 kg

Question 97

The term “bolus” is defined as:
Select one:
a. administering a drug in one mass of volume.
b. administering at least 20 mL of volume.
c. administering less than 10 mL of volume.
d. delivering a drug via maintenance infusion.

Answer 97

a. administering a drug in one mass of volume.

Question 98

During a long-distance transport, you initiate an IV of normal saline and infuse 125 mL over 2 hours. Using microdrip tubing, how many drops per minute (gtt/min) is your IV flow rate set at?
Select one:
a. 58 gtt/min
b. 63 gtt/min 
c. 39 gtt/min
d. 53 gtt/min

Answer 98

b. 63 gtt/min

Question 99

An intraosseous line should be inserted in a critical patient if:
Select one:
a. IV access cannot be achieved within 90 seconds.
b. vascular access is not needed for fluid administration.
c. the patient will require a whole blood transfusion.
d. you cannot establish IV access within six attempts.

Answer 99

a. IV access cannot be achieved within 90 seconds.

Question 100

In addition to administering supplemental oxygen, what is the most appropriate management for a patient with circulatory overload caused by excessive IV fluid administration?
Select one:
a. Head lowered, medical control notified
b. Lateral recumbent position, event documented
c. Head elevated, medical control notified
d. Trendelenburg’s position, event documented

Answer 100

c. Head elevated, medical control notified

Question 101

You have been requested to infuse 1,000 mL of lactated Ringer over 6 hours. You have macrodrip (10 gtts/mL) tubing and a 16-gauge IV catheter. At how many drops per minute will you set the IV flow rate?
Select one:
a. 22
b. 24
c. 26
d. 28

Answer 101

d. 28

Question 102

A glass drug cartridge and syringe are components of aNo:
Select one:
a. ampule.
b. prefilled syringe.
c. vial.
d. Mix-o-Vial.

Answer 102

b. prefilled syringe.

Question 103

Which of the following electrolytes is essential for the distribution of water throughout the body?
Select one:
a. Sodium 
b. Calcium
c. Chloride
d. Potassium

Answer 103

a. Sodium

Question 104

Which of the following formulas is correct for converting a patient’s weight in pounds to his or her weight in kilograms?
Select one:
a. Divide the patient’s weight in pounds by 2 and subtract 10%.
b. Multiply the patient’s weight in pounds by 2.
c. Divide the patient’s weight in pounds by 2 and add 10%.
d. Multiply the patient’s weight in pounds by 2.2.

Answer 104

a. Divide the patient’s weight in pounds by 2 and subtract 10%.

Question 105

While starting an IV on a patient, you see bright red blood quickly traveling up the IV tubing. You should:
Select one:
a. remove the catheter and apply direct pressure.
b. lower the IV bag to ensure viability of the IV line.
c. secure the IV line and apply direct pressure.
d. evaluate the puncture site for signs of infiltration.

Answer 105

a. remove the catheter and apply direct pressure.

Question 106

When attaching an administration set to a bag of IV fluid and priming the IV tubing, you should ensure that the drip chamber is:
Select one:
a. one half full.
b. completely full.
c. one fourth full.
d. three fourths full.

Answer 106

a. one half full.

Question 107

After inserting the needle into the injection port of a saline lock, you pull back on the plunger and observe blood return in the syringe. You should next:
Select one:
a. administer the medication via IM injection instead.
b. remove the needle and prepare a new syringe.
c. flush the saline lock with normal saline before giving the drug.
d. administer the medication and observe for infiltration.

Answer 107

d. administer the medication and observe for infiltration.

Question 108

You have set an IV to deliver 250 mL of normal saline over 3 hours using microdrip tubing. How much fluid are you delivering every 30 minutes?
Select one:
a. 64 mL
b. 36 mL
c. 42 mL
d. 56 mL

Answer 108

c. 42 mL

Question 109

A 7-year-old child has swallowed a bottle of aspirin. Medical control orders you to give the child 0.5 g/kg of activated charcoal. Based on the child's weight of 45 pounds, how much charcoal will you administer?
Select one:
a. 10 g
b. 15 g
c. 5 g
d. 20 g

Answer 109

a. 10 g

Question 110

Common site for intraosseous cannulation include all of the following, except the:
Select one:
a. sternum.
b. proximal tibia
c. lateral femur. 
d. humerus.

Answer 110

c. lateral femur.

Question 111

You respond to a call for an unresponsive diabetic. Upon arrival, you find a 23-year-old female unresponsive on her couch. During your assessment, you determine that her blood glucose level is 38 mg/dL. You attempt to start an IV, but are unsuccessful after several attempts. Which of the following routes could be used to administer 50% dextrose?
Select one:
a. Rectal 
b. Oral
c. Subcutaneous
d. Intralingual

Answer 111

a. Rectal

Question 112

Compartment syndrome occurs when:
Select one:
a. fluid leaks out of the bone and engorges the veins in proximity to the bone.
b. fluid leaks out of the bone and into the osteofascial compartment.
c. medication is trapped within the bone canal and causes local destruction.
d. swelling occurs within the canal of the bone and compromises circulation

Answer 112

b. fluid leaks out of the bone and into the osteofascial compartment.

Question 113

How many grams are present in 25 mL of 50% dextrose (D50)?
Select one:
a. 50 g
b. 12.5 g 
c. 6.25 g
d. 25 g

Answer 113

b. 12.5 g

Question 114

You are attempting to start an IV in a vein on the back of your patient’s hand. As you insert the catheter, the patient complains of sudden, severe shooting pain followed by numbness in the extremity. You should:
Select one:
a. remove the catheter and choose another site.
b. carefully continue with the venipuncture.
c. lift the IV catheter to a 45° angle.
d. assure the patient the symptoms are normal.

Answer 114

a. remove the catheter and choose another site.

Question 115

A solution that hydrates the cells while depleting the vascular compartment is referred to as being:
Select one:
a. hypertonic.
b. hyperosmolar.
c. hypotonic.
d. isotonic.

Answer 115

c. hypotonic.

Question 116

When starting an IV on an elderly patient, you should be aware that:
Select one:
a. larger IV catheters minimize the risk of extravasation.
b. certain medications can create fragile skin and veins.
c. the patient’s skin is often thick and difficult to puncture.
d. varicose veins are often the easiest veins to cannulate

Answer 116

b. certain medications can create fragile skin and veins.

Question 117

Reconstituting a drug, such as glucagon, involves:
Select one:
a. injecting liquid from one vial into another vial that already contains powder.
b. placing at least 10 mL of saline into a vial that contains powdered medication.
c. diluting a medication with at least 20 mL of saline prior to administration.
d. injecting liquid from one vial into another vial that contains liquid medication.

Answer 117

a. injecting liquid from one vial into another vial that already contains powder.

Question 118

A 66-year-old male with congestive heart failure presents with pulmonary edema and difficulty breathing. His blood pressure is 180/90 mm Hg and his pulse rate is 110 beats/min and irregular. When starting an IV, which of the following, if available, would be most appropriate for this patient?
Select one:
a. Butterfly catheter
b. 14-gauge angiocath
c. Intracath
d. Saline lock

Answer 118

d. Saline lock

Question 119

Intracellular and extracellular fluid account for what percentage of total body weight?
Select one:
a. 70%
b. 80%
c. 50%
d. 60%

Answer 119

d. 60%

Question 120

Which of the following statements regarding intraosseous infusion is correct?
Select one:
a. Compared to an IV line, fluid does not flow well into the bone because of resistance.
b. The incidence of osteomyelitis is high following intraosseous infusion.
c. Manual IO insertion is performed by approaching the bone at a 45° angle.
d. Intraosseous needles consist of a solid boring needle inside a hollow Teflon catheter.

Answer 120

a. Compared to an IV line, fluid does not flow well into the bone because of resistance.

Question 121

What is the most significant drawback to cannulating a scalp vein in a child with a butterfly catheter?
Select one:
a. Scalp veins are often difficult to cannulate.
b. It is aesthetically unpleasant.
c. It does not allow for rapid fluid administration.
d. It causes apprehension for the family.

Answer 121

c. It does not allow for rapid fluid administration.

Question 122

Which of the following is a systemic complication associated with IV therapy?
Select one:
a. Infiltration
b. Hematoma
c. Phlebitis
d. Air embolus

Answer 122

d. Air embolus

Question 123

If you have an epinephrine concentration of 0.1 mg/mL, how many milligrams would be present in 5 mL?
Select one:
a. 0.5 mg 
b. 0.05 mg
c. 0.005 mg
d. 5 mg

Answer 123

a. 0.5 mg

Question 124

Which of the following medications or solutions can be administered through an intraosseous line?
Select one:
a. Whole blood and cardiac medications only
b. Anything that you can administer via an IV
c. Hypertonic drugs and fluids only
d. Normal saline and hypotonic drugs only

Answer 124

b. Anything that you can administer via an IV

Question 125

. After inserting the needle into the injection port of an IV line, but before administering the medication, you should:
Select one:
a. pinch off the tubing proximal to the injection port.
b. flush the line with a 20-mL bolus of normal saline.
c. withdraw the plunger of the syringe to detect blood.
d. explain the procedure to the patient and obtain consent.

Answer 125

a. pinch off the tubing proximal to the injection port.

Question 126

You are transporting an elderly man to the hospital because of complications associated with his congestive heart failure. Approximately 20 minutes after starting an IV of normal saline on the patient, he begins to complain of shortness of breath. You auscultate his lungs and hear rales in all lung fields. What should you do?
Select one:
a. Immediately discontinue the IV.
b. Place the patient in a supine position.
c. Check the flow rate of the IV line.
d. Assess him for internal hemorrhage.

Answer 126

c. Check the flow rate of the IV line.

Question 127

Which of the following is not a crystalloid?
Select one:
a. Lactated ringer solution
b. 5% dextrose in water
c. Normal saline
d. Whole blood

Answer 127

d. Whole blood

Question 128

Which of the following electrolytes determines whether or not the body is acidotic or alkalotic?
Select one:
a. Phosphorus
b. Bicarbonate 
c. Sodium
d. Calcium

Answer 128

b. Bicarbonate

Question 129

When replacing lost volume with crystalloids, it is important to remember that:
Select one:
a. crystalloids do not have the capacity of carrying oxygen.
b. giving too little fluid may interfere with the process of hemostasis.
c. 1 mL should be given for every 3 mL of estimated blood loss.
d. one-third of the fluid will leave the vascular spaces within an hour.

Answer 129

a. crystalloids do not have the capacity of carrying oxygen.

Question 130

. A 70-year-old man presents with generalized weakness and dizziness. His blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg when he is sitting, 96/56 mm Hg when he is standing. His heart rate is 120 beats/min, and his skin is flushed and dry. What is the most likely cause of this patient's signs and symptoms?
Select one:
a. Dehydration
b. Overhydration
c. Kidney failure
d. Liver failure

Answer 130

a. Dehydration

Question 131

The immune response involves which type of white blood cell?
Select one:
a. Eosinophil
b. Neutrophil
c. Lymphocyte
d. Leukocyte

Answer 131

c. Lymphocyte

Question 132

A 50-year-old patient complains of abdominal muscle cramps and spasms of his hands. Which of the following electrolyte disturbances does this patient most likely have?
Select one:
a. Hyperkalemia
b. Hypernatremia
c. Hypocalcemia
d. Hypercalcemia

Answer 132

c. Hypocalcemia

Question 133

A form of solid drug that is stored in a gelatin shell filled with liquid or powder is called a:
Select one:
a. suspension.
b. solution.
c. tablet.
d. capsule.

Answer 133

d. capsule.

Question 134

How does lactated Ringer solution help combat intracellular acidosis associated with severe blood loss?
Select one:
a. It has the same chemical components that are contained in bicarbonate.
b. The lactate is metabolized by the liver to form bicarbonate.
c. It overhydrates the patient and forces hydrogen ions from the body.
d. It draws hydrogen ions into the intravascular space and sends them to the kidneys.

Answer 134

b. The lactate is metabolized by the liver to form bicarbonate.

Question 135

A solution that has a greater concentration of sodium than the cell is referred to as being:
Select one:
a. hypotonic.
b. isotonic.
c. hyperosmolar.
d. hypertonic.

Answer 135

d. hypertonic.

Question 136

You have attempted to cannulate a vein in a patient’s hand; however, shortly after inserting the IV catheter, the vein infiltrates. You should:
Select one:
a. reattempt to cannulate the same vein when the swelling subsides.
b. look for a vein that is proximal to the infiltrated vein.
c. attempt to cannulate the distal part of the same vein.
d. search for a vein in the opposite extremity.

Answer 136

b. look for a vein that is proximal to the infiltrated vein.

Question 137

Your patient is a 56-year-old man with chest pain. Medical control orders you to assist the patient with his prescribed nitroglycerin. The patient later tells you that the palms of his hands itch. His vital signs, however, remain stable. This peculiar effect of the drug is referred to as aNo:
Select one:
a. therapeutic effect.
b. allergic reaction.
c. idiosyncratic reaction.
d. side effect.

Answer 137

c. idiosyncratic reaction.

Question 138

Physiologic effects of catecholamines include:
Select one:
a. negative inotropy.
b. decreased systemic vascular resistance.
c. vasodilation.
d. increased systemic vascular resistance.

Answer 138

d. increased systemic vascular resistance.

Question 139

Nitroglycerin relaxes vascular smooth muscle, dilates the coronary arteries, and relieves cardiac chest pain. These properties of nitroglycerin are called:
Select one:
a. idiosyncratic effects.
b. contraindications.
c. therapeutic effects
d. side effects.

Answer 139

c. therapeutic effects

Question 140

While eating dinner at a restaurant with his wife, a man remembers that he did not take his antianxiety medication. He immediately begins to experience anxiety and tells his wife that they must leave immediately. This response is typical of:
Select one:
a. potentiation.
b. tolerance.
c. dependence.
d. synergism.

Answer 140

c. dependence.

Question 141

The function of a drug or the particular action of a drug on an organism is called:
Select one:
a. the drug classification.
b. pharmacology.
c. an indication.
d. the mechanism of action.

Answer 141

d. the mechanism of action.