Unit 2 - Week 1 - Savici 1 and 2, Moffat 2, Stein 2, Amack 2 Flashcards
(86 cards)
1
Q
What tests might you perform with someone who has intermittent, triggered episodes of SOB?
A
Pulmonary Fx test
Methacholine challenge test
2
Q
What is the length of time covered by an acute cough?
A
< 3 weeks
3-8 weeks = subacute
>8 weeks = chronic cough
3
Q
What is the worst case scenario for hemoptysis?
A
Exsanguination
4
Q
What is pectus carinatum?
A
Pidgeon chest, prominent sternal protrusion
5
Q
What is the scientific term for funnel chest?
A
Pectus excavatum, indentation of the lower sternum above the xiphoid process
6
Q
In what diagnosis is Barrel chest commonly seen?
A
Emphysema
7
Q
What challenges to kyphosis and scoliosis pose?
A
They can have adverse effects on lung and breathing.
8
Q
What are 3 adventitious lung sounds?
A
- Wheezing
- Crackling
- Ronchi
9
Q
What is egophany?
A
E to A sounds present in consolidation, auscultation
10
Q
When is wheezing heard?
A
Wheezing is heard on inspiration and expiration. Common in airway obstruction, asthma, interstitial edema
11
Q
When is crackling heard?
A
Heard on inspiration, common in pulmonary edema, pneumonia
12
Q
When are ronchi heard?
A
Heard on inspiration and expiration, clears with cough, common with secretions in the large airways
13
Q
What are some causes of decreaing breathing rate?
A
Narcotic overdose myasthenia gravis CNS lesions alkalosis obesity
14
Q
With what diagnoses might you see clubbing of fingers?
A
Lung cancer
CF
cirrhosis
congenital heart diseases
15
Q
What is PND?
A
Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea, SOB relieved when sitting up
16
Q
What is orthopnea?
A
SOB when laying flat, ask the patient how many pillows do you use at night?
17
Q
What are causes of chronic cough?
A
Asthma
Post-nasal drip, “Acute upper airway syndrome”
Chronic bronchitis
GERD
18
Q
What is the difference between tachypnea and hyperventilation?
A
Hyperventilation is both deep and fast (>20 bpm) breathing
19
Q
What is Kussmaul breathing?
A
Rapid, deep and labored
20
Q
What is Biot breathing?
A
Disorganized pattern with periods of apnea
21
Q
What is Ataxic breathing?
A
Irregular and varying depth of breathing
22
Q
What are causes of dyspnea?
A
Interstitial lung disease Metabolic acidosis Upper airway obstruction Asthma COPD PE CHF Pulmonary vascular disease Psychogenic
23
Q
Fun fact!
A
40% of human genes are present in flies and worms
24
Q
Define a homologous gene, or homolog:
A
A gene similar in structure and evolutionary origin (and likely function) to a gene in another species. For example, drosophila gene for brain development can be inserted into mice lacking that gene, and those mice can develop brains more or less normally.
25
How do genes drive development:
The genetic material is identical in every cell, but different cells express different sets of genes. This is the concept of genome equivalence.
26
Somatic nuclear transfer is another term for:
cloning
27
What is the concept of differential gene expression?
Only a small percentage of the genome is expressed in each cell type
28
Gene expression is regulated at several levels. Name four:
1. Differential gene transcription
2. selective nuclear RNA processing
3. selective mRNA translation
4. Differential protein modification
29
RNA in situ hybridization is used to detect ______.
mRNA expression in cells or tissues
30
The expression of different sets of genes in different cells coordinates development by controlling four essential cellular processes by which the embryo is constructed:
1. Cell proliferation: producing many cells from one.
2. Cell specialization: creating cells with different characteristics at different positions.
3. Cell interactions: coordinating the behavior of one cell with that of its neighbors
4. Cell movement: rearranging the cells to form structured tissues and organs.
31
Name the two minimum components to every inductive interaction:
1. Inducer - the tissue that provides a signal that changes the behavior of the target tissue
2. Responder - the tissue being induced. The responder must have the ability to respond to the signal, referred to as "competence"
32
Explain the example of induction by the optic vesicle in the Xenopus frog embryo.
The optic vesicle is able to induce lens formation in the anterior portion of the ectoderm, but not in the trunk or abdomen of the embryo. If the optic vesicle is removed, either no lens, or a malformed lens, will develop. **Most other tissues are not able to substitute for the optic vesicle as an inducer
33
__1__ is a transcription factor that is important in providing competence to respond to the inducer signals from the optic cup. This is an example showing that __2__ is actively acquired. __1__ makes ectoderm competent to respond to __3__ signals from the optic vesicle. Therefore, __1__ is considered a __4__.
1. Pax6
2. competence
3. inductive
4. Competence factor
34
What is the cause of aniridia?
Aniridia is an autosomal dominant condition in which Pax6 has undergone a mutation. Aniridia causes problems that affect the iris, intraocular pressure, lens, cornea and optic nerve. Homozygotes for this condition do not survive.
35
Signals are often transmitted between inducer and responder via what types of signaling?
Paracrine and juxtacrine.
36
True or False: Juxtacrine signaling requires contact between neighboring cells.
True. Paracrine factors, however, can be secreted into the ECM to deliver a message to surrounding, but not touching, cells.
37
What is a morphogen?
A morphogen is a paracrine-signaling molecule secreted from a source that acts directly on neighboring cells to produce specific responses that depend on concentration of the morphogen.
38
Explain the concept os a concentration gradient w/r/t a morphogen.
For example, high concentration of the received signal can induce one effect, while intermediate concentration of the signal, perhaps received from cells further away, can have a different effect. Etc.
39
In an example experiment, Nodal functions as a morphogen in what model system?
Zebrafish. Nodal turned on different transcription factors, depending on how far the cells were from the initial Nodal induction.
40
Give two examples of signal transduction pathways in development.
1. Transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-B)
| 2. Sonic Hedgehog signaling pathway
41
Morphogen gradients pattern the __1__. For example, antagonistic activities of __2__ and __3__ pattern the developing spinal cord.
1. neural tube
| 2. SHH and Wnt/BMP
42
Give another name for situs ambiguous.
Heterotaxy, results in congenital malformations, especially of the heart.
43
Defects in establishing L/R symmetry often alter development of the cardiovascular and GI systems. Give some examples.
1. Congenital heart defects
2. Asplenia (R isomerism)
3. Polysplenia (L isomerism)
4. Volvulus or other malrotation of the intestine
44
The development of cardiac L/R asymmetry involves what crucial process:
Cardiac looping the aligns chambers and vascular connections
45
Malexpression of Nodal, either reversed or bilaterally, in embryos, correlates with:
altered organ symmetry
46
What are the components of Kartagener's triad?
1. Bronchiectasis
2. Situs inversus (50%)
3. Infertility
Visceral asymmetry is determined through movements of cilia during development.
47
What is one hypothesis w/r/t cilia and organ development?
Asymmetric fluid flow establishes a morphogen gradient that orients the L/R body axis.
48
Asymmetric signals such as __1__ that respond to cilia-driven fluid flow trigger __2__ expression in the left lateral plate mesoderm. __2__ activates downstream target genes that include the TF __3__ and the Nodal inhibitor __4__.
1. calcium ion signaling
2. Nodal
3. Pitx2
4. Lefty
49
Pitx2 is thought to mediate:
asymmetric morphogenesis of genes of developing brain, heart and gut.
50
Cilia-driven fluid flow is involved in establishing an asymmetric Nodal (TGF-B) signaling cascade in the:
left lateral plate mesoderm
51
The effects of mitochondrial mutations are usually related to tissues where there is a lot of:
ox phos activity
52
Name three categories of mitochondrial disorders.
Neuropathies
Encephalopathies
Myopathies
53
Mitochondrial function depends on:
Mitochondrial and autosomal gene function and expression
54
Mitochondrial disorders typically have what kind of inheritance?
Matrilineal (if the defect is not nuclear)
55
Homoplasmy refers to a population of mitochondria that:
All have the same genetic composition
56
Heteroplasmy is when there are two or more different populations of ___________ present in a cell.
Mitochondria
57
Mitochondrial diseases typically behave progressively with late onset. This can in part be due to a concept called:
Replicative segregation. As cells divide, the proportion of mutant mitochondria might change over time.
58
What does MERRF stand for?
Myoclonic Epilepsy with Ragged Red Fiber disease, mitochondrial inheritance
59
The diagnosis of mitochondrial disease is complicated by what three main things?
1. Heteroplasmy and variable expression
2. Maternal inheritance
3. Progressive nature of disease
60
What is: the use of DNA technologies (PCR, RFLP, sequencing etc.) to obtain information on the genetic identity of an individual(s) and how that relates to a criminal, medical or scientific investigation.
Forensic DNA Analysis
61
What areas of the nuclear DNA have the highest polymorphisms and are thus best for use in forensic DNA analysis?
Hypervariable minisatellite regions
62
True or False: Paternity testing requires at least 2 probes to the DNA.
True
63
What is CODIS?
Combined DNA Information System, only accessible for military and criminal justice system, helps to link crimes by DNA found at the scene.
64
What is CPE?
Cytopathic effect, not all viruses have it, but you can study viruses (that do have it) by looking at their effects on cells, for example the cell may be swollen
65
How can you view viruses?
Inverted microscope
66
True or False: Viruses generate their own ATP.
False!
67
What elements does a virus need to grow?
1. Tropism - the right tissue
2. Susceptibility - cells have the right receptors to let in a virus
3. Permissivity - an appropriate cellular environment
4. Biosynthesis machinery
5. Abundance - of building blocks - RNA, DNA, aa's, lipids, sugars
6. Time - to complete replication
"TTPABS"
68
What are the nine steps in virus replication?
1. recognition of target cell
2. attachment
3. entry/penetration/fusion
4. uncoating
5. transcription of mRNA
6. protein synthesis
7. replication of the genome
8. assembly of virions
9. egress: lysis/budding/exocytosis
69
How does the herpesvirus recognize and attach to its host?
Herpesvirus recognizes the ECM, and then attaches to specific protein receptors.
70
What is the difference between tissue tropism and host range?
Host range refers to the preferred species
| Tropism refers to the specific tissue
71
If a cell is not permissive to virion replication, what des that mean?
The cell's machinery does not support (no abundance) virion replication, despite its potential susceptibility.
72
Fusion at the cell surface occurs with what virus?
HIV (or pizza), envelope left outside host cell.
73
Clathrin-mediated endocytosis and penetration occur with what virus?
Adenovirus
74
What is viral uncoating?
For infection to begin, capsids must open to release the genome into the cytoplasm or nucleus. This is the beginning of the "eclipse phase."
75
True or False: Uncoating of a virus can happen both at the cell surface, or in the cytoplasm of the host.
True, depends on the type of virus. Can also uncoat at the nuclear pore!
76
All viruses must make:
mRNA, viral genome is the temple for transcription, regulated by both viral and host transcription factors.
77
Viral mRNAs are translated into protein by what host machinery:
1. tRNA
2. RIbosomes
3. AA's
78
What is RDRP?
Viral RNA-dependent RNA polymerase, used to make RNA and genomes
79
Assembly of virions marks:
the end of the eclipse phase
80
Virions may transfer to new cells by what processes?
1. Cell to cell spread
| 2. Cell fusion --> syncytium formation
81
What is syncytium formation?
When a viruses fuses neighboring cells into a large multinucleate mass (fatal for the cells)
82
What are the steps in the virus growth curve?
1. Eclipse - no viruses recovered from sample
2. Maturation - virus particle are made
3. Burst size - the # of infectious progeny from a single round of replication, more exponential than bacterial replication
83
How are infectious virions measured?
In PFU's, Plaque Forming Units, because that's how to describe the effect on tissue culture
84
True or False: Virion envelopes are constructed from viral glycoproteins and host membranes.
True
85
True or False: Enveloped viruses obtain a membrane from a cellular compartment.
True
86
What is the best tool for performing evolutionary studies?
Nuclear DNA, because mitochondrial DNA is less stable and tends to degrade more quickly.
