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Physiology > Unit 3 > Flashcards

Unit 3 Flashcards

1
Q

blood type depends on _____ on the surface of RBCs?

A

antigens

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2
Q

_____ is any molecule that causes your immune system to react and produce antibodies

A

antigen

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3
Q

what are the functions of the circulatory system

A
  1. transportation of essential substances for cell metabolism
  2. regulation (hormones, temp)
  3. protection (clotting and immune)
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4
Q

what are the 2 divisions of the circulatory system and what do they include?

A

cardiovascular - heart and blood vessels

lymphatic - lymphatic vessels and lymphoid tissues

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5
Q

what is the flow of blood vessels in order

A

arteries ® arterioles ® capillaries ® venules ® veins ® heart
plasma passes through walls of capillaries ® tissue/interstitial fluid

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6
Q

what are the lymphoid tissues in the body

A

spleen, thymus, tonsils, lymph nodes

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7
Q

lymphatic system has ___-way flow towards the heart

A

one

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8
Q

_____ is a little over 1/2 the blood total volume

A

plasma

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9
Q

what are the 3 categories of plasma proteins

A

albumins, globulins, fibrinogens

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10
Q

T or F: plasma is important for viscosity

A

T

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11
Q

_____ is the smallest of the proteins present in plasma

A

albumins

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12
Q

albumins are produced in the _____, and is responsible for ___ ____ _____

A

liver;

bloodosmotic pressure

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13
Q

what are the 3 subtypes of globulins and what do they do?

A
  1. alpha and beta - produced by liver- transport lipids and fat-soluble vitamins (ADEK)
  2. gamma - antibodies produced by B lymphocytes for immunity
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14
Q

_______ is a subtype of plasma proteins that is a clotting protein produced by the liver

A

fibrinogen

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15
Q

_____ is plasma without fibrinogens that is helpful for the collection of blood samples

A

serum

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16
Q

_____ ____ are the part of blood that gives it color and is slightly less than 1/2 of the blood

A

formed elements

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17
Q

identify the 3 different types of formed elements

A

erethrocytes, thrombocytes, leukocytes

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18
Q

_____ are RBCs and ____ are WBCs

A

erethrocytes; leukocytes

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19
Q

are erethrocytes capable of mitosis? wby or why not

A

no, because they have no nucleus, DNA, or mitosis

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20
Q

erethrocytes are produced as _____ in the red bone marrow

A

erethroblasts

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21
Q

what is the diff btwn erythrocytes and erethroblasts?

A

erythrocytes: have hemoglobin, but no nucleus, DNA, or mitosis; mature RBC
erythroblasts: have hemoglobin, full nucleus, DNA, mitosis; precursor to erethrocyte

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22
Q

describe the shape of erythrocytes and what the advantage is of this shape

A

are biconcave discs (like glazed donuts with layer across the hole). gives them the greatest surface area advantage to maximize the amount of oxygen that can be diffused across the cell membrane

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23
Q

what is the av life span of erythrocyte, why, and what does this result in?

A

100-120 days on average, because they have no helper organelles. results in new RBCs to be added to the body every day

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24
Q

what causes the red color of erythrocytes

A

iron at the center of the hemoglobin

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25
Q

how are old RBC’s recycled

A

RBCs are filtered out by the spleen, liver, and sometimes by the lymph nodes. parts of the cell membrane, iron and globin are recycled and reused and sent back to the bone marrow.

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26
Q

_____ is the medical term for lacking an adequate amount of blood/hemoglobin

A

anemia

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27
Q

what is the most common cause of anemia

A

iron deficiency

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28
Q

who is most likely to get an iron deficiency anemia?

A

women of menstruation/child-bearing age bc their menstrual cycle causes them to lose blood and thus iron monthly that is this not recycled back into the body

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29
Q

______ are the smallest formed element (cell fragment, not cell) and responsible for blood clotting

A

thrombocytes/platelets

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30
Q

thrombocytes/platelets are formed from fragments of _______

A

megakaryocytes

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31
Q

what is the average viability of thrombocytes (platelets) and why?

A

9-10 days, bc can’t undergo mitosis and dont have a nucleus

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32
Q

because they are a piece of a cell they are very sticky and stick to anything that releases a ____. what is the purpose of this?

A

prostoglandin, to help generate a blood clot

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33
Q

why do people take aspirin to reduce the likelyhood of blood clots?

A

aspirin makes the platelets less sticky and thus less likely for blood to clot

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34
Q

what can be the result of taking too much aspirin?

A

body’s ability to clot is very reduced, thus causing ulcers in stomach, etc

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35
Q

______ contain nuclei and mitochondria, have amoeboid movement and are classified as either granulocytes or agranulocytes

A

leukocytes/WBC

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36
Q

true of false: thrombocytes are capable of amoeboid movement

A

true

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37
Q

laukoyctes are capable of _______, which is amoeboid movement thru capillary walls towards inflammation

A

dispedesis (extravasation - outside the cell)

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38
Q

what are the 3 types of granulocytes

A

eosinophils, basophils, and neutrophils

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39
Q

____ are granulocytes that have red ganules and are elevated due to parasites and allergies

A

eosinophile

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40
Q

____ are granulocytes that have blue granules and are the least common (and least understood) of WBCs

A

basophils

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41
Q

_____ are granulocytes with no stain and are the most abundant and present in increased number during bacterial infection

A

neutrophils

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42
Q

______ is the type of nucleus that all granulocytes have, but is only visible in neutrophils

A

polymorphonucleus

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43
Q

neutrophils are often called ____ bc they are the only granulocytes in which the polymorphonucleus is visible

A

PMNs

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44
Q

what is one of the basic functions of neutrophils

A

phagocytosis of infections and dead cells/invaders

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45
Q

_____ cells are immature neutrophils that are C-shaped due to their not-fully-formed nucleus. why would they be present in the blood?

A

band cells; their presence signifies that the neutrophils are trying to fight a chronic infection and thus immature stem cells are needed to fight it

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46
Q

name the 2nd most common WBC; it is very small and is elevated when there is a viral infection

A

lymphocytes

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47
Q

what are the 2 types of lymphocytes

A

B cells and T cells

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48
Q

lymphocytes are involved in the production of ____.

A

antibodies

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49
Q

name the largest of all blood cells

A

monocytes

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50
Q

monocytes are called _____ when they leave the blood stream

A

macrophages

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51
Q

t or f: monocytes dont spend much of lifespan in blood, and can continue to undergo mitosis after leaving the bloodstream and becoming macrophages

A

t

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52
Q

______ are identification molecules on the surface of the cell, whereas ____ are produced by lymphocytes on response to antigens (normally non-self antigens)

A

antigens;

antibodies

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53
Q

Blood typing usually looks at just RBCs, but also looks at WBC’s if _____-____ for some sort of tranplant

A

tissue-typing

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54
Q

while there are lot’s of blood types, the only two looked at are the ____ and ____ systems

A

ABO; Rh

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55
Q

what are the 2 types of antigens possible?

what are the 4 blood types possible?

A

A or B

A, B, AB, O (zero)

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56
Q

the ____ is (A) the expressed proteins on the RBC, and the ____ is (AA, AB) what determines what genes can be passed on to children

A

phenotype;

genotype

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57
Q

___ is the universal recipient bc it has no antibodies

A

AB

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58
Q

____ is the universal donor becasue is has no antigens

A

O

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59
Q

a phenotype of B would have what potential genotypes?

A

BB, BO

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60
Q

what is the genotype of type O blood

A

OO

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61
Q

why do people have antibodies for types A and/or B antigens?

A

because as a child you are exposed to environmental bacteria that has A and B antigens that causes you to produce these A and B antibodies

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62
Q

a person with type A blood will produce antibodies to what antigen(s) when exposed?

A

type B

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63
Q

a person with type O blood will produce antibodies to what antigen(s) when exposed?

A

A and B

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64
Q

where are antigens found

A

in globulins in plasma

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65
Q

the the Rh blood type antigen you are either _ (have it) or _ (don’t have it)

A

+;

-

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66
Q

what is/are the potential genotype(s) for someone with Rh+ phenotype

A

++ or +-

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67
Q

what is/are the potential genotype(s) for someone with Rh- phenotype

A

(–) only

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68
Q

true or false: Giving Rh + to a Rh- blood type is not a problem a first time bc the first time only developing the antibodies, after that there is big risk

A

true

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69
Q

t or f: the body has naturally occuring antibodies to Rh

A

FALSE: there are no naturally occuring antibodies to Rh, you must be exposed to make Rh antibodies

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70
Q

will a person who is Rh- produce antibodies if given blood with Rh+?

A

yes

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71
Q

what is Erythroblastosis fetalis and what causes it?

A

hemolytic disease of the newborn, caused when an Rh- mother who has previously been exposed to Rh+ antigens and her blood’s Rh antibodies attack the Rh+ babies blood when blood mixes at birth, causing hemolysis and anemia and potentially death to the baby (usually occurs in the 2nd Rh+ baby to a Rh- mother

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72
Q

what is the name of the injection of pre-formed anti-Rh antibodies given to the Rh- mother in the first 72 hours of the delivery of a child to prevent forming of Rh antibodies?

A

RhoGAM

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73
Q

why does the baby not make antibodies to the Rh+ mother?

A

because their immune system is not beginning to be developed until at least weeks after birth

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74
Q

identify the term for the binding between antibodies and antigens

A

agglutination

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75
Q

agglutination leads to ______ - the rupture of RBCs

A

hemolysis

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76
Q

agglutination is a type of _____ reaction, in which the wrong blood is given to a patient

A

transfusion

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77
Q

____ is the production of blood (aka _____)

A

hematopoeisis; erythropoeisis

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78
Q

what are specific possible causes of anemia

A

too few hemoglobin, too few of cells, thus too little oxygen carrying capacity

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79
Q

what is erythropoeitin

A

renal hormone that works to measure the amount of oxygen in the blood entering the kidney thru the renal artery

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80
Q

if oxygen is too low, stimulates the release of _____ to speed up the process of erythropoiesis in bone marrow so more RBCs are produced.

A

erythropoeitin

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81
Q

what are reticulocytes

A

immature RBCs

82
Q

what does having more reticulocytes suggest

A

that the body is trying to solve the anemia problem by putting out more cells to hold oxygen

83
Q

why were early-on chemo patients becoming anemic?

A

bc chemo was toxic to the kidney

84
Q

what was developed to solve to problem of anemia in chemo patients

A

epogen - a synthetic erythropoeitin

85
Q

what are other situations that can increase erythropoeitin

A

being at high altitudes causes temp increase in oxygen carrying capacity bc the concentration of oxygen in the air is less and thus the body increases RBCs

86
Q

what is required to produce RBCs?

A

iron, Vitamin B-12, and folic acid

87
Q

what is the most common cause of pernicious anemia, and how is this type of anemia treated?

A

person lacks the gene that allows them to secrete the intrinsic factor in the stomach in order to bind and absorb B12.
treated by person getting weekly injections

88
Q

what nutrient is especially important for pregnant mothers, and why?

A

Folic acid, because it is very important for fetal neural development and has a hard time crossing the placenta

89
Q

what is the medical term for normal coagulation/clotting

A

hemostasis

90
Q

when does hemostasis occur

A

when there is an injury to a blood vessel

91
Q

what are the 4 steps of hemostasis

A
  1. vasoconstriction - to reduce blood movemnt ouf of the vessel
  2. formation of platelet plug - block blood supply to that injury temporarily
  3. formation of fibrin web from fibrinogen
  4. clot is formed - fibrinolysis occurs, which creates a thrombus (blood clot)
92
Q

what can happen if the thrombus breaks and travels thru the blood stream

A

an creat an embolus and potentially travel and cause a stroke

93
Q

______ is a cluster of diseases in which blood doesn’t clot due to a defect of lack of a clotting factor

A

hemophilia

94
Q

how is hemophilia treated

A

patients must give themselves clotting proteins

95
Q

in ______, enzymes in the body break down a clot gradually and allow blood to circulate thru

A

fibrinolysis

96
Q

what is warfarin (aka coumadin)

A

an anticoagulant drug that inhibits activation of vitamin K and thus inhibits production of clotting factors in the liver;
is also used as rat poisin
takes several days to work

97
Q

_______ is a stroke treatment produced by the human gene in Strep bacteria that promotes the dissolution of clots by eliminating blockage causing stroke

A

TPA (tissue plasminogen activator)

98
Q

the body tries to maintian a pH of about ____

A

7.4

99
Q

what is the equation associated with the pH regulation of the body`

A

CO2 + H20 H2CO3 H+ + HCO3-

100
Q

bicarbonate occurs in the ___

A

RBCs

101
Q

what enzyme regulates/buffers both parts of the pH balance equation

A

carbonic anhydrase enzyme

102
Q

the Left artial-ventricular valve is aka as _____ or ____

A

bicuspid or mitral

103
Q

the right AV valve is also known as ______

A

tricuspid

104
Q

describe the muscular system of the ventricles

A

have cordae tendonea that attach to papillart muscles in the ventricle to pull the valves open to dump blood from atrium to ventricles

105
Q

which valves are pressure-driven

A

semilunar valves

106
Q

what causes the semilunar valves to open and close

A

the contraction of the ventrcles pushes semilunar valves up for blood to flow, and then when ventricles relax the semilunar valves close

107
Q

what are reasons why clots are more common in the venrticle?

A

the u-turn that the blood makes and the rough wall due to papillary muscles

108
Q

what is the fetal structure that bypasses the liver by going from the umbilical vein to the vena cava to the right atrium of the heart

A

ductus venosus

109
Q

what is the fetal structure in the interatrium septum that bypasses blood flow to the lungs by allowing blood to flow from the right atrium straight to the left

A

foramen ovale

110
Q

what is the foramen ovale called when it is closed after growth outside of the womb

A

fossa ovale

111
Q

what is the fetal structure that bypasses the lungs by connecting the pulmonary artery to the aorta

A

ductus arteriosis

112
Q

what is the ductus arteriosus called after the fetus develops

A

ductus ligamentum

113
Q

what is the ductus arteriosus called if it is not closed

A

PDA - patent ductus arteriosis (makes a whooshing sound bc of pressurized blood crossing

114
Q

the lub represents the ____ while the dub represents _____

A

closing of AV valves;

closing of semilunar valves

115
Q

what is a heart murmur

A

and abnormal heart sound

116
Q

____ take blood away from heart and ___ take blood back to the heart and _____ allow for the transport of nutrients

A

arteries; veins; capillaries

117
Q

any given time, where is more of the blood located and why

A

in your veins, becaise the pressure in your veins is significantly less so more pools there

118
Q

what is the main mechanism that moves blood thru theveins

A

skeletal muscle pump

119
Q

what moves the blood in the inferior vena cava?

A

the pressue change that occurs in the body cavities as a result of breathing

120
Q

____ ______ are locations in the body (mostly in hands and feet) where shunting of blood occurs for temp regulation in which very small arteries connect to very small veins without capillaries

A

arteriovenous anastomoses

121
Q

t or f: most cells are not more than a few mm away from a capillary to get the nutrients they need

A

T

122
Q

what are pre-capillary spincters

A

circular round muscles that can open and close to regulate how much blood can enter a tissue

123
Q

blood vessels have only _____ innervation, meaning that they can only contract

A

sympathetic

124
Q

what type of tissue regrows easily and is set up to provide blood to all the tissues

A

simple squamous epithelium

125
Q

what are the different types of capillaries

A

continuous, fenestrated, Discontinuous/ sinusoids, and sinuses

126
Q

_______ capillaries have no breaks or opening in the simpe sq epithelium, and thus the material going out of the capillaries must go thru the cell walls

A

continuous

127
Q

where are continuous capillaries found

A

muscle, lungs, fat, CNS

128
Q

_____ capillareis have wide intercellular pores coveredby mucoprotein

A

fenestrated

129
Q

where are fenestrated capillaries found

A

kidney, endocrine glands, intestines

130
Q

_____ capillaries have big gaps and are found in tissues with lots of cells that need to be moved in and out

A

discontinuous/sinusoids

131
Q

where are discontinuous capillaries/sinusoids found

A

bone marrow, liver, spleen

132
Q

_____ are large cavities containing blood

A

sinuses

133
Q

_____ measures electricity in blood

A

ECG/EKG (electrocardiogram)

134
Q

the SA (sinoatrial) node is also referred to as

A

the pacemaker

135
Q

describe the SA node and its purpose

A

cluster of cells in the R atrium tht depolarizes w/o input from the CNA and starts electrical movement in the heart

136
Q

an ____ pacemaker is outside of its normal location

A

ectopic

137
Q

what units does the ECG measure

A

millivolts

138
Q

in a Lead II, ____ represents atrial depolarization, ____ ____ respresents ventricular depolarization, and ____ respresents ventrical repolarization

A

P wave;
QRS complex;
T wave

139
Q

why is the atrial repolarization not visualized in the Lead II EKG

A

it is covered b the QRS complex

140
Q

what is the order of conduction

A

SA node –> AV node —>AV bundle (bundle of His) –> Rt./Lt. bundle branches –> Purkinje fibers

141
Q

____ ___ cause both ventricles to contract simultaneously

A

purkinje fibers

142
Q

______ maintian rhythm and blood filling time

A

refractory periods

143
Q

what are the 3 basic functions of the lymphatic system

A

transport intersitial fluid back to blood
transport absorbed fat from intestines to blood
provide specific immunological defense

144
Q

______ is also part of the circulatory system

A

the lymphatic system

145
Q

t or f:the lymphatic system helps to keep the plasma part of blood replenished when mixed with blood

A

t

146
Q

_____ _____ are microscopic closed-end tubes in intercellular space

A

lymphatic capillaries

147
Q

what is the fluid of the lymphatic system called

A

lymph

148
Q

describe the direction of flow of the lymphatic system

A

lymph capillaries —> lymph ducts —> thoracic duct or right lymphatic duct –>subclavian veins

149
Q

lymph is filtered though regional lymph ____

A

nodes

150
Q

what units is cardiac output measured in

A

mL/min

151
Q

what is stroke volume

A

how much blood exits the R ventricle per beat

152
Q

what is stroke volume measured in

A

mL/beat

153
Q

what is cardiac output

A

measures how much blood the heart is putting out over time

154
Q

what is the equation for cardiac output in relation to stroke volume and heart rate

A

CO = SV x HR

155
Q

what is HR measured in

A

beats per min

156
Q

_____ means something that has an effect on heart rate

A

chronotropic

157
Q

what are the 3 variables that regulate blood stroke volume

A
  1. end-diastolic volume - amount of blood in ventricles immediately before they begin to contract
  2. total peripheral resistance (TPR) in blood vessels - impedes ejection of blood from ventricle
  3. contractility of ventricular contraction
158
Q

whats is the relationship between total peripheral resistance and Stroke volume

A

they are inversely proportional

159
Q

what is the relationship between contractility (strength) of ventricular contraction and Stroke Volume

A

directly proportional

160
Q

what is measured as an indicatior of other factors that are harder to measure

A

blood pressure

161
Q

what is the relatonship between blood pressure, cardiac output, and total peripheral resistance

A

BP = CO x TPR

162
Q

the rate at which artia/ventricles fill with venous blood depends on what?

A

total blood volume and venous pressure

163
Q

why do veins have a higher compliance than arteries?

A

veins have less muscular walls than arteries and thus more stretch

164
Q

what is venous return aided by

A

sympathetic nerve activity (smooth muscle in venous walls)
skeletal muscle pump (squeezes veins during muscle activity)
pressure differences between thoracic and abdominal cavities (diaphragm)

165
Q

name the 2 types of immunity

A

innate/nonspecific and adaptive/specific

166
Q

name the 2 types of innate/nonspecific immunity

A

external and internal

167
Q

______ immunity is present at birth

A

innate/nonspecific

168
Q

what does external innate/nonspecific immunity include

A

intact skin (including mucous membranes)
HCl in digestive tract
tears, saliva, perspiration, eyelashes, earwax, eyelids - help to ditule stuff from getting in

169
Q

what does internal innate/nonspecific immunity consist of

A
  1. phagocytosis with neutrophils, monocytes/macrophages, and organ-specifc phagocytes
  2. fever - increased body’s inflammatory response and production of interferons
170
Q

what is a fever and what are the benefits and dnagers of it?

A

elevated body temp above normal
benefits:
↓ plasma [iron] → inhibits bacterial activity
↑ neutrophil activity (phagocytosis)
↑ interferon production
adverse effects (too high for too long): protein denaturation (brain damage, etc.)

171
Q

what are interferons

A

nonspecific, short-acting resistance to viral infections

172
Q

what are the 3 categories of interferons

A

alpha, beta, and gamma

173
Q

true or falsa: almost all cells make alpha and beta interferosn

A

T

174
Q

do prostoglandins work locally where they are produced or do they travel the whole body

A

locally

175
Q

what is one function of interferons

A

to interfere with viruses in adjacent cells. this helps to prevent viral infections from impacting all cells

176
Q

describe adaptive/specific immunity

A

not present at birth, acquired over time bsed on environment

177
Q

what are 5 important capabilities of adaptive/specific immunity

A
  1. specific (for specific antigens)
  2. learning - B and T cells learn every time you are exposed to an antigen and develop a more effecient response
  3. memory - long-term retention of impoved resonse due to B cells
  4. tolerance - ability to identify self vs nonself, and what antigens are and are not a threat
178
Q

describe T cells

A

produced in bone marrow, mature in the Thymus
spend time in Tissues
Tag antigens

179
Q

describe B cells

A

produced in Bone marrow, mature in Bone marrow
send most of time in Blood
produce antiBodies

180
Q

what is the first type of antibody produced in response to an antigen

A

IgM

181
Q

what is the most common tyle of antibody produced that is also the most common and is found circulating the bloodstream

A

IgG

182
Q

what is the antibody elevated with allergies or parasites

A

IgE

183
Q

what is the secretory Antibody that is found in breast milk, saliva, resp and GI tract secretions

A

IgA

184
Q

what is the first breast milk produced and waht antibody is it very high in

A

colostrum, high in IgA

185
Q

what are the primary lymphoid tissues

A

red bone marrow and thymus

186
Q

what are the 2ndary lymphoid tissues

A

lymph nodes (filter lymph), spleen (filters blood), tonsils (modified lymph nodes), Peyer’s patches (in walls of intestines)

187
Q

when does immunological tolerance develop?

A

about one month after birth

188
Q

what are antigenic determinant sites

A

ares of the molecule that stimulate production of antibodies

189
Q

what are tests using agglutination (such as blood typing) called

A

immunoassays

190
Q

what is SCID

A

sever combined immuno-Defeciency - children born without ability to produce B or T cells

191
Q

what is the cure for SCID

A

bone marrow transplant so that patient has lymphoblast stem cells that will produce B and T cells

192
Q

what is the difference between Plasma B cells and memory B cells?

A

Plasma B cells - produce the protein antibody by rupturing

Memory B cells- remember how to produce the antibodies

193
Q

what is the name of the test used to measure igG in the bloodstream for specific diseases

A

titer

194
Q

what is the difference between a positive and negative chronotropic effect

A

positive: increases HR

negative decreases HR

195
Q

capillary dynamics (balance of filtration/reabsoption) varies due to:

A 
diff tissues
diff types of capillareis
precapillary sphincters (in arterioles)
196
Q

what are causes of edema

A

high arterial BP
venous obstruction
lymphatic obstruction

197
Q

what does leakage of plasma proteins into interstitial fluid result in

A

decrease in osmotic flow into capillaries and decrease in plamsa protein concentration (thus liver or kidney disease)

198
Q

describe sympathetic regulation of bloodflow

A

adrenergic stimulation - general vasoconstriction throughout the body (increase in TPR and BP)
skeletal muscle arteriolesr ecieve cholinergic sympathetic fibers - vasodilation to increase blood flow
most blood is diverted to skeltal muscles for fight or flight

199
Q

describe parasympathetic regulation of blood flow

A

less effect on TPR than sympatetic stimulation

cholinergic stimulation in arterioles of digestive tract, external genitalia and salivary glands

200
Q

_____ control center controls TPR; _____ control center controls HR

A

vasomoter; cadriac

201
Q

atrial stretch receptors are activated by what? what do they do?

A

activated by increase in venous return (in atrium)
inhibit ADH release (increase urine and decrease blood volume)
promote increased secretions of ANH/ANP (lowers blood volume by increasing Na+ reabsoption in Kidney

Physiology (4 decks)

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