UNIT 4 Flashcards

EXAM 4 (40 cards)

1
Q

In his work with pneumonia-causing bacteria and mice, Griffith worked with an S strain of the bacteria, which was lethal to the mice and an R strain, which was not lethal to the mice. Griffith found that:

A

genetic information from S cells was transferred to R cells, making them pathogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following facts did Hershey and Chase make use of in trying to determine whether DNA or protein is the genetic material?

A

DNA contains phosphorus, whereas protein does not.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following describes the molecule shown below?

A

A DNA nucleotide with a purine nitrogenous base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following did Rosalind Franklinʹs x-ray diffraction image allow Watson and Crick to conclude about the structure of DNA?

A

The structure of DNA is helical.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following best describes the differences between sanger sequencing and next-generation sequencing?

A

Sanger sequencing sequences specific pieces of DNA and next-gen sequences all the DNA in a sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How may hydrogen bonds would hold together the short piece of double-stranded DNA shown below?

5’ – AGCTA – 3’

3’ – TCGAT - 5’

A

12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In DNA replication, the resulting daughter molecules contain one strand of the original parental DNA and one new strand. What is the explanation for this phenomenon?

A

DNA replication is semiconservative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A culture of E. coli has been propagated for many generations in media containing inorganic precursors that
carry a heavy isotope of nitrogen (15N). The cells are then grown for two generations in media containing a
light isotope of nitrogen (14N). The DNA is then purified and subjected to equilibrium density gradient
centrifugation. Which of the following shows where the DNA will be found?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following sequences would base pair with the DNA molecule shown below?

5’- ATCGCTACGTAGC - 3’

A

3’- TAGCGATGCATCG - 5’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the function of the enzyme topoisomerase in DNA replication?

A

To relieve the strain in the DNA ahead of the replication fork caused by the untwisting of the double helix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the role of DNA ligase during DNA replication?

A

It joins Okazaki fragments together by creating phosphodiester bonds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which enzyme catalyzes the elongation of a new DNA strand?

A

DNA polymerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Two replication forks are moving toward each other. Which of the following diagrams accurately shows the locations
of continuous synthesis (long arrows) and discontinuous synthesis (short arrows)?

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What enzyme breaks the hydrogen bonds between the two strands of double stranded DNA, unzipping the helix?

A

helicase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Cytosine makes up 42% of the nucleotides in a sample of double-stranded DNA from an organism. Approximately what percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will be thymine?

A

8%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In the polymerization of DNA, a phosphodiester bond is formed between a phosphate group of the nucleotide being added and which of the following from the last nucleotide in the new DNA strand?

A

the 3’ OH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following processes occurs during transcription?

A

RNA is synthesized

18
Q

The genetic code is redundant (degenerate). What is meant by this statement?

A

More than one codon can specify the addition of the same amino acid.

19
Q

Which of the following molecular structures contain codons?

20
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the significance of the promoter?

A

It is the recognition site for the binding of RNA polymerase.

21
Q

Place the following in order of occurrence: (a) release of primary RNA transcript, (b) unwinding of the DNA, (c) RNA polymerase binds to promoter, (d) export of mRNA to the cytoplasm for translation, (e) Addition of 5’ cap and polyA tail, (f) elongation step of transcription.

A

c, b, f, a, e, d

22
Q

Which molecule listed is responsible for delivering amino acids to the ribosomes?

23
Q

The tRNA shown below would be carrying which amino acid in the cell? The sequence of the anticodon is shown and there is a codon table on the first question of the exam (and on the projector at the front of class).

24
Q

Which of the following processes is the first event to take place in translation in eukaryotes?

A

The small subunit of the ribosome binds to the 5’ end of the mRNA.

25
During translation elongation, in which site do new tRNAs enter?
A site
26
What is the function of the release factor during translation in eukaryotes?
It binds to the stop codon in the A site in place of a tRNA.
27
Which of the following statements correctly describes the effect a nonsense mutation would have on a gene?
It introduces a premature stop codon into the mRNA.
28
For the DNA sequence below, the top strand is a template strand for transcription. What would the sequence of the mRNA be? 3’-AGGCTACATGCTAGCATGCATG -5’ 5’-TCCGATGTACGATCGTACGTAC -3’
5’-UCCGAUGUACGAUCGUACGUAC -3’
29
What amino acid sequence will be generated, based on the following mRNA codon sequence? 5′-GACUACAUGUCUUCGUUAUCCUUG-3′
Met-Ser-Ser-Leu-Ser-Leu
30
In an operon, a repressor protein binds to which DNA element?
the operator
31
Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause the lactose operon to be transcribed?
The levels of activated CAP and lactose levels are both high within the cell.
32
Under what conditions does the trp repressor block transcription of the trp operon?
When the repressor binds to co-repressor, tryptophan.
33
Muscle cells differ from nerve cells mainly because they
express different genes
34
Gel electrophoresis enables scientists to determine which of the following about a DNA fragment?
size
35
In eukaryotic cells, translation initiation occurs in the
cytosol
36
What are epigenetic modifications?
the addition of reversible changes to histones and DNA
37
Which of there following is (are ) involved in post-transcriptional control?
all of these choices are correct
38
Which of the following are true about epigenetic modifications?
all the answers are correct
39
What is the best definition for an enhancer?
An enhancer is a regulatory DNA sequence.
40
Which statement is false?
RNA splicing only occurs in prokaryotes