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BIOL 600 > Unit 4 > Flashcards

Unit 4 Flashcards

(81 cards)

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1
Q

Glycerol released during lipolysis is absorbed by the liver for use in which pathways

A

Glycolysis and Gluconeogenesis

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2
Q

Fats stored in adipose tissue is used by the liver and other tissues for what?

A

making ketone bodies and conversion to acetyl CoA for the CAC

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3
Q

Fatty acids are linked to glycerol with _________ linkages.

A

ester

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4
Q

Complete oxidation of palmitate yields _____ molecules of ATP

A

106

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5
Q

Enzymes that digest the triacylglycerols into free fatty acids and monoacylglycerol are called what?

A

lipases

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6
Q

Acetyl CoA carboxylase is globally regulated by what?

A

phosphorylation and dephosphorylation

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7
Q

Intermediates from which pathways are utilized for fatty acid synthesis?

A

glycolysis, citric acid cycle, and pentose phosphate pathway

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8
Q

Activation of acetyl CoA results in the production of _________.

A

malonyl CoA

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9
Q

Which two fatty acids were learned in class?

A

linolenate and linoleate

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10
Q

The carrier of an acyl chain through the synthetic protein complex is what?

A

ACP

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11
Q

Triacylglycerols are stored in _______ cells in animals

A

adipose

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12
Q

The hormones __________ stimulate lipolysis when energy reserves are low.

A

epinephrine and glucagon

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13
Q

The brain uses __________ instead of glucose for its source of ATP production during long-term fasting.

A

ketone bodies

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14
Q

In diabetes, untreated, chronic ketone body production will _______ blood pH levels.

A

decrease

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15
Q

β oxidation of odd-numbered fatty acids produces acetyl CoA and ________.

A

propionyl CoA

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16
Q

Fatty acid synthesis primarily takes place in the cellular location _________.

A

cytoplasm

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17
Q

_________ is the product of the committed step in fatty acid synthesis.

A

malonyl coA

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18
Q

Citrate serves as a signal for a high-energy state as it stimulates _________.

A

carboxylase

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19
Q

Double bonds are introduced into fatty acids in the __________ compartment of the cell.

A

endoplasmic reticulum

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20
Q

NADPH-reducing equivalents important for the biosynthesis of fatty acids come from two sources. Explain.

A

The pentose phosphate pathway produces most NADPH but some NADPH is formed by the oxidation of oxaloacetate.

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21
Q

In the urea cycle, the second nitrogen of urea enters the cycle in the form of which of the following metabolites?

A

aspartate

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22
Q

What does the urea cycle do?

A

removes excess NH4+

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23
Q

Which amino acids can be directly deaminated to produce NH4+?

A

serine and threonine

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24
Q

In the urea cycle, free NH4+ is coupled with carboxyphosphate to form ________________.

A

carbamic acid

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25
Ketogenic amino acids are degraded to which of the following metabolites?
acetyl CoA and acetoacetyl CoA
26
Organisms capable of carrying out reduction of atmospheric nitrogen include ____________.
some bacteria
27
The carbon skeletons for amino acids are intermediates found in what?
Glycolysis, citric acid cycle, PPP
28
nonessential amino acids
amino acids synthesized by humans
29
essential amino acids
amino acids that must be obtained from the diet because the body does not synthesize them
30
Transaminases use what as a coenzyme?
pyridoxine
31
3-Phosphoglycerate is the precursor for what?
Serine, Glycine, and Cysteine
32
Excess NH4+ is converted into urea by the _________
urea cycle
33
The hydrolysis of arginine by arginase produces ornithine and _________.
urea
34
The urea cycle is linked to gluconeogenesis via formation of _________, a precursor of glucose synthesis.
fumarate
35
Succinyl CoA is a point of entry into the citric acid cycle of __________.
nonpolar amino acids (isoleucine, methionine, and valine)
36
___________ transfer amino groups from an amino acid to alpha-ketogluatarate.
Aminotransferases
37
An amino acid that serves as a nitrogen source in the synthesis of amino acids from alpha-ketoacids is ___________.
glutamate
38
The process of converting N2 to NH3 is called __________.
nitrogen fixation
39
The final product pathway, which inhibits an enzyme that catalyzes its production typically, takes place at the ____________ step.
committed
40
Glutamine synthetase is an example of ___________ inhibition
cumulative feedback
41
___________ is a versatile nitrogen donor in the synthesis of a wide range of compounds
Glutamine
42
1. In bacteria the ______________ sequence is a purine rich region that is approximately 10 base pairs upstream of the start site and directs the protein synthesis machinery to the start site.
Shine-Dalgarno
43
_________ is the initial amino acid in a bacterial protein
fmet
44
___________ include IF1, IF2, and IF3 in prokaryotes and are required for the initiation of protein synthesis.
initiation factors
45
G or translocase use the energy of ______ hydrolysis to move the mRNA by one codon in protein synthesis.
GTP
46
In the ribosome, A stands for ________ and P stands for __________.
aminoacyl; peptidyl
47
Proteins are synthesized from the _____ direction
amino to carboxyl
48
Sixty percent of human genes are regulated by ___________.
micorRNAs
49
Eukaryotic mRNA is _____________.
circular
50
Peptide bond formation is ______________ and catalyzed by ________.
exergonic; 23S RNA
51
Signals that define the beginning and end of protein synthesis are contained in ________.
mRNA
52
What factor(s) is (are) necessary for the correct placement of the mRNA and initiating tRNA on the ribosome?
IF1, IF2, IF3
53
Eukaryotic and prokaryotic translation differs primarily in which step?
Initiation
54
What is the order of the tRNA binding sites on the 70S ribosome with respect to the 5′ → 3′ direction of the mRNA ?
EPA
55
Elongation factor G is also called what?
translocase
56
___________: A group of genes under the control of a single promoter.
Operon
57
__________ is a required cofactor for RNA polymerase
Divalent cation
58
DNA sequences that direct RNA polymerase to the initiation site are called _________.
promoters
59
Expression of B-galactosidase requires the induction of an operon by removal of a(n) __________.
repressor
60
Promoter sites in E. coli are located ___ and _____ nucleotides upstream of the start site.
-10, -35
61
The first step of transcription in eukaryotes depends on the _________ subunit of RNA polymerase.
sigma
62
Cis-acting elements that have no promoter activity but can stimulate the effectiveness of promoters are called ___________.
enhancers
63
The enzyme that removes the acetyl group for a lysine of a histone is called __________.
histone deacetylase
64
In eukaryotes, transcription is initiated by the binding of a transcription factor to the _________ box, which is located -24 and -32 bp upstream of the initiation site.
TATA
65
The nuclear membrane is important in gene expression because it separates the processes of __________ from that of ____________.
transcription, translation
66
Noncoding regions of RNA are called
intron RNA
67
RNA polymerase I is responsible for the transcription of
rRNA
68
What modifications are made to eukaryotic tRNA transcripts?
base and ribose moieties, an intron is removed by endonuclease, cleavage of 5' leader by RNase P, nucleotides CCA are added
69
5' cap of mRNA
contains GTP in a 5'-5' linkage and protects the mRNA
70
Polypyrimidine tract
found at the 5' end of a junction/3' end of an intron and contains a stretch of 10 pyrimidines
71
Spliceosome
made of snRNP w/ snRNA
72
Thallasemia can occur when there are mutations in pre-RNA or splicing factors of
hemoglobin beta
73
Ribozymes are _________.
RNA
74
The carboxy-terminal domain (CTD) of RNA polymerase II:
Binds factors needed for pre-mRNA capping, splicing, and polyadenylation
75
A mutation in an enzyme that catalyzes a transesterification reaction would inhibit which of the following events?
mRNA splicing
76
Nearly all mRNA precursors in higher eukaryotes are modified by __________.
splicing
77
_________ catalyzes the synthesis of precursors for tRNA.
polymerase III
78
Recognition of the 5′ splice site by __ is the first step in splicing.
U1 snRNA
79
Self-splicing by RNA requires a _________ cofactor
guanosine
80
The immediate product of RNA polymerase II is referred to as __________.
pre-RNA
81
The _________ is the elongated sequence added to the 3′ end of mRNA
poly A tail

BIOL 600 (5 decks)

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