Unit 4 - Coronary Artery Disease Flashcards

(51 cards)

1
Q

what kind of exams are coronary angiograms?

A

anatomical tests, not physiological; can visualize lesion but not discover if pathological or not

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2
Q

what is angina VS acute MI?

A

angina: larger artery that is slowly occluding

acute MI: smaller and fast artery occlusion

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3
Q

in who does angina usually occur?

A
  • most commonly in patients with CAD involving at least one epicardial artery
  • patients with valvular heart disease, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, and uncontrolled HTN
  • may have normal coronary arteries secondary to spasm or endothelial dysfunction
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4
Q

describe the metabolic effects of ischemia

A
  • anaerobic glycolysis takes over, but cannot maintain
  • ATP and creatine phosphate levels call
  • intracellular and extracellular acidosis develops
  • extracellular levels of K+, lactate, PO4, and FA levels rise
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5
Q

what is the most important contributor to electrophysiologic changes of ischemia? what else follows this?

A

elevated extracellular K+

  • due to increased cell membrane permeability to K+ during plateau phase of AP (leak outwards)
  • lactate and phosphate follow K+ out
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6
Q

what causes the increased circulating FFA in ischemia?

A

sympathetic activation from MI

  • liposomal phospholipase is activated to break down membrane phospholipids
  • LCFA accumulate in intracellular space
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7
Q

what is the gradient between ischemic cells and normal cells?

A

“injury current”

  • partial depolarization
  • shortened AP
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8
Q

what is the diastolic injury current?

A

phase 4 intracellular positive current flows from less negative ischemic cells to more negative normal cells

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9
Q

what is the systolic injury current?

A

during phase 2/3, shortening of AP causes intracellular potential of ischemic cells to be more negative than normal cells
-this causes intracellular positive current to flow from normal to ischemic cells –> ST-depression

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10
Q

which injury current should one focus on?

A

the systolic current (more negative ischemic flows to less negative healthy)
-in subendocardial injury –> ST depression

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11
Q

what is a noninvasive diagnosis of ischemia if one can exercise?

A

stress test on treadmill for 6-12 minutes (Bruce protocol)

-valid if patient reaches 85% of max predicted HR (220 - age)

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12
Q

what does an EKG diagnosis of ischemia look like? what if it is abnormal?

A

if normal baseline ECG to compare

  • positive will have at least 1 mm of horizontal/downsloping ST depression
  • use imaging if abnormal –> echocardiograph to look at induced wall motion abnormalities
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13
Q

what is a noninvasive diagnosis of ischemia if one cannot exercise?

A

pharmacologic stress test

  • dobutamine (stimulate B1 receptors to increase contractility and HR)
  • adenosine/dipyridamole (coronary vasodilators to inhibit cellular uptake and degradation of adenosine)
  • -stenotic arteries don’t respond to these
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14
Q

what is coronary steal? what causes this?

A

pharmacological perfusion mismatch when healthy coronary arteries are dilated but unhealthy ones are constricted

  • drugs cause more O2 to healthy, less to unhealthy
  • occurs if use antiplatelet or pharmacologic stress test adeosine and dipyridamole
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15
Q

what do electron beam CT sans do?

A

identify Ca++ in coronaries

  • use Ca++ score to correlate probability of significant coronary disease
  • variable results
  • most useful in predicting absence of CAD
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16
Q

what are the 2 objectives of medical management of CAD?

A
  1. prevent MI and death (increase quantity of life)

2. reduce symptoms of angina and occurence of ischemia (increase quality of life)

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17
Q

what should the first intervention of CAD treatment be?

A

identify and treat risk factors for CVD:

  • lipid abnormalities
  • smoking
  • diabetes
  • HTN
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18
Q

what is the only time you don’t use aspirin?

A

when someone is allergic

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19
Q

ticlopidine

  • what is it?
  • mechanism?
  • use in angina?
  • ASE?
A

thienopyridine derivative that inhibits platelet aggregation by adenosine phsophate (blocks ADP receptors)

  • reduces blood viscosity by decreasing plasma fibrinogen
  • increases RBC deformity
  • has NOT shown a decrease in adverse events in patients with stable angina
  • induces neutropenia and rarely TTP (require WBC monitoring)
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20
Q

clopidogrel

  • what is it?
  • mechanism?
  • ASE?
A

thienopyridine derivative that inhibits platelet aggregation by adenosine phsophate (blocks ADP receptors)

  • more potent than ticlopidine or aspirin; moreso used after stent placement
  • selectively and irreversibly inhibits binding of adenosine diphosphate to platelet receptors –> blocks adenosine diphosphate-dependent activation of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa complex
  • increased bleeding risk, so must monitor
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21
Q

Prasugrel

  • what is it?
  • mechanism?
  • ASE?
A

thienopyridine class that inhibits platelet aggregation by adenosine phsophate (blocks ADP receptors)

  • irreversibly binds to P2Y12 receptor (GPCR chemoreceptor for ADP)
  • used to decrease thrombotic events in people w/ stents placed
  • while less MI, more bleeding risk, thus limited to patients less than 75 yo and greater than 60 kg, w/o history of stroke or TIA
22
Q

Ticagrelor

  • what is it?
  • mechanism?
  • ASE?
A

adenosine derivative

  • blocks ADP receptors like thienopyridines, but at different site from ADP; thus reversible blocckade
  • doesn’t need hepatic activation, so can be used in liver dysfunction
  • has faster onset of action, and faster elimination, thus needs more doses (less compliance)
  • greater rates of non-lethal bleeding
  • doses of aspirin above 100 mg decrease effectiveness of ticagrelor
23
Q

dipyridamole

  • what is it?
  • mechanism?
  • ASE?
A

pyrimido-pyrimidine derivative

  • increases intracellular platelet cAMP
  • -inhibits phosphodiesterase
  • -activates adenylate cyclase
  • -inhibits uptake of adenosine from vascular endothelium and RBCs
  • limited use b/c vasodilates coronary arteries to enhance exercise-induced ischemia
24
Q

cilostazol

  • what is it?
  • mechanism?
  • ASE?
A

quinolinone derivative that inhibits cellular phosphodiesterase

  • causes increase in CAMP to inhibit platelet aggregation
  • causes vasodilation –> increased morbidity and mortality in HF patients
  • used primarily as treatment for calduication with peripheral vascular disease
25
what does angiotensin II do?
cause vasoconstriction of arterioles throughout body - more constriction in efferent than afferent arterioles --> blood building up in glomerulus to increase glomerular pressure - acts on adrenal cortex to release aldosterone to increase Na and water retention from kidneys - stimulates ADH release from posterior pituitary to increase water reabsorption from kidney
26
what is kininase II? what does it do?
another name for ACE | -degrades bradykinin to inactive fragments
27
what does bradykinin do?
vasodilator that increases vascular permeability - plays role in cough and angioedema - increased if using ACEi
28
what is angioedema?
swelling of skin around the mouth, mucosa of mouth and throat, and tongue -can be fatal if occludes airways (thus must always beware when using ACEi)
29
what are important ASE of ACEi?
- dry cough (10-30%, most common) - hypotension - hyperkalemia (decreased aldosterone) - angioedema (0.1%, very rare, but can be fatal) - -can occur at any time during treatment
30
what does stimulation of B1 receptors do to the heart?
- increase contractility, HR, and condunction through AV node - -increases O2 demand
31
why are B2 blockers avoided in CAD?
B2 receptors in vascular smooth muscle cause vasodilation; thus inhibiting would cause vasoconstriction b/c removes counteraction to vasoconstriction caused by alpha-adrenergic stimulation
32
what is the goal of B1 blockers?
class II antiarrhythmics - decrease contractility and HR to decrease myocardial O2 demand - inhibits sympathetic influences on cardiac electrical activity, increase AP duration, and EFP
33
what do both anti-ischemia and anti-arrythmic effects of B-blockers make them good for?
increase survival immediately post-MI
34
what are contraindications to using BB?
- severe bradycardia - high degree of AV block (BB could make it complete) - sick sinus syndrome - unstable LV failure - asthma and bronchospastic disease - severe depression - peripheral vascular disease
35
what is sick sinus syndrome?
sino-atrial node may not work all the time
36
what are side effects for beta-blockers?
- fatigue - decreased exercise tolerance (CO doesn't go up) - lethargy - insomnia - worsening claudication - impotence (more common if nonselective)
37
what do BB do to lower risk of CV events?
they don't | -can only be used to treat symptoms, but not long-term impact
38
mechanism of nitrates?
endothelium-independent vasodilators - interact w/ enzymes and intracellular sulfhydryl groups that reduce nitrate groups to NO - -NO activates smooth muscle soluble guanylyl cyclase to make cGMP - --cGMP inhibits Ca++ entry into cell, thus decreasing intracellular Ca++ concentration, and increasing relaxation/vasodilation
39
what do nitrates cause overall?
- dilation of large epiccardial coronary arteries and collateral vessels - increase myocardial O2 delivery to relieve coronary vasospasm in patients w/o CAD (true vasospastic, Prinzmetal's angina) - venous dilation predominates in doses given (redues venous pressure to reduce preload) - -decreased wall stress reduces O2 demand, and improves subendocardial blood flow
40
what does endothelial-derived NO do?
- inhibits platelet aggregation | - inhibits leukocyte-endothelial interactions (anti-inflammatory effects)
41
dosing of nitrates?
immediate effect: sublingual tablets or spray (standard dose 0.4 mg) long-acting: oral (Isorbide di/mononitrate) or transdermal (ointment, patch)
42
what are nitrate contraindications?
- hypertrophic cardiomyopathy - severe aortic stenosis - significant hypotension - use of PDE inhibitors for erectile dysfunction (PDEi inhibit cGMP degradation; thus together would cause buildup and over-vasodilation)
43
what are side effects of nitrates?
- nitrate tolerance with chronic use - -depletion of tissue sulfhydryl groups or scavenging of NO by superoxide anion - -O2. produces peroxynitrite to inhibit guanylyl cyclase - -counteract w/ infrequent dosing or nitrate-free periods (8 to 12 hours) - headaches (vasodilation increases pressure in skull) - hypotension - Bezold-Jarisch reflex --> bradycardia - -marked increase inv agal efferent discharge to heart caused by stimulation of cardiac sensory receptors
44
what do calcium channel blockers do?
reduce transmembrane flux of Ca via Ca channels - tension decreased --> vasodilation - negative inotrope --> cardiac muscle relaxes
45
what are the types of CCB? names?
1. vasoselective dihydropyridines - end in "dipine" 2. non-dihydropyridines - verapamil and diltiazem
46
mechanism of dihydropyridines?
tend to be vasoselective - dilate epicardial coronary arteries --> relieve coronary vasospasm - dilate arteriolar resistance vessels --> reduce systemic vascular resistance and decrease arterial pressure - first generation agents have negative inotropic effect --> negative inotropic effect (decrease myocardial contractility)
47
mechanism of non-dihydropyridines?
- vasodilation - true negative inotropes, decreasing myocardial contractility - decrease firing rate of aberrant pacemaker sites within heart - decrease conduction velocity and prolong repolarization in SA node and AV node (decrease HR)
48
what is verapamil?
non-dihydropyridine CCB - phenylalkylamine class - relatively selective for myocardium - less effective as systemic vasodilator
49
what is diltiazem?
non-dihydropyridine CCB - benzothiazepine class - intermediate between verapamil and dihydropyridines
50
what are contraindications for CCB?
- overt decompensated HF (would give even lower EF) | - bradycardia, sinus node dysfunction, or high-degree AV block (non-dihydropyridines)
51
what are ASE of CCB?
- hypotension - worsening HF - peripehral edema - constpiation - headache - flushing - bradycardia - AV block