Unit 4 (Part I) Flashcards

(47 cards)

1
Q

Gregor Mendel discovered the principles of genetics in his early experiments on…

A

peas

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2
Q

During formation of eggs and sperm, one member of each chromosome pair is transmitted to each cell in a type of cell division called…

A

meiosis

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3
Q

Most animal cells are…

A

diploid

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4
Q

Eggs and sperm are…

A

haploid

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5
Q

The acceptance of the chromosome theory of inheritance followed the mapping of nearly a hundred genes on the four chromosomes of the…

A

fruit fly Drosophila

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6
Q

George Beadle and Edward Tatum provided evidence for the one gene-one enzyme hypothesis in their experiments on the…

A

fungus Neurospora

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7
Q

DNA was identified as the genetic material in experiments done by…

A

Avery, Macleod, and McCarty

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8
Q

Deduction of the structure of DNA was based on X-ray crystallographic studies done by…

A

Wilkins and Franklin

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9
Q

DNA is a double helix with … base pairs per complete turn of the helix.

A

10

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10
Q

In the base pairing within a DNA double helix, …

A

A pairs with T and G pairs with C

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11
Q

DNA replicates…

A

semiconservatively

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12
Q

When thymidine and adenosine interact within the DNA molecule, they form…

A

two hydrogen bonds.

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13
Q

In the Meselson and Stahl’s experiment, cells were grown in media containing 15N in place of 14N, and then their DNA was separated by equilibrium centrifugation. This experiment demonstrated that DNA…

A

replication is semiconservative.

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14
Q

RNA molecules that serve as templates for protein synthesis are called… RNAs.

A

messenger

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15
Q

How many different amino acids does the genetic code encode?

A

20

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16
Q

Which of the following deletions will not change the reading frame of a gene?

A

Three nucleotides

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17
Q

A codon is a…

A

Sequence of three nucleotides on an mRNA that binds to specific tRNAs.

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18
Q

Because the genetic code usually has more than one codon for each amino acid, the code is said to be…

A

degenerate.

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19
Q

How many different RNA triplets specify amino acids?

20
Q

Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme that catalyses… synthesis.

A

RNA-directed DNA

21
Q

Restriction endonuclease are enzymes that…

A

cleaves DNA only at specific sequences.

22
Q

To cut eukaryotic chromosomal DNA into large pieces of about 100 kilo bases, one would use a restriction nuclease that recognises and cuts in the middle of sequences that are … pairs long.

23
Q

The first enzymatic step in making a cDNA uses which of the following?

A

Reverse transcriptase

24
Q

To clone genes, a plasmid vector should contain a(n)…

A

All of the above (answer)

*Origin of replication;
restriction nuclease cut site;
antibiotic resistance gene;
both a and c

25
Which of the following would be used to express a human protein in E.coli?
An expression plasmid containing cDNA made from the mRNA for the protein.
26
Which of the following would be used to clone intact pieces of human DNA that are 400 kb pairs long?
Yeast artificial chromosomes
27
A bacterial artificial chromosome is a vector...
derived from a plasmid with an origin of replication.
28
the most common method of DNA sequencing is based on premature termination of DNA synthesis by inclusion of...
dideoxynucleotides
29
Vectors for expressing a eukaryotic protein in a bacterium must contain which of the following?
All of the above (answer) *Bacterial promoter; Bacterial ribosome-binding sequence; Origin of replication; Both a and c.
30
Expression of a human protein in a bacterial cell is best done with human...
cDNA in a bacterial expression vector.
31
Taq polymerase is used in the polymerase chain reaction because it...
is stable at high temperatures.
32
Nucleic acid hybridisation is the...
formation of a double-stranded molecule from the interaction of two complementary-sequence single-stranded molecules.
33
Heat-denatured DNA will renature when cooled to about...
65C
34
The technique by which fragments of DNA are separated by gel electrophoresis, denatured, blotted on nitrocellulose paper, labeled with a complementary radioactive probe, and detected by autoradiography is called ... blotting.
Southern.
35
The... technique would be used to compare expression of 10,000 genes in two different conditions (e.g. normal cells are cancer cells).
DNA microarray
36
The technique by which a particular nucleic acid sequence is localised with labeled probes in a cell, tissue, or isolated chromosomes is called... hybridisation.
in situ
37
To identify, in a sample, the protein against which you have an antibody, the best technique to used would be ... blotting.
Western
38
SDS-polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis (SDS-PAGE) separates proteins on the basis of which of the following?
Size
39
Temperature-sensitive mutants of yeast are useful because they...
allows identification of genes that control processes such as cell cycle progression, which are blocked when the gene product (protein) does not function at the non permissive temperature.
40
The experimental introduction of DNA into eukaryotic cells is called...
Transfection.
41
DNA can be introduced into cells by...
All of the above (answer) *Microinjection into the nucleus of a cell; fusion of DNA-containing liposomes with cells; electroporation of DNA into cells; Both a and b.
42
Transgenic mice are usually produced by...
injecting DNA containing the gene into the pronucleus of a fertilised egg.
43
Transgenic plants are easier to produce than transgenic animals because...
Plants can be grown from single cultured cells into which recombinant DNA has been introduced.
44
Mutations are introduced into selected genes of living cells by...
homologous recombination with an altered cloned gene.
45
When introduced into living cells, RNAi molecules bind...
proteins called RISC and cleave the complementary mRNA.
46
in RNA interference, expression of a gene is most effectively inhibited by injection of...
double-stranded RNA
47
A dominant inhibitory mutant is typically one that...
produces a protein that interferes with the function of the protein produced by the normal gene.