Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

2S031 Block 2 Part 2 > Unit 5-6-7-8-9 > Flashcards

Unit 5-6-7-8-9 Flashcards

1
Q

*What types of counts are authorized to ensure accuracy of base materiel inventory records:

A

Complete and Special Inventory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

*Complete inventory counts are conducted using what method:

A

Closed Warehouse Method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

*What freeze code designates items under a complete inventory:

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

*What freeze codes are automatically assigned as the result of Inventory Count Record:

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How many freeze Codes may be assigned to an Item Record:

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

*Emergency issues will be recorded on the inventory _________:

A

Recap Sheet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

*What type of inventory counts reconciles out of balance conditions:

A

Special Inventory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

*What are required for insufficient Balances or warehouse refusals:

A

Inventory Interrogations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

*The purpose of Special Inventory Interrogation Input (1GP) is to __________:

A

assign freeze code “I” to the item

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What freeze code is used when out of balance conditions exist:

A

I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

*The physical inventory control section will establish an inventory schedule every:

A

Fiscal year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

*Who ensures physical inventory control section and warehouse personnel coordinate closely during the creation of the warehouse location validation and inventory schedules:

A

LRS CC/APO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

*How often are weapons inventoried:

A

Semi-Annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

*Warehouse validations must be completed within how many days prior to the inventory start date:

A

10 workdays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

*What is the preferred method for inventory procedures:

A

ILS-S Inventory Function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

*How many days before the inventory count is the AF Form 1991 inventory request due:

A

1 day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The items in DIFM status will be inventoried by the maintenance DIFM monitors how often:

A

Quarterly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

*Who serves as the primary contact with units managing repair cycle assets:

A

FSC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

*What ERRCD is a repair cycle asset that is considered as a recoverable item:

A

XD or XF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

*Each repair cycle record indicates what:

A

The Org/Shop code

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

*What is considered part of the total base asset position whether serviceable or reparable:

A

Repair Cycle Assets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A demand for an XD or XF coded asset ensures for what kind of exchange:

A

One-for-one exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

*Who is responsible for the repair cycle process:

A

LRS CC/APO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

*Who will physically verify items returned by maintenance is correct and validate their documentation:

A

FSC personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

*What TRIC ends the Repair Cycle Process:

A

TRIC: TIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

*What form provides means for controlling repairable items and must be returned to the LRS to clear DIFM detail Suspense Records:

A

AFTO Form 350 Tag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

*What TRIC initiates start of repair cycle:

A

ISU MAINT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

*What listing has all DIFM items:

A

Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

*Who retains a recent copy of D23 and contacts all shops having on-hand DIFM assets indicated on the listing:

A

FSC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Who performs “eyes on” for all DIFM assets during shop visits:

A

FSC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Once DIFM reconciliation is complete the final report of discrepancies and best practices will be sent within how many days:

A

10 workdays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

*What indicates estimated percentage of time an XD or XF asset is repaired at the base level:

A

Percentage Base Repair (PBR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

*DIFM items inducted into maintenance repair will be returned to the LRS/Materiel Management Activity within how many days:

A

4 duty days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Base repairable assets assigned to back shops will be returned by the end of what day from the date of issue:

A

45th duty day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are replacement parts called:

A

“Bits and Pieces”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

*What is the list that contains all awaiting parts (AWP) due-out detail records with the linked due-in and status for the AWP end item:

A

Awaiting Parts Validation Listing (D19)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

*How do you identify unserviceable detail records:

A

The activity code, “R”, the Organization Code of “920” and the Shop Code of “RW”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

All unserviceable assets must be stored where:

A

Separately from serviceable items to prevent accidental issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

*How often will Stock Control receive a copy of the D23 Part 4:

A

Weekly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What provides the means to record demand data in the MMSY for repairs in place or removal, repair, and reinstallation of a recoverable item without ordering a replacement:

A

Turnaround Action (TRN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Who acts as a turnaround processing point:

A

FSC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

*Who appoints a primary and alternate TRN Manager:

A

The LRS/Materiel Management Activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

*What form does turnaround manager use to prepare and process a maintenance turnaround input:

A

AFTO Form 350 Tag Part 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What has the same effect as an issue, repair, and subsequent serviceable turn-in of a XD and XF asset:

A

Turnaround

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are extensions of LRS warehouse stock:

A

Supply points

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What TRIC is used to create a Supply Point Detail:

A

FSP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What listing is used to perform a physical count to verify balances:

A

Supply Point Listing (Q13)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are Supply Points considered:

A

“Over the counter”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

*What are managed at forward locations:

A

Supply points

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

*What TRIC is used to issue from a supply point:

A

“MSI” activity code “S”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

*TCTO items are modified by using what:

A

Kit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

*TCTO kits stock numbers are identified by a ___ in the fifth position:

A

“K”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

*What TRIC is used to load, change, delete the input of the TCTO flag:

A

FCD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

*If a TCTO changes its form, fit, or function what code is assigned:

A

NPPC of “4”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

*Who serves as the base equipment review and authorization activity (ERAA):

A

Equipment Accountability Element (EAE)

56
Q

*Who provides overall management of base equipment:

A

LRS CC/APO

57
Q

*Who is responsible for updating ILS-S, DPAS and assisting equipment custodians with processing equipment transactions:

A

Equipment Accountability Element (EAE)

58
Q

*Within how many days of arrival must the LRS CC/APO conduct face-to-face responsibility briefings with all incoming Squadron Commanders:

A

90 Days

59
Q

*Who is responsible for equipment on their account(s) and may be held financially liable:

A

Equipment/Property Custodians

60
Q

*Who appoints primary and alternate equipment/property custodians in writing for all equipment accounts in their organization and sends a copy to the LRS EAE:

A

Organizational Commanders

61
Q

*What must Equipment/Property Custodians complete annually:

A

Block 3 refresher training

62
Q

Within how many hours of return from a deployed location must inventory be completed:

A

Within 24 hours

63
Q

What must Deployed Equipment/Property Custodians do upon return to home-station:

A

Perform a 100% inventory of returned assets

64
Q

*What is the ERRCD for Non-Equipment that do not require accounting:

A

Nonexpendable Field (NF)

65
Q

What is the ERRCD for Equipment:

A

Nonexpendable Depot (ND)

66
Q

What is another acronym for Accountable Property Systems of Record (ASPR):

A

DPAS (Defense Property Accountability System)

67
Q

*What is the business system/application used to account for and maintain accountability of government property:

A

Accountable Property Systems of Record (APSR)

68
Q

*Equipment Authorization Inventory Data (EAID) are accounted for on what listing:

A

The R14 – Custodian Inventory Report

69
Q

*Non-EAID assets are assigned an Equipment Management Code (EMC) of ___:

A

“1”

70
Q

All EAID assets that are requisitioned through ILS-S use the activity code ___:

A

“E”

71
Q

*EMC 1 equipment costing $5,000 or greater must be accounted for on what listing:

A

R15 – Organizational Visibility List

72
Q

*Non-EAID assets requisitioned through ILS-S will use the activity code ___:

A

“P”

73
Q

*Who are responsible for establishing and maintaining Authorization Ids that determine the support equipment needed to accomplish the mission:

A

Authorization Managers

74
Q

When are Authorization Ids reviewed:

A

Biennial (Every other year)

75
Q

*What module does Equipment Accountability Element (EAE) utilize to identify what the equipment custodian is authorized:

A

The Force System Management (FSM)

76
Q

*What is a 7-Position alpha/numeric code that is unique to the type of equipment or weapon system supported:

A

The Authorization Id

77
Q

Who utilize the custodian Inventory Report (CIR/R14) to account for all items on their accounts:

A

Property Custodians

78
Q

What report is generated by EAE through the Defense Property Accountability System (DPAS):

A

Custodian Inventory Report

79
Q

*What form is used to request equipment authorization changes such as a new request, increase, decrease, and delete authorizations on the account:

A

AF Form 601

80
Q

*The property custodian will perform a ___________ style inventory when reviewing the CIR:

A

“Floor to book”

81
Q

Within how many days will the CIR need to be signed and returned to EAE:

A

15 workdays

82
Q

If an authorization change request is disapproved what will the FAM give the respective CEMF:

A

Justification for disapproval

83
Q

*Who reviews the AF Form 601 for accuracy:

A

Centralized Equipment Management Flight (CEMF)

84
Q

*If the AF Form 601 is properly filled out, who will the CEMF forward it to for review and approval:

A

The Functional Area Manager (FAM)

85
Q

How many calendar days from the reassigned date does the Custodian or EAE have to make the necessary corrections:

A

15 Calendar Days

86
Q

*What is the accepted Accountability Property System of Record (ASPR for the Department of Defense (DoD) and components managing over $1 Trillion in accountable property:

A

DPAS (Defense Property Accountability System)

87
Q

*What is designed to manage large-ticket items, issues, and assets, in any DoD environment:

A

DPAS Property Accountability module

88
Q

Within what module will users be able to track the lifecycle of an asset from receipt to disposition:

A

DPAS Property Accountability module

89
Q

*What are the three different methods for managing equipment through the DPAS Property Accountability module:

A
  1. Serial-One Item, One Record
  2. Bulk-Multiple Items, One Record
  3. Component/Higher Assemblage and System
90
Q

What module is used as a reporting and analytical tool to manage all software and assets:

A

DPAS Property Accountability Module

91
Q

What are the four types of stock numbers:

A
  1. A-NSN (National Stock Number)
  2. J-MCN (Management Control Number)
  3. B-Part NBR (Part Number)
  4. I-Intangible (Intangible)
92
Q

What are the three distinct functions of the DPAS Property Accountable module:

A
  1. Property Accountability
  2. Maintenance Utilization Tracking
  3. Warehouse Management
93
Q

*What module is the primary source for managing equipment authorizations in the Air Force:

A

The Force Systems Management (FSM) module

94
Q

*What module complements the Property Accountability (PA) module and provides the capability to create and customize equipment authorizations:

A

The Force System Management (FSM) module

95
Q

*What is the Force System Management (FSM) module a component of, managing accountable equipment authorizations:

A

The Defense Property Accountability System (DPAS)

96
Q

*What are the four categories for the Force System Management Structure from top to bottom:

A
  1. Force (OFSC)
  2. Command
  3. Group
  4. Element
97
Q

What 3 UTCs are the Force System Management (FSM) the primary source for:

A
  1. Mobility (Readiness Code A - Deployable)
  2. Non-Mobility (Readiness Code B - Non-Deployable)
  3. War Reserve Materiel (Readiness Code D)
98
Q

*Document Control Personnel utilizes __________capability to manage delinquent documents (DDL):

A

The ILS-S Manage Document Control Record (DCR)

99
Q

What capability allows users to insert comments and clear document control records:

A

Document control capability

100
Q

*What capability provides ILS-S user’s the ability to upload, validate, view and query archived DCRs with scanned images:

A

The ILS-S Manage Document Control Record (DCR) capability

101
Q

*What transaction is used to clear the DCR:

A

The 1SI transaction

102
Q

*How long will TRICS: ISU, DOR, MSI, SHP, AXA, BSU, FCH, and FCU source documents be retained:

A

75 months (6 years and 3 months)

103
Q

*Who needs to be notified for any security incidents if unauthorized individuals have signed for controlled materiel:

A

The LRS CC/APO and Squadron Security Manager

104
Q

*Who are authorized to sign for equipment items with and ERRCD “ND” and “NF”:

A

Equipment custodians

105
Q

*After documents are validated and quality control checks are performed the disposition document will be __________:

A

Digitally stored in ILS-S

106
Q

*After how many days are On-Base documents considered delinquent:

A

After 6 Calendar Days

107
Q

*After how many days are Off-Base documents considered delinquent:

A

After 11 Calendar Days

108
Q

How long can ILS-S store scanned images associated with the DCR:

A

10 years

109
Q

How are source documents filed:

A

According to Organization and ascending document number

110
Q

*Who submits a letter to Customer Support, identifying the individuals authorized to receive controlled materiel:

A

Organization Commander

111
Q

*When will the other initiating activity review the Authorization Receipt Listing provided by the LRS CC/APO:

A

Every June and December

112
Q

*Who provides a letter of receipt authorization to activities that can process classified and NWRM property:

A

The LRS CC/APO

113
Q

*What system gives the F-35 operators the ability to plan, maintain, and sustain their systems over the life of the aircraft:

A

Autonomic Logistics Information System (ALIS)

114
Q

*What system integrates a broad range of capabilities, including operations, maintenance, prognostics, supply chain, customer support services, training, and technical data:

A

Autonomic Logistics Information System (ALIS)

115
Q

*The Sustainment Supply Concept is an integral part of ___________:

A

ALIS

116
Q

*What does ALIS turns data from many sources into __________:

A

Actionable information

117
Q

*From lowest to highest, what are the 3 tiers within the ALIS Operating Structure:

A
  1. Squadron Operating Unit (SOU)
  2. Central Point of Entry (CPE)
  3. Autonomic Logistic Operating Unit (ALOU)
118
Q

What Operating Structure Tier is the physical location where the F-35 is located (One per Operational Squadron):

A

Squadron Operating Unit (SOU)

119
Q

What Operating Structure Tier is located in each owning country of the aircraft (One per Country):

A

Central Point of Entry (CPE)

120
Q

What Operating Structure Tier is the sole operator for all-inclusive tiers, and there is only one per entire fleet of F-35s (One per Global Fleet):

A

Autonomic Logistics Operating Unit (ALOU)

121
Q

*What is a cloud-native system that incorporates a new integrated data environment and a new suite of user-centered applications:

A

Operational Data Integrated Network (ODIN)

122
Q

*ODIN is designed to decrease __________, and increase __________:

A

Decrease maintainer workload
Increase mission capability rates or mission support

123
Q

*What is a customer-level software application that interfaces with the enterprise system to provide global inventory management capability:

A

Autonomic Logistics Information System (ALIS) Supply Chain Management (SCM)

124
Q

*What is a concept that allows customers to purchase a package of support for F-35 sustainment:

A

Performance-based Logistics (PBL)

125
Q

What receive, store, issue, and move retrograde F-35 assets to support flight operations:

A

Supply Warehouses

126
Q

What are the four functions in ALIS SCM:

A
  1. IFS Navigator
  2. Top Toolbar
  3. Bottom Toolbar
  4. ALIS SCM Pages
127
Q

What offers a single solution for line and shop maintenance and supports engineering, materials, and fleet management:

A

Computerized Maintenance Management System (CMMS)

128
Q

*What functions as the primary communication tool between Maintenance and Operations:

A

Computerized Maintenance Management System (CMMS)

129
Q

*Where is the IFS Navigator located on the ALIS SCM Homepage:

A

Top Left

130
Q

Where is the Top Toolbar located on the ALIS SCM Homepage:

A

The right of the IFS Navigator Pane

131
Q

Where is the Bottom Toolbar located on the ALIS SCM Homepage:

A

Below the page area

132
Q

What are the four integrations pages within CMMS:

A
  1. Squadron Status Page
  2. AV Status Page
  3. Work Order List Page
  4. Support Equipment Status Page
133
Q

*How many configured user roles are in the Computerized Maintenance Management System (CMMS):

A

9

134
Q

*What is assigned when a work order is generated:

A

Job Control Number (JCN)

135
Q

List the sortie generation lifecycle:

A
  1. Work Order Initiation
  2. Work Order Maintenance
  3. Work Order Completion

2S031 Block 2 Part 2 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions