Unit 5-6-7-8-9 Flashcards
1
Q
*What types of counts are authorized to ensure accuracy of base materiel inventory records:
A
Complete and Special Inventory
2
Q
*Complete inventory counts are conducted using what method:
A
Closed Warehouse Method
3
Q
*What freeze code designates items under a complete inventory:
A
C
4
Q
*What freeze codes are automatically assigned as the result of Inventory Count Record:
A
C
5
Q
How many freeze Codes may be assigned to an Item Record:
A
1
6
Q
*Emergency issues will be recorded on the inventory _________:
A
Recap Sheet
7
Q
*What type of inventory counts reconciles out of balance conditions:
A
Special Inventory
8
Q
*What are required for insufficient Balances or warehouse refusals:
A
Inventory Interrogations
9
Q
*The purpose of Special Inventory Interrogation Input (1GP) is to __________:
A
assign freeze code “I” to the item
10
Q
What freeze code is used when out of balance conditions exist:
A
I
11
Q
*The physical inventory control section will establish an inventory schedule every:
A
Fiscal year
12
Q
*Who ensures physical inventory control section and warehouse personnel coordinate closely during the creation of the warehouse location validation and inventory schedules:
A
LRS CC/APO
13
Q
*How often are weapons inventoried:
A
Semi-Annually
14
Q
*Warehouse validations must be completed within how many days prior to the inventory start date:
A
10 workdays
15
Q
*What is the preferred method for inventory procedures:
A
ILS-S Inventory Function
16
Q
*How many days before the inventory count is the AF Form 1991 inventory request due:
A
1 day
17
Q
The items in DIFM status will be inventoried by the maintenance DIFM monitors how often:
A
Quarterly
18
Q
*Who serves as the primary contact with units managing repair cycle assets:
A
FSC
19
Q
*What ERRCD is a repair cycle asset that is considered as a recoverable item:
A
XD or XF
20
Q
*Each repair cycle record indicates what:
A
The Org/Shop code
21
Q
*What is considered part of the total base asset position whether serviceable or reparable:
A
Repair Cycle Assets
22
Q
A demand for an XD or XF coded asset ensures for what kind of exchange:
A
One-for-one exchange
23
Q
*Who is responsible for the repair cycle process:
A
LRS CC/APO
24
Q
*Who will physically verify items returned by maintenance is correct and validate their documentation:
A
FSC personnel
25
*What TRIC ends the Repair Cycle Process:
TRIC: TIN
26
*What form provides means for controlling repairable items and must be returned to the LRS to clear DIFM detail Suspense Records:
AFTO Form 350 Tag
27
*What TRIC initiates start of repair cycle:
ISU MAINT
28
*What listing has all DIFM items:
Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23)
29
*Who retains a recent copy of D23 and contacts all shops having on-hand DIFM assets indicated on the listing:
FSC
30
Who performs “eyes on” for all DIFM assets during shop visits:
FSC
31
Once DIFM reconciliation is complete the final report of discrepancies and best practices will be sent within how many days:
10 workdays
32
*What indicates estimated percentage of time an XD or XF asset is repaired at the base level:
Percentage Base Repair (PBR)
33
*DIFM items inducted into maintenance repair will be returned to the LRS/Materiel Management Activity within how many days:
4 duty days
34
Base repairable assets assigned to back shops will be returned by the end of what day from the date of issue:
45th duty day
35
What are replacement parts called:
“Bits and Pieces”
36
*What is the list that contains all awaiting parts (AWP) due-out detail records with the linked due-in and status for the AWP end item:
Awaiting Parts Validation Listing (D19)
37
*How do you identify unserviceable detail records:
The activity code, “R”, the Organization Code of “920” and the Shop Code of “RW”
38
All unserviceable assets must be stored where:
Separately from serviceable items to prevent accidental issues
39
*How often will Stock Control receive a copy of the D23 Part 4:
Weekly
40
What provides the means to record demand data in the MMSY for repairs in place or removal, repair, and reinstallation of a recoverable item without ordering a replacement:
Turnaround Action (TRN)
41
Who acts as a turnaround processing point:
FSC
42
*Who appoints a primary and alternate TRN Manager:
The LRS/Materiel Management Activity
43
*What form does turnaround manager use to prepare and process a maintenance turnaround input:
AFTO Form 350 Tag Part 2
44
What has the same effect as an issue, repair, and subsequent serviceable turn-in of a XD and XF asset:
Turnaround
45
What are extensions of LRS warehouse stock:
Supply points
46
What TRIC is used to create a Supply Point Detail:
FSP
47
What listing is used to perform a physical count to verify balances:
Supply Point Listing (Q13)
48
What are Supply Points considered:
"Over the counter"
49
*What are managed at forward locations:
Supply points
50
*What TRIC is used to issue from a supply point:
“MSI” activity code “S”
51
*TCTO items are modified by using what:
Kit
52
*TCTO kits stock numbers are identified by a ___ in the fifth position:
“K”
53
*What TRIC is used to load, change, delete the input of the TCTO flag:
FCD
54
*If a TCTO changes its form, fit, or function what code is assigned:
NPPC of “4”
55
*Who serves as the base equipment review and authorization activity (ERAA):
Equipment Accountability Element (EAE)
56
*Who provides overall management of base equipment:
LRS CC/APO
57
*Who is responsible for updating ILS-S, DPAS and assisting equipment custodians with processing equipment transactions:
Equipment Accountability Element (EAE)
58
*Within how many days of arrival must the LRS CC/APO conduct face-to-face responsibility briefings with all incoming Squadron Commanders:
90 Days
59
*Who is responsible for equipment on their account(s) and may be held financially liable:
Equipment/Property Custodians
60
*Who appoints primary and alternate equipment/property custodians in writing for all equipment accounts in their organization and sends a copy to the LRS EAE:
Organizational Commanders
61
*What must Equipment/Property Custodians complete annually:
Block 3 refresher training
62
Within how many hours of return from a deployed location must inventory be completed:
Within 24 hours
63
What must Deployed Equipment/Property Custodians do upon return to home-station:
Perform a 100% inventory of returned assets
64
*What is the ERRCD for Non-Equipment that do not require accounting:
Nonexpendable Field (NF)
65
What is the ERRCD for Equipment:
Nonexpendable Depot (ND)
66
What is another acronym for Accountable Property Systems of Record (ASPR):
DPAS (Defense Property Accountability System)
67
*What is the business system/application used to account for and maintain accountability of government property:
Accountable Property Systems of Record (APSR)
68
*Equipment Authorization Inventory Data (EAID) are accounted for on what listing:
The R14 – Custodian Inventory Report
69
*Non-EAID assets are assigned an Equipment Management Code (EMC) of ___:
“1”
70
All EAID assets that are requisitioned through ILS-S use the activity code ___:
“E”
71
*EMC 1 equipment costing $5,000 or greater must be accounted for on what listing:
R15 – Organizational Visibility List
72
*Non-EAID assets requisitioned through ILS-S will use the activity code ___:
“P”
73
*Who are responsible for establishing and maintaining Authorization Ids that determine the support equipment needed to accomplish the mission:
Authorization Managers
74
When are Authorization Ids reviewed:
Biennial (Every other year)
75
*What module does Equipment Accountability Element (EAE) utilize to identify what the equipment custodian is authorized:
The Force System Management (FSM)
76
*What is a 7-Position alpha/numeric code that is unique to the type of equipment or weapon system supported:
The Authorization Id
77
Who utilize the custodian Inventory Report (CIR/R14) to account for all items on their accounts:
Property Custodians
78
What report is generated by EAE through the Defense Property Accountability System (DPAS):
Custodian Inventory Report
79
*What form is used to request equipment authorization changes such as a new request, increase, decrease, and delete authorizations on the account:
AF Form 601
80
*The property custodian will perform a ___________ style inventory when reviewing the CIR:
“Floor to book”
81
Within how many days will the CIR need to be signed and returned to EAE:
15 workdays
82
If an authorization change request is disapproved what will the FAM give the respective CEMF:
Justification for disapproval
83
*Who reviews the AF Form 601 for accuracy:
Centralized Equipment Management Flight (CEMF)
84
*If the AF Form 601 is properly filled out, who will the CEMF forward it to for review and approval:
The Functional Area Manager (FAM)
85
How many calendar days from the reassigned date does the Custodian or EAE have to make the necessary corrections:
15 Calendar Days
86
*What is the accepted Accountability Property System of Record (ASPR for the Department of Defense (DoD) and components managing over $1 Trillion in accountable property:
DPAS (Defense Property Accountability System)
87
*What is designed to manage large-ticket items, issues, and assets, in any DoD environment:
DPAS Property Accountability module
88
Within what module will users be able to track the lifecycle of an asset from receipt to disposition:
DPAS Property Accountability module
89
*What are the three different methods for managing equipment through the DPAS Property Accountability module:
1. Serial-One Item, One Record
2. Bulk-Multiple Items, One Record
3. Component/Higher Assemblage and System
90
What module is used as a reporting and analytical tool to manage all software and assets:
DPAS Property Accountability Module
91
What are the four types of stock numbers:
1. A-NSN (National Stock Number)
2. J-MCN (Management Control Number)
3. B-Part NBR (Part Number)
4. I-Intangible (Intangible)
92
What are the three distinct functions of the DPAS Property Accountable module:
1. Property Accountability
2. Maintenance Utilization Tracking
3. Warehouse Management
93
*What module is the primary source for managing equipment authorizations in the Air Force:
The Force Systems Management (FSM) module
94
*What module complements the Property Accountability (PA) module and provides the capability to create and customize equipment authorizations:
The Force System Management (FSM) module
95
*What is the Force System Management (FSM) module a component of, managing accountable equipment authorizations:
The Defense Property Accountability System (DPAS)
96
*What are the four categories for the Force System Management Structure from top to bottom:
1. Force (OFSC)
2. Command
3. Group
4. Element
97
What 3 UTCs are the Force System Management (FSM) the primary source for:
1. Mobility (Readiness Code A - Deployable)
2. Non-Mobility (Readiness Code B - Non-Deployable)
3. War Reserve Materiel (Readiness Code D)
98
*Document Control Personnel utilizes __________capability to manage delinquent documents (DDL):
The ILS-S Manage Document Control Record (DCR)
99
What capability allows users to insert comments and clear document control records:
Document control capability
100
*What capability provides ILS-S user's the ability to upload, validate, view and query archived DCRs with scanned images:
The ILS-S Manage Document Control Record (DCR) capability
101
*What transaction is used to clear the DCR:
The 1SI transaction
102
*How long will TRICS: ISU, DOR, MSI, SHP, AXA, BSU, FCH, and FCU source documents be retained:
75 months (6 years and 3 months)
103
*Who needs to be notified for any security incidents if unauthorized individuals have signed for controlled materiel:
The LRS CC/APO and Squadron Security Manager
104
*Who are authorized to sign for equipment items with and ERRCD "ND" and "NF":
Equipment custodians
105
*After documents are validated and quality control checks are performed the disposition document will be __________:
Digitally stored in ILS-S
106
*After how many days are On-Base documents considered delinquent:
After 6 Calendar Days
107
*After how many days are Off-Base documents considered delinquent:
After 11 Calendar Days
108
How long can ILS-S store scanned images associated with the DCR:
10 years
109
How are source documents filed:
According to Organization and ascending document number
110
*Who submits a letter to Customer Support, identifying the individuals authorized to receive controlled materiel:
Organization Commander
111
*When will the other initiating activity review the Authorization Receipt Listing provided by the LRS CC/APO:
Every June and December
112
*Who provides a letter of receipt authorization to activities that can process classified and NWRM property:
The LRS CC/APO
113
*What system gives the F-35 operators the ability to plan, maintain, and sustain their systems over the life of the aircraft:
Autonomic Logistics Information System (ALIS)
114
*What system integrates a broad range of capabilities, including operations, maintenance, prognostics, supply chain, customer support services, training, and technical data:
Autonomic Logistics Information System (ALIS)
115
*The Sustainment Supply Concept is an integral part of ___________:
ALIS
116
*What does ALIS turns data from many sources into __________:
Actionable information
117
*From lowest to highest, what are the 3 tiers within the ALIS Operating Structure:
1. Squadron Operating Unit (SOU)
2. Central Point of Entry (CPE)
3. Autonomic Logistic Operating Unit (ALOU)
118
What Operating Structure Tier is the physical location where the F-35 is located (One per Operational Squadron):
Squadron Operating Unit (SOU)
119
What Operating Structure Tier is located in each owning country of the aircraft (One per Country):
Central Point of Entry (CPE)
120
What Operating Structure Tier is the sole operator for all-inclusive tiers, and there is only one per entire fleet of F-35s (One per Global Fleet):
Autonomic Logistics Operating Unit (ALOU)
121
*What is a cloud-native system that incorporates a new integrated data environment and a new suite of user-centered applications:
Operational Data Integrated Network (ODIN)
122
*ODIN is designed to decrease __________, and increase __________:
Decrease maintainer workload
Increase mission capability rates or mission support
123
*What is a customer-level software application that interfaces with the enterprise system to provide global inventory management capability:
Autonomic Logistics Information System (ALIS) Supply Chain Management (SCM)
124
*What is a concept that allows customers to purchase a package of support for F-35 sustainment:
Performance-based Logistics (PBL)
125
What receive, store, issue, and move retrograde F-35 assets to support flight operations:
Supply Warehouses
126
What are the four functions in ALIS SCM:
1. IFS Navigator
2. Top Toolbar
3. Bottom Toolbar
4. ALIS SCM Pages
127
What offers a single solution for line and shop maintenance and supports engineering, materials, and fleet management:
Computerized Maintenance Management System (CMMS)
128
*What functions as the primary communication tool between Maintenance and Operations:
Computerized Maintenance Management System (CMMS)
129
*Where is the IFS Navigator located on the ALIS SCM Homepage:
Top Left
130
Where is the Top Toolbar located on the ALIS SCM Homepage:
The right of the IFS Navigator Pane
131
Where is the Bottom Toolbar located on the ALIS SCM Homepage:
Below the page area
132
What are the four integrations pages within CMMS:
1. Squadron Status Page
2. AV Status Page
3. Work Order List Page
4. Support Equipment Status Page
133
*How many configured user roles are in the Computerized Maintenance Management System (CMMS):
9
134
*What is assigned when a work order is generated:
Job Control Number (JCN)
135
List the sortie generation lifecycle:
1. Work Order Initiation
2. Work Order Maintenance
3. Work Order Completion
