Unit 7-10 Adverse Effects Flashcards

(89 cards)

1
Q

Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia is caused by antibodies that destroy the individual’s RBCs.

A

True - AIHA involves the immune system producing antibodies that target the individual’s own red blood cells.

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2
Q

Suppressor T-cells inhibit B-cell activity to prevent autoantibody production.

A

True - Loss of this inhibition is hypothesized to cause autoantibody production.

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3
Q

Autoantibodies always cause hemolytic anemia.

A

False - Presence of autoantibodies alone does not always correlate with hemolysis.

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4
Q

Autoantibodies that agglutinate RBCs in vitro are called autoagglutinins.

A

True - These are autoantibodies that cause visible clumping of RBCs in vitro.

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5
Q

Warm autoantibodies optimally react at 4°C.

A

False - Warm autoantibodies optimally react at 37°C.

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6
Q

Cold Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia is typically caused by antibodies that react best at body temperature.

A

False - Cold AIHA is caused by antibodies that react best at lower temperatures like 4°C.

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7
Q

A positive DAT always means the patient has AIHA.

A

False - A positive DAT must be correlated with clinical findings to diagnose AIHA.

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8
Q

Pathologic cold autoagglutinins can cause Cold Hemagglutinin Disease.

A

True - CHD is associated with high-titer, high-thermal-amplitude cold autoantibodies.

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9
Q

ZZAP treatment is used in autoadsorption to remove autoantibodies.

A

True - ZZAP removes autoantibodies, allowing detection of underlying alloantibodies.

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10
Q

Anti-I is a common cold autoantibody.

A

True - Anti-I is the most frequently encountered cold autoantibody.

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11
Q

Cold autoagglutinins always indicate pathology.

A

False - Benign cold autoagglutinins can be found in healthy individuals.

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12
Q

Autoanti-H is most often seen in Bombay phenotype.

A

False - The anti-H in Bombay is alloantibody

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13
Q

Autoanti-IH reacts best with group O cells.

A

True - Group O cells express both I and H antigens strongly.

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14
Q

CHD usually affects individuals in their teens.

A

False - CHD typically affects individuals around 50 years old.

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15
Q

DAT in CHD is positive for complement but negative for IgG.

A

True - The autoantibody is IgM which activates complement but does not bind IgG.

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16
Q

Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria is associated with Donath-Landsteiner antibody.

A

True - PCH is caused by a biphasic IgG with anti-P specificity.

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17
Q

The Donath-Landsteiner antibody binds at 37°C and lyses cells at 4°C.

A

False - It binds at cold temperatures and lyses at 37°C via complement activation.

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18
Q

WAIHA comprises the majority of AIHA cases.

A

True - Warm-type makes up about 70% of AIHA.

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19
Q

IgG1 and IgG3 are subclasses most effective in complement activation.

A

True - These IgG subclasses efficiently mediate immune destruction.

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20
Q

DAT in WAIHA can be negative.

A

True - Rarely, low levels of IgG may escape detection in conventional DAT.

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21
Q

Mixed-type AIHA involves both cold and warm autoantibodies.

A

True - This rare type shows features of both WAIHA and CAIHA.

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22
Q

IgM warm autoantibodies are common in AIHA.

A

False - IgM warm autoantibodies are rare but severe when present.

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23
Q

Treatment of WAIHA may involve corticosteroids and splenectomy.

A

True - These treatments help reduce immune-mediated RBC destruction.

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24
Q

Autoadsorption can be used only if the patient has not had a recent transfusion.

A

True - Recent transfusion introduces donor RBCs that complicate adsorption.

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25
Anti-Fya is an alloantibody that may be masked by autoantibodies.
True - Autoantibodies can obscure detection of clinically significant alloantibodies.
26
In ABO discrepancies due to cold autoagglutinins, pre-warming techniques may resolve the issue.
True - Pre-warming minimizes cold antibody interference.
27
Anti-i is typically reactive with adult RBCs.
False - Anti-i reacts with cord and i adult cells, not typical adult cells.
28
DAT testing with monospecific AHG is important in CHD.
True - It helps confirm complement coating and exclude IgG involvement.
29
Prewarming techniques are indiscriminately applicable in antibody screening.
False - They should only be used when cold autoantibodies are suspected.
30
TTBI is the most frequent infectious complication in transfusion.
True - Bacterial contamination is a leading cause of transfusion-related infections.
31
TRALI occurs within 6 hours post-transfusion.
True - It is a rapid-onset acute lung injury due to transfusion.
32
TACO is caused by excessive transfused volume.
True - TACO results from circulatory overload.
33
FNHTR is associated with cytokine release.
True - It’s typically caused by recipient antibodies reacting with donor leukocytes.
34
Allergic transfusion reactions are common with plasma components.
True - ATRs frequently occur with plasma or platelets.
35
TA-GVHD often manifests with pancytopenia and rash.
True - It causes marrow aplasia and systemic symptoms.
36
Hemovigilance involves monitoring and analysis of transfusion complications.
True - It promotes safety by tracking adverse events.
37
AHTR occurs within 7–10 days post-transfusion.
False - AHTR occurs during or within 24 hours of transfusion.
38
DHTR may occur up to 28 days post-transfusion.
True - It is a delayed hemolytic reaction due to anamnestic antibody response.
39
DSTR shows same findings as DHTR but without hemolysis.
True - DSTR has positive serologic findings without clinical hemolysis.
40
Post-transfusion purpura is due to alloimmunization against platelet antigens.
True - It leads to severe thrombocytopenia.
41
Hypotensive transfusion reactions occur with a sudden drop in blood pressure.
True - Defined by a ≥30 mmHg systolic drop.
42
RBC units stored longer are more likely to cause hyperkalemia.
True - Potassium leaks from RBCs into storage media over time.
43
Yersinia enterocolitica is a common bacterial contaminant in RBC units.
True - It is a cold-growing gram-negative bacterium.
44
HCV is an RNA virus.
True - It belongs to the Flaviviridae family and has RNA as its genome.
45
Anti-HBs is a marker of recovery or vaccination.
True - It indicates immunity to Hepatitis B.
46
HBcAg is detected directly in serum.
False - Only anti-HBc is detected serologically
47
Vaccinated individuals for HBV have only anti-HBs.
True - They lack anti-HBc and other markers of infection.
48
HTLV screening is required in the Philippines.
False - It is not required in the PH but is in the US and other settings.
49
Syphilis screening for transfusion uses STS tests.
True - Serologic testing detects antibodies against Treponema pallidum.
50
HIV confirmatory tests include Western Blot and NAT.
True - Nucleic acid testing is a key confirmatory method.
51
Prion disease is caused by viruses.
False - Prions are infectious proteins, not viruses.
52
HAV testing is required for blood donors.
False - HAV testing is not mandatory for blood donations.
53
Chikungunya and Dengue are mosquito-borne but not routinely screened for.
True - They are vector-borne, with minimal transfusion risk.
54
Plasma-derived products can cause mild allergic reactions.
True - They often result in mild, transient symptoms.
55
Most common bacteria in platelets are gram-positive cocci.
True - Often from skin flora introduced during venipuncture.
56
HBV DNA is the earliest detectable marker of infection.
True - Detectable via PCR before serologic markers.
57
The window period in HBV is when anti-HBs is detectable.
False - It is when no serologic markers are present but DNA may be detected.
58
Adefovir dipivoxil is used in HBV treatment.
True - It is one of the antiviral agents for chronic HBV.
59
CMV is tested before transfusion to pregnant women.
True - It poses risk to the fetus and must be screened in such cases.
60
The antibody responsible for Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria.
Donath-Landsteiner antibody - It is a biphasic IgG autoantibody with anti-P specificity that binds in cold and causes lysis at 37°C.
61
The most commonly encountered cold autoantibody in routine testing.
Autoanti-I - Autoanti-I is frequently detected and may interfere with serologic tests.
62
The gold standard test for detecting the Donath-Landsteiner antibody.
Donath-Landsteiner Test - This confirms PCH through a biphasic hemolysis pattern across different temperatures.
63
The reagent used in autoadsorption that removes autoantibodies from RBCs.
ZZAP - ZZAP is a combination of enzymes used to remove bound antibodies.
64
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia type with both cold and warm autoantibodies.
Mixed-type AIHA - This rare form shows features of both WAIHA and CAIHA serologically and clinically.
65
Common clinical manifestation of Cold Hemagglutinin Disease in winter.
Acrocyanosis - Vasoconstriction and cold-reacting antibodies cause discoloration and numbness.
66
A condition characterized by sudden thrombocytopenia 5–10 days after transfusion.
Post-transfusion purpura - Caused by alloantibodies against platelet antigens, typically anti-HPA-1a.
67
The best blood sample type to avoid complement interference in RhD typing.
EDTA - EDTA chelates calcium and prevents in vitro complement activation.
68
The antibody class most often associated with Warm Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia.
IgG - IgG warm autoantibodies react at 37°C and lead to RBC destruction.
69
The most sensitive method for detecting IgM warm autoantibodies.
Flow cytometry - IgM may be lost in complement activation, but flow cytometry can detect low-level coating.
70
Technique used to prevent cold agglutinin interference in testing.
Prewarming - Warming reagents and samples prevents cold antibody reactions.
71
Autoantibody found in A1 or A1B individuals reacting with O cells.
Autoanti-IH - Reacts best with RBCs expressing both I and H antigens, strongest in group O.
72
The protein on RBC membranes affected in AIHA due to structural changes.
Band 3 - Alterations in band 3 may influence antibody binding and RBC destruction.
73
Temperature range at which pathologic cold autoantibodies react.
30–37°C - Unlike benign ones, pathologic cold autoantibodies show activity near body temperature.
74
Type of anemia with negative DAT despite clinical hemolysis signs.
DAT-negative AIHA - Low antibody coating may escape detection in standard DAT tests.
75
Alloantibody commonly missed due to warm autoantibody masking.
Anti-Fya - Clinically significant alloantibodies may be hidden by panagglutinating autoantibodies.
76
Blood group antigen with weak expression leading to cold autoantibody masking.
H antigen - Weak on A1 and A1B cells, strong on O and A2 cells, involved in anti-IH reactivity.
77
The RBC phenotype method useful when no recent transfusion occurred.
Autologous phenotyping - Useful for selecting phenotypically matched cells for adsorption.
78
Antibody type responsible for intravascular hemolysis in PCH.
IgG - Despite being IgG, it activates complement intravascularly via biphasic mechanism.
79
Routine blood bank test affected by both cold and warm autoantibodies.
ABO typing - Autoantibodies may cause false agglutination in forward or reverse typing.
80
Antibody type involved in hemolysis during Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection.
Anti-I - Infection can induce anti-I autoantibody causing transient hemolytic anemia.
81
Common platelet contaminant organism causing transfusion sepsis.
Staphylococcus aureus - A gram-positive cocci from skin flora and frequent contaminant in platelets.
82
Antibody type responsible for complement fixation in cold AIHA.
IgM - Cold-reacting IgM antibodies are efficient complement activators.
83
Immunoglobulin associated with severe anemia but minimal lab findings.
Warm-reactive IgM - May cause significant clinical effects despite weak serologic reactions.
84
Serologic characteristic of warm autoantibody binding to Rh antigens.
Panagglutination - Warm autoantibodies often show broad reactivity, usually targeting Rh antigens.
85
Recommended pre-transfusion testing if warm autoantibody is present.
Autoadsorption - Removes interfering autoantibodies to detect underlying alloantibodies.
86
This diagnostic phase is used to confirm warm autoantibody reactivity.
Antiglobulin phase - Warm autoantibodies typically show strongest reactivity here.
87
Subtype of IgG with least efficiency in mediating phagocytosis.
IgG2 - Compared to IgG1 and IgG3, it has lower affinity for Fc receptors on macrophages.
88
Test used to determine if RBCs are coated with IgG and/or complement.
Direct Antiglobulin Test - Detects in vivo sensitization of RBCs, key in AIHA diagnosis.
89
Autoantibody with anti-P specificity found in PCH.
Donath-Landsteiner antibody - Unique biphasic hemolysin, binds cold, lyses warm.