Unit Questions Volume 2 Flashcards by Christian Grant

When posting changes to publications, when, if ever, are “List of Effective Pages” checks mandatory?

a. Never.
b. As directed by major command (MAJCOM).
c. At the discretion of the technical order (TO) manager.
d. When changes and revisions are posted to paper TOs.

d. When changes and revisions are posted to paper TOs.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When posting changes and supplements to publications, within what maximum number of work days of receipt should you file technical order (TO) changes and supplements?

a. 1.
b. 5.
c. 7.
d. 10.

b. 5.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What environmental regulation establishes “cradle to grave” control of hazardous substances?

a. Technical Order (TO) 42B–1–23.
b. 40 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 280.
c. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA).
d. Department of Defense (DOD) Directive 4140.25M.

c. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA).

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

At a minimum, underground storage tanks should be monitored to detect releases every

a. 30 days.
b. 60 days.
c. 90 days.
d. 120 days.

a. 30 days.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

How often should dikes be checked for deterioration?

a. Daily.
b. Weekly.
c. Monthly.
d. Quarterly.

b. Weekly.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When conducting internal inspections, at a minimum, the Logistics Readiness Squadron Quality Assurance Office inspects each fuels element at least once

a. a month.
b. every three months.
c. each six months.
d. a year.

c. each six months.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

All spot-checks are rated as

a. Positive or Negative.
b. Pass or Fail.
c. Satisfactory or Unsatisfactory.
d. Satisfactory, Marginal, or Unsatisfactory.

b. Pass or Fail.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When reporting monthly assessments results, what form do Quality Control evaluators use?

a. AF Form 2419, Routing and Review of Quality Control Reports.
b. AF Form 2420, Quality Control Inspection Summary.
c. AF Form 4420, Quality Control Inspection Summary.
d. AF Form 4421, Logistics Readiness Squadron Quality Assurance Assessment Form.

d. AF Form 4421, Logistics Readiness Squadron Quality Assurance Assessment Form.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What organization may authorize bases to use computer products in lieu of AF Forms 2419 and 2420?

a. Fuels management team (FMT).
b. Parent major command (MAJCOM).
c. Air Force petroleum agency (AFPA).
d. Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy).

b. Parent major command (MAJCOM).

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What agency should the fuels management team (FMT) consult with on all matters regarding the provision of or changes to personal protective equipment (PPE) for workers?

a. Base environmental manager.
b. Base bioenvironmental engineer.
c. Group environmental coordinator.
d. Environmental protection committee.

b. Base bioenvironmental engineer.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What outside agency collects, analyzes, and publishes base fuel mishap reports and develops trend analysis on reports affecting fuel operations?

a. Major command (MAJCOM).
b. Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA).
c. Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy).
d. Headquarters (HQ) USAF.

b. Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA).

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What agency acts as the Department of Defense (DOD) central procurement agent for bulk petroleum, natural gas, coal, and associated services?

a. Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA).
b. Air Force Logistics Management Agency (AFLMA).
c. Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy).
d. Headquarters (HQ) USAF.

c. Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy).

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What agency serves as the link between the Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) and its customers?

a. Fuels management team (FMT).
b. Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA).
c. Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) regions.
d. Headquarters (HQ) USAF.

c. Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) regions.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA) division performs contracting support for all AFPA contracted and cost recovery programs?

a. Technical Division.
b. Plans and Programs Division.
c. Resource Management Division.
d. Science and Technology Division.

c. Resource Management Division.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA) division develops and evaluates emerging laboratory testing technology?

a. Technical Division.
b. Laboratory Division.
c. Resource Management Division.
d. Science and Technology Division.

b. Laboratory Division.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What agency is responsible for formulating and disseminating instructions and other directives that cover operations not specified in detail in DLA–Energy policy or command policies?

a. Major command (MAJCOM) fuels office.
b. Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA).
c. Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy).
d. Headquarters (HQ) USAF.

a. Major command (MAJCOM) fuels office.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Who ensures complete accountability and responsibility for the handling of bulk petroleum and missile fuels at each Air Force base?

a. Fuels management team (FMT).
b. Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) commander.
c. Major command (MAJCOM).
d. Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy).

a. Fuels management team (FMT).

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Who is responsible for maintaining the fuels account as outlined according to DLA–Energy policies?

a. Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA).
b. Major command (MAJCOM).
c. Fuels management team (FMT).
d. Fuels service center (FSC).

d. Fuels service center (FSC).

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When an operator is dispatched to complete a fueling operation, which information is not provided?

a. Name of requester (crew chief).
b. Grade of fuel.
c. Authorized delivery point.
d. Refueling vehicle/equipment registration number.

a. Name of requester (crew chief).

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When you are inputting a transaction in the FMD Dispatch Module, what information should you enter in the Request Type when entering a defuel request?

a. Select “Y” in place of the defaulted “N” in the field.
b. Enter the reason for the defuel request.
c. Select “Defuel” in place of the defaulted “Refuel”.
d. Enter the estimated gallon amount of the defuel.

c. Select “Defuel” in place of the defaulted “Refuel”.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When you are performing fuels controller duties, how often should you reconcile with the Fuels Enterprise Server (FES) and clear rejects?

a. Daily.
b. Weekly.
c. Monthly.
d. Quarterly.

a. Daily.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When you are reconciling accounts, what is the allowable tolerance for motor (automotive) gasoline (MOGAS)?

a. .0025
b. .003
c. .005
d. .0075

c. .005

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Who is responsible for reviewing aircraft flying schedules and organizing work shifts to meet fuel support requirements?

a. Fuels operations superintendent.
b. NCOIC fuels distribution.
c. Mobile refueling supervisor.
d. Fuels expediter.

a. Fuels operations superintendent.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which agency can initiate a Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) REPOL report?

a. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)–Energy.
b. Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA).
c. Major command (MAJCOM).
d. Joint staff.

d. Joint staff.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The Tank Group window in the FuelsManager Defense product movement tracker allows operators to create tabular lists of up to how many tanks? a. 5. b. 10. c. 15. d. 20.

d. 20.

When viewing the FuelsManager Defense product movement tracker alarm toolbar you see a flashing green color in the alarm indicator box. You know this indicates a. no alarm. b. an unacknowledged alarm. c. an active unacknowledged alarm. d. an unacknowledged alarm condition has returned to normal.

d. an unacknowledged alarm condition has returned to normal.

Which method of payment is not authorized for a cash sale purchase? a. Cash. b. Check. c. Credit card. d. Money order.

c. Credit card.

When determining authorizations for cash sales, you know that cash sales are only authorized when a. products are not normally stocked. b. military exchange facilities are available at the installation. c. adequate commercial facilities are available within reasonable distance. d. sales support by equipment and/or personnel do not interfere with military operations.

d. sales support by equipment and/or personnel do not interfere with military operations.

Who must establish procedures for the collection, safekeeping, and deposit of funds received for cash sales of aviation fuels? a. Noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC) Fuels Service Center (FSC). b. Fuels Information Service Center (FISC) superintendent. c. Fuels management team (FMT). d. Major command (MAJCOM).

c. Fuels management team (FMT).

At no time will money that is collected for cash sales of aviation products be safeguarded by a. Fuels service center (FSC) personnel. b. shift supervisors. c. off-duty personnel. d. operations expeditors.

c. off-duty personnel.

When investigating fuel gains and losses, you know that variances in inventory levels may be caused by any of the following conditions except a. tank size. b. temperature. c. mode of delivery. d. volume of the product.

a. tank size.

When investigating fuel gains and losses, you determine an excessive variance was caused by a pipeline rupture. This variance should fall into what category? a. Major disaster. b. Combat losses. c. Peacetime losses. d. Determinable losses.

c. Peacetime losses.

The inventory management plan (IMP) is published a. quarterly. b. semiannually. c. annually. d. every two years.

c. annually.

The amount of petroleum war reserve requirements (PWRR) a defense fuel supply point (DFSP) is authorized to store is referred to as a. operating stock. b. maximum inventory. c. minimum inventory level. d. petroleum war reserve stock (PWRS).

d. petroleum war reserve stock (PWRS).

The war consumables distribution objective (WCDO) is derived from the War and Mobilization Plan (WMP)–4 and WMP–5 a. weekly. b. monthly. c. quarterly. d. annually.

c. quarterly.

What agency prepares the war consumables distribution objective (WCDO) document? a. Air Staff. b. Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA). c. Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy). d. Major command (MAJCOM).

d. Major command (MAJCOM).

When entering an order in the Paperless Ordering and Receipt Tracking Screens (PORTS) system, you can identify capitalized contracts as those listed in what color text? a. Blue. b. Black. c. Green. d. Purple.

d. Purple.

When entering an order into the Paperless Ordering and Receipt Tracking Screens (PORTS) system, what agencies receive fuel request e-mails from after you have placed the ground products order? a. Fuels service center (FSC) and the fuels management team (FMT). b. FSC and the vendor. c. Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) and major command (MAJCOM). d. The vendor and DLA–Energy.

d. The vendor and DLA–Energy.

When maintaining Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) files, at a minimum, the defense fuel supply point (DFSP) inventory transaction documents and official records you store locally should consist of the current fiscal year documents plus documents from how many previous fiscal years? a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 5.

b. 2.

When maintaining Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) files, upon successful completion of end-of year closeout actions, how long should you retain the 12 monthly electronic backup disks as the fiscal year backup? a. 3 years. b. 3 years and 6 months. c. 6 years. d. 6 years and 3 months.

d. 6 years and 3 months.

When determining authorizations for sales to non-DOD aircraft, you know that “T” Department of Defense address activity codes (DODAAC) are assigned to non-DOD organizations by a. Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy). b. Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA). c. Defense Automatic Addressing System (DAASC). d. Major command (MAJCOM).

a. Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy).

While attempting to determine authorizations for sales to non-DOD aircraft, you are unable to verify an organization as a valid authorized customer after reviewing the customer validation listing. Who should your responsible officer/terminal manager (RO/TM) contact first for assistance? a. Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA). b. Business Systems Modernization–Energy (BSM–E) help desk. c. Parent major command (MAJCOM). d. Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) Operations Center.

b. Business Systems Modernization–Energy (BSM–E) help desk.

When encoding vehicle identification link (VIL) keys, how long should you maintain copies of a VIL key request in the defense fuel supply point (DSFP) document control file? a. 12 months. b. 24 months. c. 36 months. d. 48 months.

c. 36 months.

When encoding a vehicle identification link (VIL) key for a rental vehicle, what information should be entered in the vehicle identification field? a. The word “Rental”. b. The payment office DOD activity address code (DODAAC). c. The vehicle license plate number. d. The ORG code for the defense fuel supply point (DSFP) issuing the VIL key.

c. The vehicle license plate number.

Regarding vehicle clipboards, what is the color coding requirement for E85 Ethanol? a. Red clipboard with blue stripes. b. Yellow clipboard with blue stripes. c. Brown clipboard with green stripes. d. Green clipboard with yellow stripes.

a. Red clipboard with blue stripes.

Regarding vehicle clipboards, what is the color coding requirement for Jet A fuel? a. Red with yellow outer border clipboard with black stripes. b. Yellow clipboard with white stripes. c. Brown clipboard with white stripes. d. Red clipboard with blue stripes.

b. Yellow clipboard with white stripes.

Who is responsible for enforcing radio transmission discipline over the radio net? a. Fuels controller. b. Fuels information service center (FISC) superintendent. c. Fuels management team (FMT). d. All fuels personnel.

a. Fuels controller.

When performing fuels controller duties, in the event of an emergency, you must notify each element in the fuels management flight, the squadron commander and the a. group commander. b. wing commander. c. group command post. d. wing command post.

d. wing command post.

How often do you test a liquid oxygen (LOX) generating plant for odor and purity if a LOX production run will exceed 24 hours? a. Every 3 hours. b. Every 6 hours. c. Every 12 hours. d. Every 24 hours.

d. Every 24 hours.

How often do you sample cryotainers for purity, odor, and minor constituents? a. Every 30 days. b. Every 60 days. c. Every 90 days. d. Every 120 days.

c. Every 90 days.

How often should fuel correlation samples be submitted to the area laboratory to check the accuracy of tests performed at base level? a. Every 120 days. b. Every 90 days. c. Every 60 days. d. Every 30 days.

b. Every 90 days.

When shipping a fuel sample, what Supply Priority should be used for correlation samples? a. 01. b. 02. c. 03. d. 09.

d. 09.

Which recoverable and waste (R&W) petroleum product category covers motor crankcase oils and reciprocating aircraft engine oils? a. Category 1. b. Category 2. c. Category 3. d. Category 4.

c. Category 3.

The American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test is most accurate when the fuel temperature is near a. 30°F. b. 50°F. c. 60°F. d. 90°F.

c. 60°F.

What size graduated cylinder is used to perform the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test? a. 500 ml. b. 1,000 ml. c. 1,500 ml. d. 2,000 ml.

b. 1,000 ml.

Where is the correct place to take the reading for the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test? a. Horizontal plane surface of the liquid. b. Bottom of the hydrometer. c. Top of the hydrometer. d. Top of the cylinder.

a. Horizontal plane surface of the liquid.

What do you use to rinse new sample containers prior to use? a. Petroleum ether. b. Isopropyl alcohol. c. Filtered turbine fuel. d. Demineralized water.

c. Filtered turbine fuel.

When performing the bottle method test, the flow reducer ring is not used for testing what type of fuel? a. JP–8. b. JP–7. c. JP–5. d. JP–4.

c. JP–5.

To obtain meaningful results with the bottle method test, the vacuum must read in excess of how many inches of mercury? a. 20. b. 25. c. 27. d. 30.

a. 20.

What step must you take if a sample fails either color or particle assessment? a. Take an immediate recheck sample using a single filter monitor. b. Obtain a one quart sample and conduct a bottle method analysis. c. Take an immediate recheck sample using a matched weight monitor. d. Obtain a one gallon correlation sample and forward to the area laboratory.

c. Take an immediate recheck sample using a matched weight monitor.

What type of dye is used for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) detector pad? a. Sodium hydroscein. b. Sodium fluorescein. c. Sodium phosgene. d. Food coloring.

b. Sodium fluorescein.

How often are the printed standards for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) test replaced? a. Daily. b. Weekly. c. Semiannually. d. Annually.

d. Annually.

How often should the Aqua Glo water detector be calibrated? a. Daily. b. Weekly. c. Monthly. d. Semiannually.

a. Daily.

When performing a fiber test on fixed vessels, what action would be necessary if two successive samples exceed 10 fibers per quart? a. Resample. b. No action required. c. Filter elements must be cleaned. d. Filter elements must be replaced.

d. Filter elements must be replaced.

A conductivity probe is not required to be cleaned before use when the a. probe is new. b. meter can be zeroed. c. probe has been stored in a sealed container. d. calibration data has been stamped on the probe.

b. meter can be zeroed.

What type of container must not be used when performing conductivity tests? a. Glass. b. Metal. c. Plastic. d. Insulated.

c. Plastic.

What is the preferable time after obtaining a sample to take a conductivity reading? a. 1 minute. b. 2 minutes. c. 5 minutes. d. 10 minutes.

b. 2 minutes.

What is the maximum amount of time that can pass between the time a sample is obtained and the time a conductivity reading is taken? a. 1 hour. b. 6 hours. c. 12 hours. d. 24 hours.

d. 24 hours.

When should you calibrate a refractometer that is used for fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) tests? a. Prior to first use. b. Weekly, and prior to first use. c. Daily, or when changing test water. d. Monthly, or when changing test water.

c. Daily, or when changing test water.

When performing a fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) test, how long should you shake the fuel and water mixture in the separatory funnel? a. Until you get a good separation. b. 1 minute. c. 3 minutes. d. 5 minutes.

d. 5 minutes.

What is the normal range of use limits for fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) in turbine fuel? a. 0.05 to 0.07 percent. b. 0.05 to 0.10 percent. c. 0.04 to 0.10 percent. d. 0.04 to 0.20 percent.

d. 0.04 to 0.20 percent.

During a flash point test, apply heat to the sample so the temperature of the sample increases a. 1 to 3°F per minute. b. 4 to 6°F per minute. c. 9 to 11°F per minute. d. 12 to 14°F per minute.

c. 9 to 11°F per minute.

If your base has experienced cold weather problems or anticipates cold weather problems, you should perform a cloud point test on all DF–2 that is received during a. January through April. b. October through December. c. October through March. d. November through January.

c. October through March.

The temperature of the fuel in the aircraft tank normally decreases during flight depending on all of these factors except a. speed. b. altitude. c. aircraft type. d. flight duration.

c. aircraft type.

What American Society for Testing and Material (ASTM) methods are used to determine freeze point of aviation fuel? a. ASTM D2500 or ASTM D2572. b. ASTM D1250 or ASTM D1086. c. ASTM D2500 or ASTM D1250. d. ASTM D2386 or ASTM D5972.

d. ASTM D2386 or ASTM D5972.

When recording test results, which FuelsManager Defense (FMD) application would you use to track sampling dates and store sample results? a. Reports application. b. Dispatch application. c. Accounting application. d. Quality Control application.

d. Quality Control application.

When entering sample information in FuelsManager Defense (FMD), what information is automatically prefilled in the SAMPLE block? a. The type of sample taken. b. The next sequential sample number. c. The kind of sample equipment used. d. The amount of fuel obtained to perform the sample analysis.

b. The next sequential sample number.

When reviewing test results in the FuelsManager Defense Quality Control application, how are results not within parameters identified? a. Failed status. b. Red X status. c. Lockout status. d. Removed status.

a. Failed status.

When performing lockout and tagout procedures, what form would you use to temporarily identify a condition that could result in a mishap that would cause death, disability, or a lost workday mishap? a. AF Form 979, Danger Tag. b. AF Form 980, Caution Tag. c. AF Form 981, Out of Order Tag. d. AF Form 983, Equipment Lockout Tag.

a. AF Form 979, Danger Tag.

Who is responsible for administering the Caution Tag program? a. Fuels environmental safety office. b. NCOIC Fuels Laboratory. c. Fuels Information Service Center (FISC) superintendent. d. Fuels service center (FSC) personnel.

b. NCOIC Fuels Laboratory.

Who should maintain the keys to the Quality Control (QC) hold box? a. Fuels Information Service Center (FISC) superintendent. b. Laboratory personnel. c. Fuels Management Team. d. Fuels environmental safety office.

b. Laboratory personnel.

For a trend analysis, who defines what constitutes a negative trend and develops policies to isolate and correct them? a. Fuels environmental safety office. b. Fuels management team (FMT). c. Major command (MAJCOM). d. Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA).

b. Fuels management team (FMT).

Providing supply and equipment budget forecasts through the fuels management team (FMT) to the squadron commander is the responsibility of the a. Fuels Information Service Center (FISC) superintendent. b. Mobile refueling supervisor. c. Fuels operations superintendent. d. Fuels support.

d. Fuels support.

Maintaining a current listing of all personnel with special experience identifiers (SEI) is the responsibility of the a. fuels service center (FSC). b. fuels training supervisor. c. fuels mobility supervisor. d. fuels operations superintendent.

c. fuels mobility supervisor.

At least how many days before the due date must flight physicals and physiological training for Forward Area Refueling Point (FARP) and Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) trained personnel be scheduled? a. 14. b. 30. c. 45. d. 60.

c. 45.

Who is responsible for establishing a fuels mobility support element at locations storing or using mobility support equipment? a. Fuels operations superintendent. b. Fuels mobility supervisor. c. Fuels management team (FMT). d. Major command (MAJCOM).

c. Fuels management team (FMT).

What form should be completed for awarding skill levels when all upgrade training (UGT) requirements have been met? a. AF Form 623, Individual Training Record Folder. b. AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS. c. AF Form 1098, Special Task Certification and Recurring Training. d. AF Form 2096, Classification/On-the-Job Training Action.

d. AF Form 2096, Classification/On-the-Job Training Action.

The fuels training supervisor should review all training records a. annually. b. semiannually. c. quarterly. d. monthly.

b. semiannually.

Unit Questions Volume 2 Flashcards

(88 cards)