Unknown TKA Questions

Question 1

What are organizational process assets?

Answer 1

2 types:
• The PROCESSES, POLICIES AND PROCEDURES  (3Ps) 
– Templates 
– Preapproved supplier lists
– Process guides or project life cycles
– Change control procedures

• The CORPORATE KNOWLEDGE BASE :
– Lessons learned repository and historical information
– Financial data repositories

Question 2

Expert Judgement

Answer 2

Individual with competency & required knowledge in domain providing input/recommendation (e.g. SME, consultants, professional associations industry groups)

Question 3

What is the twofold purpose of the PMP® framework?

Answer 3

– Guide the team in its execution, monitoring, and control of the project
– Aid stakeholder understanding by communicating the teams’ intentions

Question 4

Analogous estimating is also know as?

Answer 4

aka Top Down or Comparative Estimating
Analogous estimating uses parameters from previous projects as the basis for estimating the same parameters on future work
• LEAST Accurate but Considered less expensive and time consuming
Relies on expert judgement

Question 5

What is the name of the process that produces the scope baseline?

Answer 5

Create WBS

Question 6

“What if this activity doesn’t finish on time? Should we increase the feeding buffer duration to compensate?” What modeling technique is this referring to?

Answer 6

Critical chain analysis ALWAYS LOOK FOR KEY WORD OF “feeding buffer duration”

Question 7

What does SIPOC stands for

Answer 7

c) Suppliers, inputs, process, outputs, customers

Question 8

In which theory of motivation would you find hygiene factors?

Answer 8

c) Herzberg’s Theory Of Motivation

Think H = Hygiene = Herzberg

Question 9

Channels of communication formula

Answer 9

Channels = (n ( n-1 )) / 2

Question 10

Which of the following is NOT part of the Scope Baseline?

a) Scope Statement
b) Requirements
c) WBS
d) WBS Dictionary

Answer 10

b) Requirements

Question 11

Which type of reserve is included in the Cost Baseline?

a) Management Reserve
b) Cost Reserve
c) Contingency Reserve
d) Budget Reserve

Answer 11

c) Contingency Reserve

NOTE MANAGEMENT RESERVE NEVER IN COST BASELINE

Question 12

Three-Point Estimating

Answer 12

μ = (o + 4m + p)/6 (used on the PMP® Exam)
• m – most likely. The time required to complete an activity under normal circumstances
• o – optimistic. The best case scenario estimate of the activity
• p – pessimistic. The worst case scenario estimate of the activity

concept originated with the program evaluation and review technique (PERT).

Question 13

3 work performance terms in the correct order

Answer 13

Data - Information - Reports

Question 14

Name an input to Direct and Manage Project Work that has not yet been an output.

Answer 14

Approved Change Requests

Question 15

Tuckman’s Ladder the stages of team development

Answer 15

Forming – Storming – Norming – Performing (Adjourning)

Question 16

ROM v Preliminary v Budget v Definitive

Answer 16

Rough Order of Magnitude (ROM) Estimate: within the range of -25% to +75%
Preliminary estimate: within the range of -15% to +50%
Budget estimate: within the range of -10% to +25%
Definitive Estimate: within the range of -5% to +10%
Final estimate: 100% accurate

Question 17

Enhance vs Exploit

Answer 17

Enhance: taking measures/actions to INCREASE PROBABILITY of occurrence

Exploit: taking any possible actions to MAKE SURE the opportunities will be realized

Question 18

Contingency Plan V Fallback Plan

Answer 18

Contingency Plan: a contingency plan is developed to be taken ONLY WHEN accepted risk event occurs

Fallback Plan: to be taken AFTER the Contingency Plan (to deal with risks if the primary planned risk response is not effective)

Note: the costs dealing with identified risks are included in the contingency reserve

Question 19

Unknown unknowns treated how?

Answer 19

Workaround: the immediate risk response strategies for UNIDENTIFIED or passively accepted risks occur in order to contain the damages against the project plan

Note: the costs dealing with unidentified risks are included in the management reserve

Question 20

Budget for accepted risks vs budget for unknown?

Answer 20

Note: the costs dealing with identified risks are included in the contingency reserve

Note: the costs dealing with unidentified risks are included in the management reserve

Question 21

Nominal Group Technique vs Brainstorming

Answer 21

Nominal Group Technique: brainstorming + group ranking / prioritization
Brainstorming: generating as many ideas as possible in a safe environment WITHOUT JUDGEMENT from others

Question 22

Project Requirements v Project Scope

Answer 22

Project Requirements are the expectations/ capabilities that the project needs to address.
Project Scope =detailed activity list. lists out all the work that need to be done in order to deliver capabilities to fulfil the user requirements.

Question 23

Project Statement of Work vs Project Charter:

Answer 23

Project Statement of Work (SOW) includes the business need and the overview of the qualities/characteristics of deliverables;

Project Charter is the document created based on the Project Statement of Work to AUTHORIZE the Project Manager to kick off the project and spend the budget.

Question 24

Responsible V Accountable

Answer 24

Responsible: task workers, person(s) assigned is/are the ones to carry out and finish the task (can be more than one)

Accountable: only ONE, Accountability CANNOT be shared, The accountable person is tasked with the management responsibility, answerable for the results and actions taken

Question 25

Create WBS v Decomposition

Answer 25

Create WBS is a PROCESS for Project Scope Management. Aim: to provide a hierarchical / organization chart for better depiction of project scope for activities, costs, quality, risks, etc. identification, estimation and control. “Decomposition” is a TOOL used in both project scope and time management. (e.g. break down the Work Packages) into Activities and Tasks.)

Question 26

PV EV AC

Answer 26

``` Planned Value (PV) — how much work was scheduled to date Earned Value (EV) — how much work was completed to date Actual Cost (AC) — the amount of money spent so far ```

Question 27

BAC EAC ETC

Answer 27

Budget at Completion (BAC) — the total budget for the project Estimate at Completion (EAC) — the estimated total amount of money needed to be put into the project based on the information available as today Estimate to Completion (ETC) — how much more do we need to put into the project to complete it

Question 28

VAC TCPI

Answer 28

Variance at Completion (VAC) — the difference between the estimated total cost and the original budget To Complete Performance Index (TCPI) — the efficiency needed to finish the project on budget, it is the ratio between budgeted cost of work remaining and money remaining

Question 29

CPI SPI

Answer 29

Cost Performance Index (CPI) — ratio between EV and AC, to reflect whether the project work is under / on / over budget in relative terms Schedule Performance Index (SPI) — ratio between EV and PV, to reflect whether the project work is ahead of / on / behind schedule in relative terms

Question 30

To-Complete Performance Index (TCPI)

Answer 30

TCPI = Remaining Work /Remaining Funds TCPI = (BAC – EV) / (BAC – AC)

Question 31

If we believe the original conditions and assumptions are wrong

Answer 31

EAC = AC + New Estimate

Question 32

EAC Default : If we believe the project will continue to spend at the same rate up to now (e.g. the delay is caused by reasons which is likely to continue)

Answer 32

EAC = BAC/CPI

Question 33

EAC one off deviation e.g. Delays caused by hurricane

Answer 33

EAC = AC + (BAC-EV)

Question 34

When both CPI & SPI less than 100% : both current cost and current schedule performance will impact future cost performance

Answer 34

EAC = AC + [(BAC-EV)/(SPI*CPI)]

Question 35

Where can you find the acceptance criteria?

Answer 35

The WBS Dictionary

Question 36

What are business documents and when are they created?

Answer 36

Business case and Benefits Management Plan: Created during Identify Stakeholders Pre-project work

Question 37

``` You are in charge of a project, and to ensure things go well, you have had monthly meetings with the stakeholders. The project is running on schedule and budget. You are in your fourth month of execution, but the stakeholder indicates dissatisfaction with the deliverables. Making changes in the deliverables would mean a delay in the schedule. What would have been the most important process that could have prevented this situation? A) Scope Planning B) Scope Control C) Schedule Control D) Risk Monitoring and Control ```

Answer 37

Scope Planning Project deliverables are defined during scope planning, so proper implementation of this process could have prevented this situation.

Question 38

You are managing a project that has teams located in different parts of the world. the team structure or locations cannot be changed. Being an experienced manager, you realize that lack of a proper communication channel can quickly lead to chaos. What would your choice of communication be? Formal and Verbal Formal and Written Informal and Written Informal and Verbal

Answer 38

Formal and Written Explanations: Considering cross-located teams and difference in cultures, the best choice of communication in this case would be formal and written.

Question 39

What kind of an Organizational structure ? team member gets different instructions coming in from you as well as the project manager. Functional Projectized Weak Matrix Balanced Matrix

Answer 39

Balanced Matrix Explanations: Here the team member is being expected to follow instructions from both the Project Manager and the Functional Manager. This is never the case in a Functional or Projectized organization where the lines of authority are clearly defined. A weak matrix organization is more like a Functional Organization where the project manager has almost no authority. The scenario explained above is typical of a balanced matrix organization where power resides equally distributed between the functional and project manager.

Question 40

15. The release criteria include: - The timing of the release of team members - The method in which you will release them - Both of the above are true - None

Answer 40

Both of the above are true Explanations: The release criteria include both the timing of the release of team members and the method in which you will release them.

Question 41

You are the project manager for a project. You are updating the WBS during Define Activities. This process is often called ________. - Refinements - Updates - Activities - Supporting detail

Answer 41

Refinements Explanations: Updating the WBS during Define Activities is often called Refinements. It occurs with riskier projects.

Question 42

``` Which contracts has the highest risk for the seller? Cost plus fixed fee - CPFF Time and Material - T and M Firm Fixed Price Contract - FFP Cost plus Incentive fee – CPIF ```

Answer 42

The riskiest for the seller among the options stated is Firm Fixed Price Contract, FFP in which total costs are fixed. The scope of work is clearly defined and stated. Cost-reimbursable contracts are the least risky for the seller since the costs are not fixed and paid at actuals. Time and material have medium risk from the perspective of the buyer and seller and are typically used for smaller dollar amounts.

Question 43

What is the purpose of a fishbone diagram?

Answer 43

Illustrates how various factors might be linked to potential problems or effects (e.g. Cancelled subscription: Users, Software, System - credit card expiration?

Question 44

8 month project, in 5th month with 4 month work remaining. Project is at the POINT OF TOTAL ASSUMPTION What does this mean?" A) As a seller, you are running behind schedule C) The project is going to have a cost overrun which will need to be negotiated with client D) As a seller, all subsequent costs will have to be borne by you

Answer 44

As a seller, all subsequent costs will have to be borne by you The point of total assumption (PTA) is a point where cost overruns will cause a dollar for dollar decrease in profit for the seller. Hence, any subsequent cost will have to be borne by your company.

Question 45

8 month project, in 5th month with 4 month work remaining. Project is at the POINT OF TOTAL ASSUMPTION What does this mean?" A) As a seller, you are running behind schedule B) As a seller, you are ahead of schedule D) As a seller, all subsequent costs will have to be borne by you

Answer 45

As a seller, all subsequent costs will have to be borne by you The point of total assumption (PTA) is a point where cost overruns will cause a dollar for dollar decrease in profit for the seller. Hence, any subsequent cost will have to be borne by your company.

Question 46

When change analysis done?

Answer 46

Any change first analyzed for its impact on the constraints—scope, cost, and schedule—and then submitted to change control for approval. Changes without formal approval should not be implemented.

Question 47

Avoid v Mitigate

Answer 47

You have avoided the risk. By interchanging the tasks, you have ensured that the resource who could go on a long vacation does not work on critical path activities. This is not a case of risk mitigation since you have neither created a backup plan nor come up with an alternate strategy.

Question 48

Project Closure?

Answer 48

- Ensuring all the deliverables meet contract requirements - Creating lessons learned and updating Organizational Process Assets - Final acceptance

Question 49

Verifying scope

Answer 49

Scope verification is performed not only while a project is being executed but it is also performed when a project is terminated. It is used to determine the level of completion.

Question 50

WBS Dictionary attributes

Answer 50

Work Package ID, Control Account ID, Work Package Description, Acceptance Criteria, Responsible Organization, Cost, Assumptions

Question 51

Risk prioritization occurs in Quantitative Risk Analysis. True or False?

Answer 51

FALSE Quantitative Risk analysis does not deal with prioritizing risks. The prioritization occurs in the Qualitative Risk Analysis process. Quantitative Risk Analysis deals with assigning numeric values to risks.

Question 52

WBS Dictionary attributes

Answer 52

Work Package ID, Control Account ID, Work Package Description, Acceptance Criteria, Responsible Organization, Cost, Assumptions (detailed information for each work package such as Statement of work, details of the work package, and who will be the responsible individual for the work package.)

Question 53

Delphi Technique

Answer 53

form of information gathering technique where inputs from experts is solicited anonymously without gathering them together. (e.g. anonymous questionnaires) multiple rounds of questionnaires sent to a panel of experts. Several rounds of questionnaires are sent out to the group of experts, and the anonymous responses are aggregated and shared with the group after each round.

Question 54

Fast track vs Crashing

Answer 54

Crashing deals with adding additional resources Fast Tracking: performing activities in parallel if they can be overlapped.(schedule compression technique)

Question 55

ISO

Answer 55

International Organization for Standardization.

Question 56

Your project activity float is negative 10. What is your course of action?

Answer 56

Add more resources Negative activity float indicates your project is behind schedule. Adding more resource is the best option.

Question 57

Parametric Estimating

Answer 57

Parametric estimation uses the relationship between variables to determine cost or duration. It calculates the cost or duration of the unit and also determines the number of units required.

Question 58

What is a special cause?

Answer 58

A data point in a control chart that requires investigation is called a special cause.

Question 59

3 project contraints +3

Answer 59

Six competing project constraints are scope, schedule, cost, AND quality, resources and risk.

Question 60

Project Scope Statement

Answer 60

The project scope statement provides the product description, acceptance criteria, key deliverables, project boundaries, assumptions, and constraints about the project.

Question 61

Management vs Leadership

Answer 61

Management is related to DIRECTING another person to get from one point to another. Leadership is about working with others in order to GUIDE them from one point to another.

Question 62

Overall change control is primarily concerned with

Answer 62

Overall change control is primarily concerned with: a. Influencing factors that cause change, determining that change has occurred, and managing actual changes as they occur

Question 63

Which of the following statements about the scope statement is true?

Answer 63

"Includes a description of project assumptions and constraints, "Describes how the WBS will be structured," is a brief but good description of the Scope ManagementPlan.

Question 64

WBS and the WBS Dictionary, respectively

Answer 64

"Includes a graphical representation of the scope of work to be performed on the project," and c., "Describes the attributes associated with each Work Package of the WBS,"

Question 65

What process produces two management plans as major outputs, both of which will be included in the project management plan.

Answer 65

The Plan Scope Management process produces the Scope Management Plan and the Requirements Management Plan, both of which are subsidiary documents included in the Project Management Plan.

Question 66

Total Float v Free Float

Answer 66

Total Float is float that can be used WITHOUT impacting PROJECTS's finish date, and Free Float is float that can be used without affecting the next ACTIVITY'S start date.

Question 67

activity-on-node diagram - type of precedence diagram

Answer 67

C ^ | Begin--> A --> B --> D

Question 68

If your Earned Value (EV) is greater than your Actual Costs (AC), you are

Answer 68

achieving more value in return for comparatively less money spent. e.g. $100,000 (your AC) but EV is $180,000. Employing the CPI calculation (CPI = EV/AC) results in an index of 1.8 - or, as stated in the problem, value at "1.8 times the rate you had planned."

Question 69

The plan-do-check-act (PDCA) cycle is associated with—

Answer 69

The P-D-C-A (Plan-Do-Check-Act) cycle is the basis for quality improvement as defined by Shewhart and modified by Deming."

Question 70

10. Which of the following replicates the Juran Trilogy?

Answer 70

Quality Planning; Quality Control; Quality Improvement.

Question 71

Kaizen is an approach to continuous improvement that emphasizes-

Answer 71

a. Incremental improvement: Continuous Improvement. Kaizen: small, incremental, ongoing Quality improvements more effective than large disruptive changes. Workers and management responsible for finding ways to improve quality.

Question 72

Project Coordinator. v | Project Expeditor.

Answer 72

Project Coordinator. Holds less authority than a PM. Can commit resources but no spending authorisation. Project Expeditor. Cannot commit resources or authorize spending but tasked to report progress.

Question 73

Crosby’s Four Absolutes of Quality

Answer 73

Conformance to Requirements; Quality comes from Prevention; Aim is Zero Defects; The Cost of Quality can be measured.

Question 74

6. The three key components of the human resource management plan are:

Answer 74

c. Roles and responsibilities, project organization charts, and a staffing management plan

Question 75

Of the various types of power that might be employed by project managers, PMI recommends that ------- power be used as much as possible.

Answer 75

a. Reward and expert

Question 76

Risk Management processes are: | Planning, identifying, analyzing, response planning, and controlling."

Answer 76

``` Plan Risk Management, Identify Risks, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis, Plan Risk Responses, Implement Risk Responses and Monitor Risks ```

Question 77

In a Cost Plus Fixed Fee Agreement the fee is based on the actual OR the original estimated price?

Answer 77

In a Cost Plus Fixed Fee Agreement the fee is based on the ORIGINAL estimated price.

Question 78

____ is an iterative process that should be reviewed regularly by the Project Manager over the life of the project.

Answer 78

a. Plan Stakeholder Management

Question 79

Does the project charter define or create a project budget?

Answer 79

No. While Charter execution does commit the company to financially back the project, it does not define or create a project budget The Charter includes a., Project Start and boundaries, b., it creates a formal record of the project, and d., It formalizes the acceptance and commitment of Senior Management to the success of the project.

Question 80

Of the following items listed, which is a tools and techniques group? Data gathering Communication skills Interpersonal and team skills All of the above are tools and techniques groups

Answer 80

All of the above are tools and techniques groups

Question 81

Output of Control Communications process? Output of Manage Communications?

Answer 81

“Organizational Process Assets Updates” is the only Output of Control Communications “Project Communications,” is an Output of Manage Communications, not Control Communications.

Question 82

Constrained optimization used in Conduct Procurement

Answer 82

True

Question 83

What type of project selection technique is Peer Review?"

Answer 83

"Benefit Measurement Method."

Question 84

130. Which of the following is NOT a Control Quality process tool/technique? a. Quality audit b. Control charts c. Cause and effect diagrams d. Inspection

Answer 84

130. Answer a. (Not) Quality Audit: Remember Audits are typically used for Process Assurance; Control Quality is all about demonstrating its correctness has been met

Question 85

Lead v Lag

Answer 85

Lead: head start (E.g. warming up machine) or: the amount of time that “a successor activity can be advanced with respect to a predecessor activity.” Lag: delay. Wait time for concrete to set

Question 86

Which of the following facilitates the pricing of a project by a structured decomposition of the total effort into individual activities and by defining cost elements of labor, material, and equipment?

Answer 86

c. WBS The key advantage is that it becomes a visible, graphical hierarchical structure that 'facilitates the pricing' as it is all inclusive.

Question 87

Which process uses rolling wave planning as a tool/technique?

Answer 87

a. Define activities

Question 88

Power/Influence Model

Answer 88

Power/Influence Model High / High: “Champions” “powerful people who actively support the project.” "Blockers," are "powerful people who will actively resist the project”; answer “Supporters,” are “people with little power who are in favor of the project”; and answer option d., “Detractors,” are “people with little power who are against the project.” Only

Question 89

Attribute sampling vs variable sampling

Answer 89

Attribute sampling measures on a pass/fail basis; Variable sampling measures the quality on a continuous scale.

Question 90

13. Which of the following is not a part of the data gathering tools used in Control Quality process? Control Chart Check sheets Checklists Statistical sampling

Answer 90

Control chart: is a monitoring tool, while the rest of the choices are valid data gathering tools used during Control Quality process.

Question 91

``` Which of the following processes produces a work breakdown structure as an output? Create WBS Define Scope Develop Project Management Plan Define Activities Define Scope ```

Answer 91

The Create WBS process produces the work breakdown structure of the project as an output. [PMBOK® Guide 6th edition, Page 161]