Untitled Deck Flashcards
(197 cards)
1
Q
Which neurotransmitter is most closely associated with depression?
A
C. Serotonin
2
Q
A patient with schizophrenia is experiencing extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS). Which class of medication is most likely responsible?
A
C. First-generation antipsychotics
3
Q
What is the black box warning for SSRIs in pediatric patients?
A
C. Increased risk of suicidal thoughts
4
Q
Which lab value must be monitored regularly in patients taking lithium?
A
D. All of the above
5
Q
Which symptom is most specific to mania?
A
B. Grandiosity
6
Q
A PMHNP is evaluating a 9-year-old for ADHD. Which tool is most appropriate for assessment?
A
C. Vanderbilt Assessment Scale
7
Q
What is the mechanism of action of SSRIs?
A
C. Inhibit reuptake of serotonin
8
Q
Which neurotransmitter is deficient in Parkinson’s disease?
A
A. Dopamine
9
Q
What is the first-line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?
A
B. SSRI or SNRI
10
Q
Which condition is characterized by alternating periods of depression and hypomania?
A
B. Bipolar II
11
Q
What is the most important step before prescribing stimulants in a child with ADHD?
A
B. Family history of bipolar disorder
12
Q
A child with an autism spectrum disorder has repetitive behaviors. Which medication may reduce these behaviors?
A
A. Risperidone
13
Q
What is the primary neurotransmitter involved in anxiety?
A
B. GABA
14
Q
A 75-year-old patient on amitriptyline is confused and agitated. What is the likely cause?
A
B. Delirium from anticholinergic toxicity
15
Q
What does the Tarasoff rule mandate?
A
C. Warn potential victims of violence
16
Q
Which antipsychotic has the highest risk of agranulocytosis?
A
C. Clozapine
17
Q
What is the most appropriate initial intervention for PTSD in a veteran?
A
B. Prolonged exposure therapy
18
Q
Which mood stabilizer is also an anticonvulsant and safe in liver disease?
A
C. Lamotrigine
19
Q
In motivational interviewing, which technique is used to explore ambivalence?
A
B. Reflection
20
Q
What lab should be monitored with valproic acid?
A
D. A and B
21
Q
Which therapy focuses on changing distorted thoughts and beliefs?
A
B. CBT
22
Q
What is the role of the PMHNP under the ANA scope of practice?
A
A. Diagnose, treat, and prescribe independently
23
Q
Which neurotransmitter imbalance is linked with Tourette’s disorder?
A
A. ↑ Dopamine
24
Q
Which medication has the lowest risk of metabolic syndrome?
A
B. Aripiprazole
25
What is the legal term for a patient’s right to make decisions?
B. Autonomy
26
A patient with bipolar I disorder presents with acute mania and psychotic features. Which medication regimen is most appropriate initially?
B. Lithium and olanzapine
27
A PMHNP is managing a child with ADHD who develops tics on methylphenidate. What is the next best step?
B. Switch to atomoxetine
28
A patient is experiencing serotonin syndrome. What triad of symptoms is most consistent?
B. Agitation, hyperreflexia, diarrhea
29
In assessing a patient with suspected dementia, which finding supports the diagnosis of Alzheimer’s disease over vascular dementia?
C. Gradual memory impairment without focal deficits
30
What is the first-line intervention for borderline personality disorder?
C. Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT)
31
A patient with schizophrenia is treated with risperidone and develops gynecomastia. What is the mechanism?
C. Increased prolactin from D2 receptor blockade
32
A patient on lithium has a lithium level of 2.0 mEq/L with tremors and confusion. What is the correct action?
B. Give IV fluids and consider dialysis
33
In a child with autism, which neurotransmitter dysregulation is most commonly observed?
A. ↑ Serotonin
34
What distinguishes delirium from dementia?
B. Sudden onset and fluctuating consciousness
35
A patient presents with a fear of gaining weight and has a BMI of 16. What is the diagnosis?
C. Anorexia nervosa
36
A patient with PTSD is experiencing nightmares. Which medication may help specifically for this symptom?
B. Prazosin
37
Which of the following is most consistent with the diagnosis of Rett syndrome?
C. Deceleration of head growth, hand-wringing in a girl
38
Which neurotransmitter imbalance contributes to Alzheimer’s disease?
A. ↓ Acetylcholine
39
In a suicidal adolescent, what is the most appropriate initial intervention?
C. Immediate psychiatric hospitalization
40
What is the most appropriate treatment for delirium tremens?
B. Lorazepam
41
Which symptom cluster is most indicative of PTSD?
B. Flashbacks, hypervigilance, and avoidance
42
A patient with schizophrenia has persistent negative symptoms. Which medication may be most effective?
B. Clozapine
43
What clinical tool is most appropriate to assess cognitive function in a patient with suspected dementia?
B. MMSE
44
What is the primary mechanism of action of benzodiazepines?
C. Enhance GABA-A receptor activity
45
Which finding is most consistent with Tourette’s disorder?
B. Sudden vocal and motor tics for over 1 year
46
Which mood stabilizer has the greatest risk for Stevens-Johnson syndrome?
C. Lamotrigine
47
A patient with Alzheimer’s is started on donepezil. What is the mechanism of action?
C. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
48
What neurotransmitter imbalance contributes to psychosis in Parkinson’s disease?
B. Dopamine excess in mesolimbic pathway
49
What is a key ethical principle violated if the PMHNP discloses a patient’s diagnosis to family without consent?
A. Autonomy
50
In cultural assessment, what is the purpose of the DSM-5 Cultural Formulation Interview (CFI)?
B. Provide a structured cultural diagnostic interview
51
According to DSM-5, which feature must be present for a diagnosis of schizophrenia?
C. Delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech must be present
52
Which of the following is required for the DSM-5 diagnosis of major depressive disorder (MDD)?
C. Symptoms lasting ≥2 weeks causing impairment
53
A 9-year-old presents with 6 months of angry mood, argumentative behavior, and vindictiveness. What DSM-5 diagnosis is most likely?
C. Oppositional defiant disorder
54
In DSM-5, what distinguishes bipolar I from bipolar II disorder?
B. Full manic episode in bipolar I
55
What is the DSM-5 diagnosis for a child with frequent temper outbursts and irritable mood for over 12 months?
B. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder
56
What DSM-5 personality disorder is characterized by mood swings, unstable relationships, self-harm, and intense fear of abandonment?
C. Borderline
57
What is the DSM-5 diagnosis for a person hearing voices and experiencing disorganized thinking for 2 months but maintaining social functioning?
C. Schizophreniform disorder
58
What is required for a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) in DSM-5?
C. Excessive worry more days than not for at least 6 months
59
What defines panic disorder in DSM-5?
B. Recurrent unexpected panic attacks with persistent concern about additional attacks for at least 1 month
60
What distinguishes anorexia nervosa binge-eating/purging type from bulimia nervosa?
B. Significantly low body weight
61
What is the DSM-5 diagnosis for sadness, fatigue, guilt, and weight loss lasting 10 days?
D. No diagnosis—does not meet 2-week threshold
62
Which symptom is NOT part of DSM-5 PTSD criteria?
C. Grandiosity
63
What differentiates obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) from obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD)?
C. OCPD involves ego-syntonic behaviors
64
What is required to diagnose PTSD in DSM-5?
B. Witnessing trauma directly or indirectly
65
What is the most likely DSM-5 diagnosis for a 10-year-old with poor impulse control, aggression, and deceitfulness for over 1 year?
B. Conduct disorder
66
Which symptom is part of the negative symptom cluster in schizophrenia?
B. Flat affect
67
What is the key feature of persistent complex bereavement disorder?
C. Intense yearning and sorrow for the deceased lasting over 12 months
68
How does DSM-5 define binge-eating disorder?
B. Recurrent binge eating without compensatory behaviors
69
What is the DSM-5 diagnosis for a 6-year-old with communication delay, poor eye contact, and restricted repetitive behavior?
C. Autism spectrum disorder
70
What is the minimum number of symptoms needed to diagnose ADHD in children?
B. 6
71
What diagnosis fits a 35-year-old with daily alcohol use despite social, legal, and occupational impairment?
C. Alcohol use disorder
72
What is the most likely DSM-5 specifier for schizophrenia in a patient with waxy flexibility, mutism, and negativism?
B. Catatonic features
73
What is required for the diagnosis of delusional disorder in DSM-5?
B. Non-bizarre delusions for at least 1 month
74
How does DSM-5 define personality disorders?
C. Deviate markedly from the expectations of one’s culture
75
Which cluster of personality disorders includes antisocial, borderline, and histrionic disorders?
B. Cluster B
76
What type of delusion involves believing the TV is sending messages?
B. Referential
77
What is the DSM-5 diagnosis for a person who repeatedly touches objects in a certain order to prevent harm?
B. OCD
78
What is the duration of symptoms required for brief psychotic disorder in DSM-5?
B. At least 1 day but less than 1 month
79
What distinguishes social anxiety disorder from avoidant personality disorder?
B. Avoidant personality disorder involves broader social inhibition across contexts
80
What stage of the Transtheoretical Model of Change is characterized by no intention to change behavior in the foreseeable future?
C. Precontemplation
81
What stage of change is indicated by a client saying, 'Maybe I do have a problem with drinking, but I’m not sure'?
B. Contemplation
82
What best describes motivational interviewing?
C. Client-centered approach that enhances intrinsic motivation to change
83
What stage of change is associated with disulfiram use?
Preparation or Action
## Footnote
Disulfiram is most appropriate for patients who are ready to make changes in their substance use.
84
Which counseling strategy enhances intrinsic motivation to change?
Client-centered approach that enhances intrinsic motivation to change
## Footnote
This defines motivational interviewing.
85
What is the principle of 'rolling with resistance' in motivational interviewing?
You're not ready to stop yet, and that's okay.
## Footnote
This response acknowledges the client's current state without confrontation.
86
What is the main focus of recovery-oriented care?
Functionality and self-directed life
## Footnote
This approach emphasizes the individual's ability to lead their own recovery process.
87
What core principle underlies the recovery model?
Hope, empowerment, and personal responsibility
## Footnote
These elements are essential for fostering recovery.
88
What is the main goal of shared decision-making in recovery-oriented care?
Collaboratively developing care goals
## Footnote
This process involves both the clinician and the patient in treatment planning.
89
What reaction occurs when a patient on disulfiram consumes alcohol?
Disulfiram-ethanol reaction
## Footnote
This reaction can cause flushing, headache, nausea, and palpitations.
90
Before prescribing disulfiram, which lab should be checked?
LFTs
## Footnote
Liver function tests are important to assess before starting disulfiram.
91
How long should a patient wait after their last drink before starting disulfiram?
24 hours
## Footnote
This waiting period is crucial to avoid adverse reactions.
92
What should patients be educated to avoid while on disulfiram?
Cold medicines and mouthwash with alcohol
## Footnote
These products can trigger a disulfiram-ethanol reaction.
93
Which symptom is included in the CIWA-Ar scale?
Tactile disturbances
## Footnote
This scale assesses withdrawal symptoms in alcohol detoxification.
94
What does a CIWA-Ar score of 8 indicate?
Mild withdrawal
## Footnote
This score reflects the severity of withdrawal symptoms.
95
Which CIWA score requires medication intervention?
>15
## Footnote
Scores above 15 indicate severe withdrawal symptoms needing treatment.
96
What is a common first-line medication for CIWA-based alcohol detoxification?
Diazepam or lorazepam
## Footnote
These benzodiazepines are frequently used for managing alcohol withdrawal.
97
Which withdrawal scale best guides opioid detox treatment decisions?
COWS
## Footnote
The Clinical Opiate Withdrawal Scale is specifically designed for opioid withdrawal.
98
What is a key feature of CBT for depression?
Behavioral activation
## Footnote
This strategy encourages patients to engage in activities to improve mood.
99
Which psychotherapy has the strongest empirical support for treating PTSD?
EMDR
## Footnote
Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing is highly effective for PTSD.
100
What is a contraindication to prescribing Clozapine?
Agranulocytosis
## Footnote
This condition poses a significant risk when using Clozapine.
101
What black box warning is associated with Clozapine?
Severe neutropenia
## Footnote
Monitoring white blood cell counts is critical due to this risk.
102
What medication can increase serum Depakote levels?
Aspirin
## Footnote
This interaction necessitates careful monitoring of serum levels.
103
What is the therapeutic serum level for Depakote in bipolar disorder?
50–125 mcg/mL
## Footnote
Maintaining levels within this range is essential for efficacy and safety.
104
Which medication carries the risk of Stevens-Johnson syndrome?
Lamotrigine
## Footnote
This severe skin reaction can occur, especially with rapid titration.
105
What is the primary goal of DBT?
Accept themselves while working toward change
## Footnote
This therapy emphasizes self-acceptance alongside behavioral change.
106
What therapy focuses on changing patterns within the family system?
Family Systems Therapy
## Footnote
This approach addresses individual issues as products of family dynamics.
107
What is the atypical feature of Bupropion (Wellbutrin) compared to other antidepressants?
Seizure threshold lowering
## Footnote
Bupropion is known for its unique profile of side effects, including a potential decrease in seizure threshold.
108
Bupropion should be avoided in patients with which condition?
Anorexia or bulimia
## Footnote
Bupropion is contraindicated in these conditions due to the risk of seizures.
109
Adderall is a combination of which substances?
Dextroamphetamine and amphetamine salts
## Footnote
Adderall is commonly prescribed for ADHD and narcolepsy.
110
What is the most common cardiovascular side effect of Adderall in adolescents?
Hypertension and tachycardia
## Footnote
These effects can be monitored during treatment.
111
Which tool is used to assess suicide risk in adolescents?
Columbia-Suicide Severity Rating Scale (C-SSRS)
## Footnote
The C-SSRS is widely used in clinical settings for risk assessment.
112
Which screening tool is most appropriate for diagnosing Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) in adults?
PHQ-9
## Footnote
The PHQ-9 is a standardized questionnaire for depression.
113
What tool is used to assess anxiety severity?
GAD-7
## Footnote
The GAD-7 is specifically designed for generalized anxiety disorder.
114
Which tool screens for cognitive impairment in older adults?
MMSE
## Footnote
The Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) is commonly used to evaluate cognitive function.
115
The CIWA-Ar scale is used to evaluate which condition?
Alcohol withdrawal symptoms
## Footnote
CIWA-Ar stands for Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment for Alcohol.
116
Which tool is best for assessing opioid withdrawal severity?
COWS (Clinical Opiate Withdrawal Scale)
## Footnote
COWS is widely used in clinical practice for opioid withdrawal assessment.
117
What is the purpose of the AIMS scale?
Screen for tardive dyskinesia
## Footnote
AIMS stands for Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale.
118
Which rating scale is used to assess severity of mania in children?
YMRS (Young Mania Rating Scale)
## Footnote
The YMRS is specifically designed for pediatric populations.
119
The SLUMS test is used to assess what?
Late-life cognitive function
## Footnote
The Saint Louis University Mental Status (SLUMS) examination evaluates cognitive decline.
120
What is the immediate legal responsibility of a provider when a 15-year-old discloses sexual abuse?
Contact child protective services
## Footnote
Reporting is mandatory to ensure the safety of the child.
121
Which condition is a mandatory reportable condition in all U.S. states?
Elder abuse
## Footnote
Legal obligations vary by state but elder abuse is universally reportable.
122
A forensic PMHNP may be called to testify to interpret what?
Psychiatric findings
## Footnote
This role involves providing expert opinions in legal cases.
123
Which ethical principle supports a patient's decision to refuse medication?
Autonomy
## Footnote
Autonomy emphasizes the right of patients to make informed decisions about their healthcare.
124
What action is most appropriate if a patient with schizophrenia refuses antipsychotic medication and is determined to lack capacity?
Obtain a court order for treatment
## Footnote
Legal intervention may be necessary to ensure treatment compliance.
125
Which ethical principle requires the PMHNP to do no harm?
Nonmaleficence
## Footnote
Nonmaleficence is a core principle in medical ethics.
126
What is the key difference between capacity and competency?
Competency is a legal term; capacity is clinical
## Footnote
This distinction is crucial in legal and clinical settings.
127
What is the first action when a 16-year-old discloses rape?
Notify law enforcement or child services
## Footnote
Immediate reporting is essential for legal and protective reasons.
128
What approach should a PMHNP take when assessing a patient from a culture that views mental illness as a spiritual imbalance?
Incorporate spiritual healing into the treatment plan as appropriate
## Footnote
Cultural competence is important in mental health treatment.
129
What does a p-value of 0.03 indicate in a study?
There is a 3% chance the results are due to random variation
## Footnote
This suggests statistical significance at the 0.05 level.
130
Which complementary therapy has the most evidence supporting its efficacy in treating mild to moderate depression?
St. John's Wort
## Footnote
This herbal supplement has been studied extensively for its antidepressant effects.
131
What is a legal document that allows a person to designate another individual to make healthcare decisions on their behalf?
Power of attorney
## Footnote
This document is crucial for healthcare decision-making in incapacitated individuals.
132
What is a primary consideration before proceeding with ECT for a patient with treatment-resistant depression?
Informed consent and medical evaluation
## Footnote
Ensuring the patient understands the procedure and its risks is essential.
133
Which condition is most commonly treated with ECT?
Schizophrenia
## Footnote
ECT can be effective for severe cases of schizophrenia, especially when other treatments fail.
134
What is the best approach when collaborating with a primary care provider for a patient with comorbid diabetes and depression?
Develop an integrated care plan addressing both conditions
## Footnote
Coordinated care improves outcomes in patients with multiple health issues.
135
Which statistical measure indicates the strength and direction of a linear relationship between two variables?
Correlation coefficient
## Footnote
This measure helps determine how closely two variables are related.
136
What is the PMHNP's best initial response to a patient interested in using herbal supplements for anxiety?
Discuss potential benefits and risks, including interactions with current medications
## Footnote
Patient education on herbal supplements is critical for safety.
137
What does a 95% confidence interval indicate in research?
There is a 95% chance the true value lies within the interval
## Footnote
This measure gives a range in which the population parameter is likely to fall.
138
Which complementary therapy involves the use of pressure points to promote relaxation and healing?
Reflexology
## Footnote
Reflexology is based on the belief that pressure points correspond to different body parts.
139
What is the next best treatment option for a patient with severe depression who is unresponsive to medication and psychotherapy?
Consider ECT
## Footnote
ECT is often indicated for treatment-resistant depression.
140
Which of the following is an example of a mind-body intervention?
Meditation
## Footnote
Mind-body interventions focus on the connection between mental and physical health.
141
What is the next best treatment option for a patient with severe depression who is not responding to psychotherapy?
C. Consider ECT
## Footnote
ECT stands for Electroconvulsive Therapy, often used when other treatments fail.
142
Which of the following is an example of a mind-body intervention?
C. Meditation
## Footnote
Mind-body interventions focus on the interactions between the mind and body.
143
What is the most appropriate approach for a patient from a culture that views mental illness as a spiritual imbalance?
C. Integrate cultural beliefs into the treatment plan as appropriate
## Footnote
Cultural competence in treatment is crucial for effective care.
144
Which document specifies a person's wishes regarding medical treatment in situations where they are unable to communicate?
C. Advance directive
## Footnote
Advance directives help guide medical decisions based on a patient's preferences.
145
What is the PMHNP's primary responsibility for a patient admitted involuntarily due to suicidal ideation?
A. Ensure the patient understands their rights
## Footnote
Patient rights must be clearly communicated, especially in involuntary situations.
146
Which therapy uses electronic monitoring to help patients gain control over physiological functions?
A. Biofeedback
## Footnote
Biofeedback helps patients learn to control bodily functions through feedback.
147
What is the primary benefit of a multidisciplinary team approach in treating schizophrenia?
B. Provides comprehensive care addressing multiple needs
## Footnote
Multidisciplinary care integrates various healthcare professionals for holistic treatment.
148
What is a common side effect of St. John's Wort?
B. Photosensitivity
## Footnote
St. John's Wort can increase sensitivity to sunlight.
149
What is the term for increased confusion at night in Alzheimer's disease?
B. Sundowning
## Footnote
Sundowning refers to increased confusion and agitation during the evening or night.
150
Which neurotransmitter is most significantly reduced in Alzheimer's disease?
C. Acetylcholine
## Footnote
Acetylcholine is crucial for memory and cognitive function.
151
Which brain region is likely damaged in a patient exhibiting aggression and poor impulse control after a TBI?
C. Frontal lobe
## Footnote
The frontal lobe is responsible for impulse control and aggression regulation.
152
What screening tool is used for mild traumatic brain injury?
C. Rivermead Post-Concussion Symptoms Questionnaire
## Footnote
This tool helps assess symptoms following a concussion.
153
What distinguishes PTSD from Acute Stress Disorder (ASD)?
D. Duration longer than 1 month
## Footnote
PTSD symptoms persist longer than those of ASD.
154
Which best defines re-experiencing symptoms in PTSD?
B. Nightmares and flashbacks
## Footnote
These symptoms are central to the diagnosis of PTSD.
155
Which medication is FDA-approved for PTSD?
C. Sertraline
## Footnote
Sertraline is an SSRI commonly prescribed for PTSD.
156
Prazosin is primarily used in PTSD to address:
C. Nightmares
## Footnote
Prazosin helps reduce the frequency of nightmares associated with PTSD.
157
What lab abnormality supports a diagnosis of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)?
B. Elevated creatine kinase (CK)
## Footnote
Elevated CK levels indicate muscle breakdown, common in NMS.
158
Which class of medication is most associated with serotonin syndrome?
B. SSRIs
## Footnote
Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors can lead to serotonin syndrome when overdosed.
159
What is the primary treatment for serotonin syndrome?
C. Discontinue serotonergic agents and provide supportive care
## Footnote
Immediate discontinuation of the causative agent is critical in management.
160
Parkinsonism in psychiatric patients is often caused by:
C. First-generation antipsychotics
## Footnote
These medications can induce parkinsonian symptoms as a side effect.
161
Which psychiatric symptom commonly occurs in Parkinson’s disease?
A. Hallucinations
## Footnote
Hallucinations can arise as a result of both the disease and its treatments.
162
What feature distinguishes dementia with Lewy bodies from Alzheimer’s disease?
B. Early hallucinations and parkinsonian symptoms
## Footnote
Early hallucinations are a key feature of Lewy body dementia.
163
What is first-line treatment for behavioral symptoms in dementia?
C. SSRI or non-pharmacologic interventions
## Footnote
Non-pharmacologic approaches are preferred for managing behavioral symptoms.
164
What is the next best step for a patient with sudden confusion and inattention?
B. Rule out delirium
## Footnote
Delirium must be excluded before attributing confusion to dementia.
165
What differentiates delirium from dementia?
C. Delirium has an acute onset and fluctuating course
## Footnote
Delirium presents differently than the gradual decline seen in dementia.
166
Which scale is commonly used to assess neurocognitive function in dementia?
B. MMSE
## Footnote
The Mini-Mental State Examination is widely used for cognitive assessment.
167
What treatment is used to slow cognitive decline in Alzheimer’s disease?
B. Donepezil
## Footnote
Donepezil is a cholinesterase inhibitor used in Alzheimer’s management.
168
What symptom is typically seen first in Alzheimer’s disease?
B. Loss of recent memory
## Footnote
Memory loss, particularly of recent events, is often the first sign.
169
What is a hallmark of PTSD in children?
B. Dissociation during play
## Footnote
Children may express PTSD symptoms differently than adults.
170
What is the primary brain structure associated with fear processing in PTSD?
B. Amygdala
## Footnote
The amygdala plays a critical role in processing fear and emotional responses.
171
Which cognitive domain is most likely to be impaired in a veteran with PTSD and TBI?
B. Memory
## Footnote
Memory impairment is common in both PTSD and traumatic brain injury.
172
What therapy is most effective for combat-related PTSD?
B. EMDR
## Footnote
Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing is effective for trauma treatment.
173
What is the best initial treatment for acute dystonia after haloperidol administration?
A. Diphenhydramine IM
## Footnote
Anticholinergics or antihistamines are effective for acute dystonia.
174
Which extrapyramidal symptom is characterized by inner restlessness and an urge to move?
A. Akathisia
## Footnote
Akathisia presents as a compelling need for movement.
175
What distinguishes tardive dyskinesia (TD) from other movement disorders?
C. It appears after long-term antipsychotic use
## Footnote
TD is a late-onset movement disorder associated with prolonged antipsychotic treatment.
176
Which medication is FDA-approved to treat tardive dyskinesia?
B. Valbenazine (Ingrezza)
## Footnote
Valbenazine is specifically approved for managing TD.
177
Akathisia is best managed with:
B. Propranolol or benzodiazepines
## Footnote
These medications can help alleviate the symptoms of akathisia.
178
Which movement disorder may mimic agitation or anxiety and is frequently misdiagnosed?
D. Akathisia
## Footnote
Akathisia can often be mistaken for anxiety due to its symptoms.
179
Which EPS is characterized by rhythmic, involuntary movements such as lip-smacking?
C. Tardive dyskinesia
## Footnote
TD presents with involuntary movements often affecting the face.
180
Tourette Syndrome is associated with which neurotransmitter imbalance?
B. Excess dopamine
## Footnote
Dopaminergic dysregulation is a key feature of Tourette's.
181
What is the first-line behavioral treatment for Tourette's Syndrome?
B. Habit reversal training (HRT)
## Footnote
HRT is effective in managing tics in Tourette's patients.
182
What is required for a DSM-5 diagnosis of Tourette’s Disorder?
C. Multiple motor tics and at least one vocal tic for 1 year
## Footnote
Tics must be persistent and meet specific criteria for diagnosis.
183
A child with stereotyped handwringing and regression likely has:
B. Rett Syndrome
## Footnote
Rett Syndrome is characterized by developmental regression and loss of motor skills.
184
Rett syndrome is most often caused by mutations in which gene?
A. MECP2
## Footnote
Mutations in the MECP2 gene are responsible for Rett syndrome.
185
What is a core deficit seen in Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)?
C. Impairment in social communication and restricted interests
## Footnote
These deficits are fundamental to the diagnosis of ASD.
186
Which tool is commonly used to screen for Autism in toddlers?
C. M-CHAT
## Footnote
The Modified Checklist for Autism in Toddlers is widely used for early screening.
187
Which therapy has the most evidence for early treatment in Autism Spectrum Disorder?
B. Applied Behavior Analysis (ABA)
## Footnote
ABA is a well-established approach for treating ASD.
188
Which is not a core diagnostic domain in Autism Spectrum Disorder?
C. Global developmental delay
## Footnote
While developmental delays may occur, they are not a core diagnostic criterion.
189
What type of hallucination may occur in Autism during high stress or sleep deprivation?
C. Hypnagogic
## Footnote
Hypnagogic hallucinations can occur during transitions to sleep.
190
Which condition is most likely to co-occur with Autism?
C. Intellectual disability
## Footnote
Many individuals with Autism also have varying degrees of intellectual disability.
191
What differentiates Rett Syndrome from Autism?
B. Regression after normal development
## Footnote
Regression in developmental milestones is a key feature of Rett Syndrome.
192
In Tourette Syndrome, the motor and vocal tics must:
C. Be present nearly every day for at least 12 months
## Footnote
This duration is necessary for a Tourette's diagnosis.
193
Which atypical antipsychotic is most commonly prescribed for severe tics?
A. Risperidone
## Footnote
Risperidone is frequently used to manage Tourette's tics.
194
Akathisia can be mistaken for which psychiatric symptom?
A. Anxiety
## Footnote
Symptoms of akathisia often resemble anxiety disorders.
195
The AIMS scale is used to screen for:
C. Tardive dyskinesia
## Footnote
The Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale specifically assesses for TD.
196
In Autism, repetitive speech or phrases is known as:
C. Echolalia
## Footnote
Echolalia is a common feature in individuals with Autism.
197
Rett Syndrome is most likely to appear at what age range?
B. 6–18 months
## Footnote
Symptoms of Rett Syndrome typically manifest in early childhood.
