URE Questions Flashcards by Vaughn Johnson

In 2009, intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) forces wer broken away from Air Force Space Command with the standup of

A. 20th Air Force.
B. 24th Air Force.
C. Global Strike Command.
D. Missile Defense Command.

C. Global Strike Command.

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Organizing, training, equipping, and administering forces in support of North American Aerospace Defense Command (NORAD) is the responsibility of

A. 14th Air Force.
B. 24th Air Force.
C. Air Defense Command.
D. Air Force Space Command.

D. Air Force Space Command.q

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What organization is the Air Force component for space operations to United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM)?

A. 2nd Air Force.
B. 14th Air Force.
C. 20th Air Force.
D. 24th Air Force.

B. 14th Air Force.

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What installation was originally activated as Camp Cooke in 1941 and provided infantry and armor training?

A. Patrick AFB, Florida.
B. Tyndall AFB, Florida.
C. Edwards AFB, California.
D. Vandenburg AFB, California.

D. Vandenberg AFB, California.

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What organization leads the Air Force Evolved Expendable Launch Vehicle (EELV) program on the WEST coast.

A. 17th Test Squadron.
B. 576th Flight Test Squadron.
C. 4th Space Launch Squadron.
D. 5th Space Launch Squadron.

C. 4th Space Launch Squadron.

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What installation is the ADMINISTRATIVE hub of the 45th Space Wing?

A. Patrick AFB, Florida.
B. Peterson AFB, Colorado.
C. Vandenberg AFB, California.
D. Cape Canaveral

A. Patrick AFB, Florida.

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At what Cape Canaveral AFS space launch complex (SLC) does preparation and launch of the Atlas V launch vehicle occur?

A. SLC-3
B. SLC-6
C. SLC-37
D. SLC-41

D. SLC-41

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What Atlas V major assembly provides attachments for up to five strap-on solid rocket boosters?

A. Centaur.
B. Interstate.
C. Second stage.
D. Common Core Booster.

D. Common Core Booster.

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What fuel is in the two propellant tanks of the Atlas V Common Core Booster?

A. JP-1 and methane.
B. RD-180 and hydrazine.
C. RP-1 and liquid oxygen.
D. PGM-17 and liquid hydrogen.

C. RP-1 and liquid oxygen.

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What structure erects the Atlas V and Centaur and mates the encapsulated spacecraft to the launch vehicle?

A. Launch table.
B. Umbilical tower.
C. Mobile service tower.
D. Fixed launch platform.

C. Mobile service tower.

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A typical Delta IV first stage contains one common booster core. How many common booster cores are used on the Delta IV “Heavy” variant.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6

B. 3

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What fuel does the Delta IV second stage RL-10B2 rocket engine burn?

A. Hydrazine.
B. Liquid oxygen.
C. Liquid hydrogen.
D. Rocket propellant-1.

C. Liquid hydrogen.

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What provides acoustic, radio frequency, and static protection for the spacecraft atop the Delta IV launch vehicle.

A. Payload fairing.
B. Forward adapter.
C. Interbank adapters.
D. Centaur upper stage.

A. Payload fairing.

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During a launch, how quickly do the swing arms of the Delta IV fixed umbilical tower retract?

A. Less than 12 seconds.
B. 15-30 seconds.
C. 30-45 seconds.
D. 45-60 seconds.

A. Less than 12 seconds.

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What powers the Elevating Platform Transporter (EPT) in the Delta IV Horizontal Integration Facility (HIF) where precise movements are important?

A. Electric power.
B. Diesel engines.
C. Gasoline engines.
D. Hydraulic pressure.

A. Electric power.

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What spacecraft electrical system power source is used only on lengthy missions or at great distances from the sun?

A. Solar.
B. Battery.
C. Nuclear.
D. Hydrogen.

C. Nuclear.

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What type of spacecraft propulsion uses electrical energy to heat a gaseous propellant?

A. Electro-thermal system.
B. Solid propellant system.
C. Electromagnetic system.
D. Liquid propellant system.

A. Electro-thermal system.

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Where is the Air Force Research Laboratory (AFRL) headquartered?

A. Elgin AFB, Florida.
B. Kirkland AFB, New Mexico.
C. Wright-Patterson AFB, Ohio.
D. Hand on AFB, Massachusetts.

C. Wright-Patterson AFB Ohio.

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What Air Force Research Laboratory (AFRL) directorate finds new way to strike the enemy through aerospace avenues?

A. Munitions.
B. Propulsion.
C. Air Vehicles.
D. Directed Energy.

C. Air Vehicles.

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What Air Force research laboratory (AFRL) works on new technologies to find and engage the enemy and eliminate their ability to hide or threaten our forces?

A. Sensors.
B. Information.
C. Space Vehicles.
D. Human performance.

A. Sensors.

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The Air Force Operational Test and Evaluation Center (AFOTEC) reports to

A. 20th Air Force
B. Headquarters, USAF
C. Air Force Space Command.
D. Air Force Material Command.

B. Headquarters, USAF

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Air Force Operational Test and Evaluation Center (AFOTEC) tests are conducted by

A. AFOTEC scientists.
B. Operational personnel.
C. Air Logistics Center (ALC) personnel.
D. Air Force Research Lab (AFRL) engineers.

B. Operational personnel.

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What is uproar of an Air Force instruction?

A. Inform or motivate.
B. Provide instructional material.
C. Standardize actions Air-Force wide.
D. Guide the proper use of forces in military action.

C. Standardize actions Air-Force wide?

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What statement about doctrine documents is true?

A. They support education and training programs.
B. They are published in lieu of a policy directive.
C. They direct action and provide detailed procedures.
D. They are broad in nature and require judgment in applying them.

D. They are broad in nature and require judgment in applying them.

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You should reference the Air Force publishing website for publications instead of relying on paper copies because A. The website versions contain more information. B. The website maintains the most current version. C. Paper copies are only used for the revision process. D. The website contains sensitive information that is not in your paper copies.

B. The website maintains the most current version.

What is the quickest, easiest method of finding a technical order (TO) if you do not have the TO number? A. Look it up in an index-type TO. B. Check the TO internet repository. C. Look for it on the Air Force publishing website. D. Check other TOS to find a specific reference to it.

A. Look it up in an index-type TO.

What procedures are included in a TIME COMPLIANCE TECHNICAL ORDER (TCTO)? A. Procedures for launch facility entry and exit. B. Modification of the environmental control system. C. Periodic inspections and how long it should take to complete them. D. Safety supplements to an operation and maintenance technical order.

B. Modification of the environmental control system.

What determines how a technical order will be numbered? A. The series of production the weapon system it in. B. When it is received by the technical order library. C. The sequence identified in the index technical order. D. The first set of number/letters that identify the category.

D. The first set of numbers/letters that identify the category.

When using a technical order (TO), what is the BEST way to ensure that ALL the steps were completed? A. Read through the procedures before completing the task. B. Perform an operational checkout to verify the system works. C. Check the inspection work card to ensure the procedure was done. D. Have a second technician perform the procedure to check your work.

A. Read through the procedures before completing the task.

When a technical order (TO) conflict exists, you use the MOST restrictive requirement when A. The specific systems TO conflicts with the general TO. B. An Air Force instruction contains more restrictive requirements. C. The TO procedure is more restrictive than the inspection work card. D. The TO conflicts with an Air Force occupational safety and health standard.

D. The TO conflicts with an Air Force occupational safety and health standard.

What information is located in the BOTTOM right hand corner of a technical orders (TOs) title page? A. When the TO was first published. B. The title and TO number assigned. C. The category of the TO and when it is used for. D. Latest change number and when it was changed.

D. Latest change number and when it was changed.

What information would you find in the Special Tools and Test Equipment section of a technical order (TO)? A. Instructions on using some specific equipment. B. Where to find procedures on using special tools. C. The amount of a consumable required for a task. D. Preoperational checkout instructions for all equipment.

A. Instructions on using some specific equipment.

What important information is contained in the "Component Replacement and Adjustment Table" of a technical order (TO)? A. What mode of operation to establish B . Instructions for performing maintenance. C. A definition for all reference designators. D. Where components are physically located.

A. What mode of operation to establish.

What action must a technical content manager (TCM) take upon receipt of an emergency technical order (TO) improvement report? A. Issue a rapid action change within 48 hours B. Distribute TO update within 40 colander days. C. disapprove or downgrade the report within 45 days. D. Notify Quality Assurance of approval within 7 days.

A. Issue a rapid action change within 48 hours.

After a ROUTINE To improvement report is received by the technical content manager (TCM), the technical order (TO) update is generally published A. Within 1 year. B. Within 48 hours. C. With the next publication review. D. With the next publication revision.

A. Within 1 year.

More than one correction can be submitted on a technical order (TO) improvement report when A. Authorized by Quality Assurance. B. It is an EMERGENCY improvement report. C. The same error occurs in more than one TO. D. The error occurs more than once in the same TO.

D. The error occurs more than once in the same TO.

What two types of civil engineering manuals (CEMs) are usually used together? A. Systems manual and equipment manual. B. Inspection manual and equipment manual. C. Master change log and equipment manual. D. CEM interim change and equipment manual.

A. Systems manual and equipment manual.

What information is provided in a civil engineering manual (CEM) MASTER CHANGE LOG (MCL)? A. Contents of a CEM interim change package. B. Procedures for performing one-time inspections. C. Instructions on submitting a CEM improvement report. D. Operations and maintenance procedures for maintaining the system.

B. Procedures for performing one-time inspections.

How is the system a civil engineering manual (CEM) equipment manual covers identified in its number? A. A two-digit number. B. A three-digit number. C. The final one-digit number. D. The first alphanumeric group.

B. A three digit-number.

What key information is contained in a SYSTEMS MANUAL COMPONENT LIS to help you locate a component in the equipment manual? A. Part information. B. Figure reference. C. Following the schematics during troubleshooting steps. D. Referring to the corrective action column to see if it is logical.

C. Following the schematics during troubleshooting steps.

What components are NOT listed on the civil engineering manual (CEM) equipment manual's VENDOR REFERENCE DATA TABLE? A. Obsolete parts. B. Major end items. C. Common hardware. D. Electrical components.

C. Common hardware.

Civil engineering manual (CEM) improvement reports are NOT submitted for A. Replacing components. B. Changing a master change log. C. Changes to ensure system reliability. D. Correcting violations of federal regulations.

B. Changing a master change log.

When a civil engineering manual (CEM) changed is authorized for interim use, who must provide FINAL approval? A. Technical engineering and quality assurance. B. Global Strike Command and the numbered Air Force. C. Maintenance group commander and base civil engineer. D. Base missile engineering and maintenance superintendent.

C. Maintenance group commander and base civil engineer.

After taking a measurement with an 8025A multimeter ;using the HOLD function, what happens when you take ANOTHER reading? A. The multimeter powers off. B. The HOLD function turns off. C. The display updates to the new reading. D. It displays the difference between the readings.

C. The display updates to the new reading.

How do you check CONTINUITY through a multimeter's leads? A. Check voltage in an electrical outlet. B. Visually inspect for broken or bent lead tips. C. Set the multimeter to resistance and connect the leads together. D. Use another multimeter to read resistance through the connected leads.

C. Set the multimeter to resistance and connect the leads together.

After removing power, failing to isolate a component or circuit when taking resistance measurements with a multimeter can cause A. Damage to the multimeter. B. The multimeter to read NO CONTINUITY. C. The multimeter to read overload (OL). D. The multimeter to read other components.

D. The multimeter to read other components.

When measuring resistance on a component with an 8060A multimeter, what should you do FIRST if your meter indicates overload (OL)? A. Condemn the component. B. Find the exact location of the short. C. Range up if you are on a lower range. D. Switch your leads and check it in the other direction.

C. Range up if you are on a lower range.

What will happen if the model 87 multimeter is set to MANUAL range and your measurement is HIGHER than your set range? A. An audible tone will sound. B. The meter display will flash. C. The meter will switch to auto-range. D. The meter will display overload (OL).

C. The meter will switch to auto-range.

The model 87 multimeter automatically powers off A. When an amperage reading of 5 amps is taken, causing the fuse to blow. B. If the display does not change for more than 30 minutes. C. If the light on it is left on for more than 10 minutes. D. When less than 20 percent of battery life remains

B. If the display does not change for more than 30 minutes.

If a clamp-on ammeter has dirt and debris keeping the jaws from making contact, how should you clean it? A. Use a strong bristled brush and PD-680 cleaner. B. Use a general purpose cleaner and rag to clean it. C. Apply petroleum lubricant to enable better contact. D. Clamp onto sandpaper and pull the sandpaper through.

D. Clamp onto sandpaper and pull the sandpaper through.

When making PRELIMINARY checks during troubleshooting you should NOT A. Touch a motor to see if it is operating. B. Begin probing or working on the system. C. Listen for chattering relays or loud motors. D. Check switch and circuit breaker positions.

B. Begin probing or working on the system.

When locating a malfunction during troubleshooting, if a component is receiving power, but NOT repositioning or operating as it should, you A. Isolate it and take resistance measurements. B. Isolate the ground and take a voltage reading. C. Disconnect the wires and check for a cross short. D. Check contact position to see if the control is shorted.

A. Isolate it and take resistance measurements.

When checking for an OPEN CIRCUIT with a multimeter set to read resistance, what meter indication will tell you the location of an OPEN? A. 120 ohms between a test point and ground. B. Less than 5 ohms between the power source and ground. C. 0 ohms between the test points your leads are connected to. D. Overload (OL) between the points your leads are connected to.

D. Overload (OL) between the points your leads are connected to.

If you find a blown fuse during troubleshooting, you should A. Check it in both directions. B. Find a short of verify the absence of one. C. Replace the fuse to see if the circuit operates. D. Verify the amperage rating against other fuses.

B. Find a short or verify the absence of one.

To make understanding system operation easier, diagrams are usually drawn with A. The power source on the right and the diagram flowing left. B. The ground terminals removed to eliminate muddling the diagram. C. Power applied and switches and contacts in the appropriate position. D. No power applied and switches and contacts in the appropriate positions.

D. No power applied and switches and contacts in the appropriate position.

During troubleshooting a wiring diagram can be a useful tool for a technician because it will A. Give you an overall view of a particular system. B. Allow you to verify a component is wired properly. C. Give you fuse ratings and coil resistance measurements. D. Contain component values, tolerances, and standard symbols.

B. Allow you to verify a component is wired properly.

What type of metal shows evidence of corrosion in the form of blue or green deposits that adhere tightly to the surface? A. Steel. B. Copper. C. Aluminum. D. Magnesium.

B. Copper.

An organization receiving equipment from the Air Logistics Center MUST A. Accomplish an acceptance inspection on all items. B. Perform programmed depot maintenance. C. Establish a product improvement group. D. Initiate a deficiency investigation.

A. Accomplish an acceptance inspection on all items.

What type of deficiency is assigned when a component or equipment is installed and fails right away or within its warranty service period? A. Design B. Quality C. Material D. Procurement

B. Quality

What step in the deficiency reporting process REVIEWS deficiency reports for proper categorization, validity, correctness of entries, and accuracy? A. Action point. B. Support point. C. Screening point. D. Originating point.

C. Screening point.

What integrated maintenance data system (IMDS) function allows the user to view historical data? A. Reporting. B. Database updates. C. Real-time retrievals. D. Background retrievals.

D. Background retrievals.

What integrated maintenance data system (IMDS) operational event phase provides the capability for periodic reports of mission accomplishment? A. Analysis phase. B. Mission recording. C. Automated debriefing. D. Mission accomplishment.

A. Analysis phase.

What integrated maintenance data system (IMDS) subsystem provides the capability to Dorset parts for UNSCHEDULED discrepancies? A. Training management. B. Maintenance personnel. C. Job data documentation. D. Base supply system interface.

D. Base supply system interface.

Who is responsible for developing a quality assurance (QA). Program that focuses attention on nuclear weapons related material (NWRM)? A. Unit commanders. B. Wing commanders. C. Group commanders. D. Major command commanders.

C. Group commanders.

What statement about nuclear weapons related material (NWRM) semi-annual inventories is TRUE? A. Missiles will be taken off alert in order to verify components. B. Packaged containers showing signs of tampering need to be opened. C. If an NWRM item is signed out, the item is considered accounted for. D. Line replaceable items need to be disassembled in order to be inventoried.

B. Packaged containers showing signs of tampering need to be opened.

Cables in the hardened intersite cabling system (HICS) are laid out in lengths of A. 3 to 6 miles and are connected together in a splice case. B. 3 to 6 miles and are connected by a demi-valve assembly. C. 3,000 to 6,000 feet and are connected together in a splice case. D. 3,000 to 6,000 feet and are connected by a demi-valve assembly.

C. 3,000 to 6,000 feet and are connected together in a splice case.

The hardened intersite cabling system (HICS) cables are maintained with an air pressure of 2 pounds per square inch (PSI) at all times in order to A. Ensure effective command tone signals. B. Map cable locations in the HICS complex. C. Keep moisture from entering the cable system. D. Pressurize the flowmeter panels to detect cable breaks.

C. Keep moisture from entering the cable system.

How does the hardened intersite cabling system (HICS) work center monitor system pressure status and alarms? A. The cable air dryer sends a data signal to a desktop computer. B. The flowmeter panel displays system pressures in binary numbers. C. Pressure is monitored by the missile maintenance operations center (MMOC). D. The pressure monitoring receiver-transmitter interfaces with a desktop computer.

D. The pressure monitoring receiver-transmitter interfaces with a desktop computer.

What is the MAIN difference between a buried cable and a submarine cable? A. A submarine cable has a layer of jute wrapped in armor wire. B. A buried cables inner jacket is covered by a barrier tape. C. A submarine cable core is made up of twisted wire pairs. D. A buried cable has a polyethylene outer jacket.

A. A submarine cable has a layer of jute wrapped in armor wire.

What BEST describes hardened intersite cabling system (HICS) wire color coding standards? A. A binder is 25 wire pairs color coded by a binder braid. B. The tip and ring are the same color for easier identification. C. The tip in a wire pair uses 25 different colors to identify them. D. Wire pairs are bound together in groups of 50 with colored braids.

A. A binder is 25 wire pairs color coded by a binder braid.

When using a splicer's headset, how do you know when a circuit is connected to the battery source? A. An audible tone is heard when the headset is keyed twice. B. A light illuminates on the headset display to indicate a connection. C. The battery voltage is displayed on a multimeter from the other end. D. A click is heard in the headset earpiece when the leads are connected.

D. A click is heard in the headset earpiece when the leads are connected.

A REVERSED pair splicing error is when the tip A. Of a pair is spliced to the ring of the same pair. B. OR ring is split and then corrected down the line. C. OR ring is spliced to the tip or ring of another pair. D. AND ring is spliced to the tip and ring of another pair.

A. Of a pair is spliced to the ring of the same pair.

When testing a cable at a launch facility with a time domain reflectometer, what must be done BEFORE disconnecting the wire pair at the termination point in the electrical surge arrester vault? A. Inspect the vault for burned wires. B. Discharge the static voltage charge. C. Verify the impedance in the wiring. D. Disconnect the opposite end of the cable.

D. Disconnect the opposite end of the cable.

In order to identify the exact location of a fault after performing a time domain reflectometer test at a missile site, you need to locate the A. Pressure transmitter fault indications. B. Circuit record card for the missile site. C. Splice case nearest to the indicated fault. D. Demi-valve assembly on the marker pole.

C. Splice case nearest to the indicated fault.

A. Within 1 year.

D. The error occurs more than once in the same TO.

A. Systems manual and equipment manual.

B. Procedures for performing one-time inspections.

B. A three digit-number.

C. Following the schematics during troubleshooting steps.

C. Common hardware.

B. Changing a master change log.

C. Maintenance group commander and base civil engineer.

C. The display updates to the new reading.

C. Set the multimeter to resistance and connect the leads together.

D. The multimeter to read other components.

C. Range up if you are on a lower range.

C. The meter will switch to auto-range.

B. If the display does not change for more than 30 minutes.

D. Clamp onto sandpaper and pull the sandpaper through.

B. Begin probing or working on the system.

A. Isolate it and take resistance measurements.

D. Overload (OL) between the points your leads are connected to.

B. Find a short or verify the absence of one.

D. No power applied and switches and contacts in the appropriate position.

B. Allow you to verify a component is wired properly.

What type of metal shows evidence of corrosion in the form of blue or green deposits that adhere tightly to the surface? A. Steel. B. Copper. C. Aluminum. D. Magnesium.

B. Copper.

A. Accomplish an acceptance inspection on all items.

What type of deficiency is assigned when a component or equipment is installed and fails right away or within its warranty service period? A. Design B. Quality C. Material D. Procurement

B. Quality

C. Screening point.

What integrated maintenance data system (IMDS) function allows the user to view historical data? A. Reporting. B. Database updates. C. Real-time retrievals. D. Background retrievals.

D. Background retrievals.

A. Analysis phase.

D. Base supply system interface.

C. Group commanders.

B. Packaged containers showing signs of tampering need to be opened.

C. 3,000 to 6,000 feet and are connected together in a splice case.

C. Keep moisture from entering the cable system.

D. The pressure monitoring receiver-transmitter interfaces with a desktop computer.

A. A submarine cable has a layer of jute wrapped in armor wire.

URE Questions Flashcards

(109 cards)