UREs

Question 1

The tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) begins at the

Answer 1

resource

Question 2

The primary responsibility of air base defense (ABD) forces is

Answer 2

defeating level I threates, and disrupting or delaying level II threates in the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) surrounding the air base

Question 3

At a minimum, which two S-functions must operate within the base defense operations center (BDOC)?

Answer 3

S2 and S3

Question 4

What is the staff make-up for the S3?

Answer 4

The operations officer and staff

Question 5

In what way can subordinate joint force commands organize?

Answer 5

By service component or function

Question 6

The primary mission of a joint operation is

Answer 6

sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force

Question 7

When terrorists attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities, what is their mission?

Answer 7

Persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies

Question 8

A terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but recieves support from, one or more governments is

Answer 8

state-supported

Question 9

A typical organization of a terrorist group consists of

Answer 9

hard-core leadership, active cadre, active and passive support

Question 10

Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of

Answer 10

23-30

Question 11

When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?

Answer 11

Just before departing for the target sight

Question 12

The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is

Answer 12

bombing

Question 13

The USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed around what three principles?

Answer 13

Fore protection conditions (FPCON), assessment factors, and threat levels.

Question 14

What factor is the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests?

Answer 14

Intentions

Question 15

Our first line of defense against intelligence collection efforts is

Answer 15

operations security (OPSEC)

Question 16

The primary purpose of the operations security (OPSEC) program is to

Answer 16

support the commander by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC

Question 17

When should commanders and planners identify mission-critical information

Answer 17

At the earliest possible moment

Question 18

Which threat spectrum level consists of small tactical units, unconventional warfare forces, and guerillas

Answer 18

II

Question 19

Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity

Answer 19

Sympathizers

Question 20

Missions that primarily target nuclear weapons-related facilities are what threat spectrum level?

Answer 20

II

Question 21

Which threat level uses doctrine that stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers (KM)?

Answer 21

III

Question 22

What group routinely manages the risk assessment process for commanders?

Answer 22

Force Protection (FP) working

Question 23

Compiling and examining all available information concerning potential threats by threat analysts is a/an

Answer 23

continual process

Question 24

What assessment addresses the broad range of physical threats to the security of personnel and assets, and should be conducted periodically

Answer 24

Vulnerability

Question 25

The key to force protection (FP) countermeasure planning is

Answer 25

protecting sensitive information

Question 26

The capability to reduce the capability of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy to protect friendly assets and aim points with materials and equipment that alter or obscure part or all of their multispectral signature is

Answer 26

camoflauge, concealment, and deception (CCD)

Question 27

To modify to prevent recognition of the true identity or character of an asset or activity is to

Answer 27

disguise

Question 28

The politcal-military nature of military operations other than war (MOOTW) require you to coordinate your activities

Answer 28

with a number of government and civilian agencies outside the Department of Defense (DOD)

Question 29

Military operations other than war (MOOTW) missions do not include

Answer 29

clandestine infiltration

Question 30

Which military operations other than war (MOOTW) principle never permits hostile factions to acquire a military, political, or informational advantage

Answer 30

Security

Question 31

As a Total Force organization, a typical air and space expeditionary force (AEF) is responsive and capable of

Answer 31

deploying to conduct broad range operations with minimum warning time

Question 32

What is the time limit for an air and space expeditionary force (AEF) package to respond to any unexpected contingency?

Answer 32

72 hours

Question 33

What does security forces provide for the Integrated Base Defense (IBD) concept?

Answer 33

Foundation

Question 34

Based on the integrated base defense (IBD) concept of operations (CONOP), what are all Airmen considered?

Answer 34

Sensors

Question 35

Which essential element of the integrated base defense (IBD) concept slows the enemy without the need for a massive response at the outset of an engagement?

Answer 35

Delay

Question 36

What does the risk management process allow the commander to determine?

Answer 36

Countermeasures options

Question 37

An expeditionary military force is defined as a force that conducts military operations

Answer 37

on short notice in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives

Question 38

What does the Air Force maintain to support the on-call air and space expeditionary force (AEF), as well as on-call lead wings to open expeditionary bases

Answer 38

Five BGLs

Question 39

The key to optimizing peacetime and participation of the traditional guardsman and reservists who must balance military duties with full-time civilian employment is

Answer 39

predictability

Question 40

Since unit type codes (UTC) are functionally grouped, what will all security forces UTCs have as a designator?

Answer 40

QF

Question 41

When the need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in an existing UTC is required, who may initiate the action for the change?

Answer 41

Any level

Question 42

What is the list of all unit type codes (UTC) approved for use in planning?

Answer 42

Air Force-Wide Unit Type Code Availability System(AFWUS)

Question 43

Directing your operation toward a defined and attainable objective that contributes to operational and tactical claim is what principle of war

Answer 43

Objective

Question 44

Avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizing , preparing, planning, and conducting military operations is what principle of war?

Answer 44

Simplicity

Question 45

Commanders do not use rules of engangement (ROE) to ensure operations

Answer 45

meet manning standards

Question 46

Guidance on the application of force and exercising of the inherent right and obligation of self-defense is the purpose of the

Answer 46

US military's standing rules of engagement (ROE)

Question 47

What is one of the fundamental purposes of the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC)?

Answer 47

Prevent unnecessary suffering

Question 48

What is the key element in the design of forces that should be paramount to planners?

Answer 48

Flexibility

Question 49

What unit type code (UTC) is a 4-person team designed to provide 24-hour security forces augmentation to immediate headquarters for ground defense and weapons systems security functions?

Answer 49

QFDB9

Question 50

What unit type code (UTC), when deployed with UTCs QFEBB and QFEBS, provide HQ staff support for a medium to large (130-180 personnel) deployed security forces (SF) unit?

Answer 50

QFEBA

Question 51

What unit type code (UTC) is composed of one home station-validated explosive detection dog and an assigned handler?

Answer 51

QFEBR

Question 52

What unit type code (UTC) consistes of a 3-person team of specially trained and equipped security forces personnel who deploy as mission essential ground personnel (MEGP) on airlift aircraft transiting or operation out of high-risk locations?

Answer 52

QFEPR

Question 53

During peacetime operation, what unit type code (UTC) would provide the inital security for USAF resources and personnel, conduct convoys; and defend local and other security missions as required?

Answer 53

QFEB2

Question 54

What unit type code (UTC) is essential to direct the fire of an provide support for the mortar teams?

Answer 54

QFEBK

Question 55

What pre-deployment factor is considered a constant?

Answer 55

Treaties

Question 56

How long are the majority of security forces unit type codes capable of existing without support?

Answer 56

5 days

Question 57

What is a base already possessing rresources and an establish infrastructure?

Answer 57

Main operating base (MOB)

Question 58

What operations are key to assembling an accurate picture of the battle space?

Answer 58

Intelligence

Question 59

Fixed bases having well-establish perimeters usually have limited

Answer 59

depth

Question 60

What two factors add depth to the battle outside the perimeter allowing the base to continue its primary mission with minimal interference?

Answer 60

Counter-reconnaisance and counterattack

Question 61

What is not an example of a routine in defense measure?

Answer 61

Assign sectors of fire

Question 62

What should always be your first priority of work?

Answer 62

Establish local security

Question 63

What should the defense force commander (DFC) consider in the sectorization scheme to provide maximum protection for base critical resources?

Answer 63

The entire tactical area of responsibility

Question 64

When establishing base sectors, you must ensure critical resources and areas are

Answer 64

evenly grouped

Question 65

What would necessitate the need to dig hasty firing positions in the field?

Answer 65

When you have made contact with the enemy

Question 66

Where is an excellent position to place a marksman in an urban area?

Answer 66

Peak of a roof

Question 67

When the machine gun is not assigned to the maneuver element, what is its primary mission?

Answer 67

Provide convering fire for the assault element

Question 68

In terms of engagement ranges, machine guns in the base-of-fire element may find themselves firing at targets within how many meters of the element?

Answer 68

800

Question 69

Proper machine gun placement maximizes fire in

Answer 69

width and depth

Question 70

what is the main mission of the machine gun?

Answer 70

to protect and defend through defensive and offensive mission

Question 71

What does not need to be shown on a sketch?

Answer 71

Location of home station flight

Question 72

What provides key information to the defense force commander and support staffs on specific air base defense activities in order to make decisions, and develop and implement tactical plans and orders?

Answer 72

Reports

Question 73

What is an engagement priority for machine gun gunners to direct their fire?

Answer 73

Crew-served automatic weapons

Question 74

When conducting ambushes, units refer to the engagement areas as

Answer 74

Kill Zone

Question 75

Which principle of indirect fire aims to destroy enemy soldiers and degrade the effectiveness of enemy vehicles by causing them to fight buttoned-up?

Answer 75

Required effect

Question 76

Because the danger increases with the size of the weapons, how should artillery be used when integrating indirect suppresive fires to support the breach and assault?

Answer 76

To isolate the objective

Question 77

A "call for fire" is a message

Answer 77

prepared by an observer

Question 78

Against what threat levels can close precision engagement add significantly to delaying actions by enhancing the standoff capabilites of defense forces?

Answer 78

II and III

Question 79

Once fully implemented, what will the Integrated Base Defense Security System greatly enhance in base defenseive operations?

Answer 79

Detection and Security