UREs Flashcards

(65 cards)

1
Q

If a patient has made an attempt to resolve his/her problem and has failed in the past this is recognized as

A

strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

As a minimum, how many strengths and weaknesses should be identified for each patient?

A

three

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is considered the very basic of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?

A

Physiological needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What level of maslow’s hierarchy of needs is characterized by the need for friendship, love and a sense of belonging?

A

Affiliation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What level of maslow’s hierarchy of needs is often difficult for substance abuse/dependent individuals

A

Affiliation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs is developed from feelings of independence, competence, self-respect, and recognition from others?

A

Self-esteem and love

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs represents an individual who has reached his or her maximum potential?

A

Self actualization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What need is not considered a deficiency need?

A

Self-esteem and self actualization which are growth needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What do short-term goals provide for the patient?

A

Acute relief or feelings of accomplishment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What do long-term goals suggest for the patient?

A

Shows they are invested over a period of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Every goal must have at least how many objectives?

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Goals should not be…?

A

optimistic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which determinant of relapse is considered the most difficult and problematic?

A

Relational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the leading cause of relapse?

A

Boredom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

It is well documented that treatment outcomes are based upon the patient’s what?

A

motivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Reconstructing a comprehensive detailing of the patients substance use history helps with what?

A

Determine triggers that may lead to a relapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

during what stage of treatment does termination or discharge planning begin?

A

initial intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What action must occur to discourage contact outside the therapeutic relationship?

A

create clear boundaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is considered the overall management strategy for treating people?

A

treatment plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Who should be devising the treatment plan for the patient?

A

patient and Counselor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the potential problems that should be addressed in the treatment plan?

A

Attrition
noncompliance
inadequate progress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is not a purpose of assessment during the treatment process?

A

Translating the goals into behavior indicatiors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What must you use to measure treatment progress?

A

Exit outcomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is one of the most self-defeating beliefs for a beginning counselor?

A

We must be perfect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Which is not one of the 4 specific areas that should be addressed in the therapeutic relationship between you and the patient?
Relational issue, ability to influence, and change relationships with their lives
26
What is paramount to a patients ability to identify options and alternatives in the face of adversity?
employing sound insight and judgment
27
What refers to the cognitive capabilities or functions displayed by an individual?
Emotional intelligence
28
Which is not one of the common stages of counseling?
termination of care
29
During this stage, the patient will gain insight into his/her primary problem and tentatively begin goal setting.
In-depth exploration
30
Which cognitive distortion is best defined as extreme contradictory qualities, everything that is good/bad?
Dichotomous thinking
31
Which cognitive distortion is best defined as always making a negative conclusion without supporting information
Arbitrary inference
32
Which therapeutic approach forces the therapist to take a stand and often disclose his/her feelings regarding morality, responsibility, and accountability?
Reality therapy
33
What are the Gestalt therapy's five layers of neurosis?
``` phony phobic impasse implosive level explosive level ```
34
In strategic family therapy, what is defined as communication that is intentionally misleading, misunderstood and inconsistent and often leaves the receiver with an impossible conclusion to answer?
Disqualification
35
In strategic family therapy, what is defined as denying or invalidating hurtful or demeaning statements to protect the sender's self-image?
Disconfirmation
36
In what stage of behavior therapy is the patient encouraged to take control of his or her internal anxiety provoking physiological responses?
Relaxation training
37
In what stage of behavior therapy is the patient walked through the least anxiety-provoking events to gradually increasing levels of events through imagery?
Desensitization proper
38
What group permits patients to join and finish at different times?
Open-ended
39
How many group participants can one facilitator effectively manage
8-10
40
Which group usually is structured in nature and time for a specific number of sessions and typically has a closed membership
educational
41
What is always considered a primary concern when you discuss group participation?
Confidentiality
42
During what stage of the group process should you establish the basic ground rules for participation in a group?
Beginning
43
During which stage of group has the birthing process of merging personalities subsided?
Working and cohesion
44
During which stage of group will dependencies between group members and the facilitator emerge or group members will attempt to introduce new bombshell material
termination
45
Regarding group participation, which term would be used to describe the extremely shy patient?
Contraindication
46
What common problems tend to occur the longer group continues?
Drop outs
47
Conflict can beneficial if used as a tool in group if it is used to do all of the following except
Polarize group members
48
the group member who can easily become the target of an aggressive narcissist in the group is the
Schizoid patient
49
When you present a case for staffing, in what format do you provide the overview?
Subjective/Objective Assessment Plan (SOAP)
50
What is not one of the core components of case management?
Recreational support
51
Who is the greatest influence in our lives besides family?
Peers
52
Who is responsible for conducting the biennial community needs assessment
Integrated delivery system
53
Who chairs the treatment team (TT) meetings?
Alcohol and Drug abuse prevention and Treatment Program manager
54
How many duty days does the Alcohol and Drug Abuse Prevention and treatment program manager have to make a treatment decision for a new referral to the ADAPT office?
15
55
How many visits for evaluation are civilian employees authorized free of charge at the base substance abuse clinic?
1
56
which of the following agencies did the AF join forces with to conform to the DOD directive to establish standardized criteria for selection of personnel who served in clinical roles as alcohol and drug abuse counselors?
International Certification Reciprocity Consortium/ Alcohol and Other Drugs of Abuse
57
How many continuing education units are required to retain certification during each 3-year certification?
60
58
which of the 12 core functions is described as the administrative and initial procedures for admission to a program?
intake
59
Which of the 12 core functions is described as relating with in-house staff or outside professionals to assure comprehensive, quality care for the client?
Consultation
60
Who notifies the applicants of the results of the certified alcohol and drug abuse counselor (CADAC) written examination?
Major Command (MAJCOM)
61
Understanding which of the following greatly impacts the quality of work or product which you will be evaluate by?
job description
62
Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) specifically outlines not only the education an certification requirements for the certified alcohol and drug abuse counselor (CADAC), but also the required supervision?
AFI 44-119 Medical Quality Operations
63
the certified alcohol and drug abuse counselor's (CADAC) competency assessment must be performed how many times per month and documented in their training record?
2
64
What is not one of the critical success factors?
provide sufficient staffing to provide care for all beneficiaries
65
What percentage of all formal mental health care is provided by primary managers?
50