Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

CNM Biochemistry Workshop Responses > Urinary System I > Flashcards

Urinary System I Flashcards

(71 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

List FOUR functions of the urinary system

A
  1. Excretion of unwanted substances
  2. Production of hormones (erythropoetin & calcitriol)
  3. Maintenance of water and electrolyte balance
  4. Regulation of blood glucose levels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name THREE metabolic wastes containing nitrogen excreted by the urinary system?

A

Urea
Uric Acid
Creatinine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Name ONE ion excreted by the urinary system

A

Hydrogen (H+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

State the minimum daily quantity of urine (ml) required to clear body waste

A

500ml / day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Name THREE electrolytes regulated by the kidneys

A

Sodium - NA+
Potassium - K+
Hydrogen - H+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe specifically how the kidney plays a role in pH balance?

A

Blood pH must be between 7.35-7.45.

  • The lungs excrete CO2
  • The kidneys excrete H+ into urine and produce the buffer HCO3 - bicarbonate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe the main role of calcitriol in relation to the kidney

A

Calcitriol - Active form of Vit D. UV light activates a vit D precursor in the skin. The Kidneys convert inactive Vit D into calcitriol. This increases calcium by stimulating calcium + magnesium uptake from the GIT and reducing calcium loss in kidneys.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe the main role of erythropoetin in relation to the kidneys

A

Erythtopoetin - A protein hormone that stimulates erythropoiesis in the red bone marrow. Secreted by kidney interstitial cells into blood. Released in response to hypoxia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Explain why anaemia is common in renal failure

A

Kidneys fail to produce erythropoietin, meaning that erythropoiesis production drops. Can be measured on a blood test (EPO test)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

State the normal renal threshold for glucose in mmol/L

A

9 mmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe specifically how the kidney compensates for ‘low blood glucose’

A

The kidneys are able to make glucose from the amino acid glutamine to help elevate blood sugar levels when hypoglycaemic (gluconeogenesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Explain why the right kidney is lower than the left kidney

A

Because the liver is also on the right side, so the right kidney sits lower, below the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

With regards to renal anatomy and tissue layers, complete the following table

A

Table responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Explain what is meant by the hilum?

A

On the concave kidney border. The region where blood vessels, lymph vessels, nerves and ureters enter and exit the kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

State the & cardiac output received by the kidney

A

20-25%. 1.2l per minute despite being only 0.5% of bodyweight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name the location into which urine drains from the nephrons

A

The minor and major calyces of the renal medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

State which of the following components are in the ‘renal tubule’ or ‘renal corpuscule’

a. Loop of Henle
b. Distal convoluted tubule
c. Bowmans capsule
d. Proximal convoluted tubule
e. Glomerulus

A

TUBULE

a. Loop of Henle
b. Distal convoluted tubule
d. Proximal convoluted tubule

CORPUSCULE

c. Bowmans capsule
e. Glomerulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Name the specific location in a nephron where anti-diuretic hormone acts.

A

ADH acts on the distal convoluted tubule to reabsorb water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Explain how urine is transported from the renal pelvis to the urinary bladder

A

The two ureters transport urine from the renal pelvis to the urinary bladder. Each ureter is about 25-30cm long and is retroperitoneal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe the role of the muscularis in the ureter

A

Consists of smooth muscle fibres which produces peristaltic contractions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

State the volume of urine (ml) which when exceeded triggers a desire to urinate.

A

200ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Name the small triangular area located on the posterior floor of the bladder

A

The trigone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Name the specific location of the ‘detrusor muscle’

A

In the bladder. At the urethral opening.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

List two differences between the female and male uretehras

A

Male’s is longer at 20mm. Womens is 4mm. The males passes through the prostate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
List THREE processes involved in urine formation
1. Glomerular filtration 2 Tubular reabsorption 3 Tubular secretion
26
Describe specifically how the glomerulus is adapted for filtration
- The diameter of the efferent arteriole is less than the afferent arteriole. - Glomerular capillaries are 50x more leaky than normal capillaries.
27
Name FOUR blood constituents that pass into glomerular filtrate
Hormones Urea Toxins Uric Acid
28
Name TWO blood constituents that remain in glomerular capillaries
Leukocytes Erythrocytes Platelets Plasma Proteins
29
Define the Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)
The amount of filtrate formed int he renal corpuscules of both kidneys each minute.
30
State how GFR is measured
Ml/min. Normal should be over 90ml/min
31
State the normal adult GFR range
Over 90ml/min
32
Describe specifically how ‘colloid osmotic pressure’ develops
Damage to the glomerular capillaries can lead to plasma protein loss into urine Albumin leaks into the filtrate leading to albuminuria Blood volume decreases and interstitial fluid volume increases causing oedema
33
Name THREE substances/molecules which are a) reabsorbed via tubular reabsorption b) secreted into tubular fluid
a) Water, amino acids, electrolytes | b) waste products like creatinine, excess ions like H+ (ph regulation), certain drugs e.g. penicillin
34
Name the area of the renal tubule where most reabsorption occurs
In the PCT
35
Describe how the RAAS works to increase blood pressure
If BP is low, the afferent arteriole walls are stretched less, causing 1. The enzyme Renin released by the kidney into the blood 2. Coverts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I (in liver) 3. Angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II by Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE) in the lungs. 4. Angiotensin II causes release of Aldosterone from the adrenal cortex
36
Describe the role of ACE
Converts Angiotensin I to angiotensin II
37
Identify where ACE is released in the body
in the lungs
38
Describe how Angiotensin II acts upon the a) pituitary gland b) blood vessels
a) triggers it to release ADH | b) triggers vasoconstriction, increases blood pressure
39
Explain how aldosterone affects sodium and water reabsorption
It increases it
40
List one trigger for anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
Angiotensin II
41
Explain how ADH can rebalance osmotic pressure
ADH increases permeability of the distal convoluted tubules, thus increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys, thereby aiding in rebalancing the osmotic pressure
42
Describe the role of the atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
LOWERS BLOOD PRESSURE Inhibits reabsorption of Na+ and water in the renal tubules. Suppresses the release of ADH and aldosterone.
43
Define micturition
Discharge of urine from the bladder.
44
Describe the difference between micturition in infants and in adults
Adults have learned to initiate and stop micturition via control of the external urethral sphincter and pelvic floor muscles.
45
List FOUR signs/symptoms which may indicate a urinary pathology
- Frequent and painful urination - Low or no urine volume - Nausea and vomiting - Exhaustion
46
With regards to 'signs' indicating a possible renal disease, explain why each of the following occur a Pallor b Frothy urine c Oedema d Itchy skin
a Pallor - due to anaemia b Frothy urine - due to proteinuria c Oedema - protein loss d Itchy skin - due to uraemia
47
``` Identify one pathology for each of the following urinalysis parameters a Protein b Bacteria c Glucose d Casts ```
a - Kidney disease b - UTI c - Diabetes mellitus d - Nephron disease
48
With regards to urinary terminology, complete the following table
49
Explain why cystitis is more common in women
Because they have a shorter urethra closer to the anus
50
Name the main cause of cystitis
75% caused by E.coli
51
List THREE signs/symptoms of cystitis
Dysuria Oliguria (small amounts) Dark smelly and cloudy urine Pain in abdomen
52
With regards to the diagnosis of cystitis, describe what the following tests reveal a. dipstick test b urine microscopy
a. Nitrares, leucocytes, erythrocytes | b. Significant bacteria
53
Using definitions, compare 'pyelonephritis' and 'cystitis'
Pyelonephritis is a microbial infection of the renal pelvis and medulla. Cyctitis is an infection of the bladder
54
Name TWO signs / symptoms more suggestive of pyelonephritis
Loin pain and tenderness (often unilateral) | Haematuria
55
Name TWO causes (not infection) of pyelonephritis
Immunocompromised patients Pregnancy Obstructed flow of urine
56
With regards to the diagnosis of pyelonephritis, describe what the following should reveal' a Dipstick test b Urine microscopy c Blood test
a - nitrates, erythrocytes, leukocytes, protein b - bacteria, urinary casts, blood cells, protein c - inflammatory markers (WBC's)
57
List two complications of pyelonephritis
Septicemia Secondary hypertension Chronic kidney disease and renal failure
58
Describe specifically the pathopsyiology of glomerulonephritis
Autoimmune reaction (type III hypersensitivity) - whereby antigen-antibody immune complexes are formed in response to infection. These immune complexes are deposited in the glomeruli where they trigger an immune response, which leads to leaky capillaries and leukocyte proliferation, allowing proteins and erythrocytes to escape into uring
59
List one secondary cause of glomerulonephritis
bacterial infection
60
Name one trigger of an autoimmune reaction in glomerulonephritis
Bacterial infection (often from upper respiratory tract)
61
Explain how hypertension can develop in glomerulonephritis
Due to glomerulosclerosis (scarring and fibrosis of the glomerular capillaries reduces renal blood flow and GFR resulting in an increase in renin
62
Name two urinalysis parameters that you would expect to find in glomerulonephritis
Erythrocytes and protein
63
Describe how oedema develops in nephrotic syndrome
the loss of plasma proteins leads to low plasma osmotic pressure, so fluid moves out of capillaries and into tissues = oedema
64
List TWO infectious causes of nephrotic syndrome
HIV, malaria, hepatitis
65
List one common medicine that can cause nephrotic syndrome
NSAIDS
66
Describe the pathophysiology of diabetic nephropathy
Diabetes elevates blood pressure. Glomerulosclerosis occurs as a result of the increased intra glomerular pressure. Kidneys often enlarged. Gleomeruli become damaged and proteins leak
67
Name one mineral that is commonly implicated in renal calculi (kidney stones)
calcium oxolate and phosphate uric acid stones and magnesium stones
68
Explain how the position of kidney stones affects signs and symptoms experienced
Stones may stay in position (can obstruct urine outflow) or can migrate down the urinary tract, producing symptoms on route
69
List TWO causes of renal calculi
Dehydration | Gout
70
Describe the pain associated with renal calculi
Severe loin pain, radiating to the groin (ureteric colic)
71
Describe the key difference between haemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis
Peritoneal dialysis uses the peritoneums structure

CNM Biochemistry Workshop Responses (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions