Urogenital complaints and Opthomology (320-331) (431-451) Flashcards

(116 cards)

1
Q

Under what 3 situations are UTIs most common?

A

Sexually active young women, elderly and posturethral catheter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Whats the most common causative bacteria

A

E.coli and gram negatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

main sx of uti?

A

dysuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Main sx of pyelonephritis

A

back/flank pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How to dx a UTI?

A

UA and reflex to culture - pyuria and + bacteria Gram stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What follow up must be done on adolescents and men with pyelonephritis or recurrent infection?

A

Renal US and IVP to r/o anatomic etiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How long does a pt with bacterial prostatitis need to be on antibiotics?

A

6-12 weeks for chronic

2 weeks for acute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the definition of asx bacteriuria

A

Urine culture >100,000 colony forming units

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What patient populations should you treat asx bacteriuria?

A
  1. pregnant women
  2. pts with renal transplant
  3. about to undergo genitourinary procedure
  4. severe vesicouretral reflux
  5. struvite calculi
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is most common mode of transmission of AIDS worldwide?in USA?

A

heterosexual worldwide

homosexual USA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What genetic mutation makes pts highly resistant to HIV transmission?

A

CCR5 homozygous deletion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

At what CD4 copunt do opportunic infections usually arise?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What should pts be put on when CD4

A

TMP-SMX to prophylax against PCP and toxoplasma encephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Pt with painful vesicular and ulcerated lesions that resolve over 7 days. How to confirm dx?

A

direct flourescent antigen (DFA) staining. Tzank prep, serology, HSV, PCR, or culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Risk of _____ increases 7-10x in women with hx of salpingitis

A

ectopic pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What antibiotics should be used on pts with PID?

A

azithromycin
flouroquinilone + metronidazole
cephalosporin + doxy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Pt presents with painless papule that erodes into a painless ulcer accompanied by tender, swollen lymph nodes causing groove in the inguinal ligament (groove sign) Dx? Etiology?

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum (serovars L1-L3) Chlamidya trachomatis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Pt from underdeveloped country presents w painful ulcer accompanied by painful swollen lymph nodes which suppurate and cause destructive changes in the groin. Dx? Etiology? Tx?

A

Chancroid
Haemophilus ducreyi
Macrolide, doxycycline and cephalosporin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pt from underdeveloped country presents with painless nodules which over time slough off exposing large ulcers which spread and cause extensive destructive changes in the groin.

Biopsy shows purple oval forms inside macrophages which strain purple with Wright stain. Dx? Tx?

A

Granuloma inguinale (Donovaniasis)

Tx: Macrolide or doxy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What prophylaxis should pts receive if CD4

A

azithromycin for Mycobacterium avium intracellulare complex (MAC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When should HAART therapy be started? (3 active antiviral agents)

A

If pt’s have symptoms related to HIV infection or if pt’s CD4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Painless hematuria DDx?

A

Primary renal disease (tumor, glomerulonephritis)
bladder tumor
prostatic dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Painful hematuria DDx?

A

nephrolithiasis, renal infarction, UTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the term when hemoglobin is detected in UA but theres no RBCs on microanalysis?

A

myoglobinuria or hemoglobinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
When should you do cystoscopy?
only after UA and IVP
26
After what age is BPH common
>45, 90% men older than 70 have BPH
27
What are the 3 criteria of BPH?
prostate size > 30mL | maximmum urinary flow rate 50
28
When is TURP indicated?
Refractory disease
29
For prostate glands >75g, what is the reccomendation?
Open prostatectomy
30
Pt presents with fevers, chills, low back pain, urinary frequency, and urgency, tender possible fluctuant and swollen prostate,. Labs show leukocytosis, pyruia and bacteriuria. Dx? Tx?
Prostatitis, dx made clinically | Tx: fluoroquinolone or TMP-SMX
31
What is the most common ca in males and second most common cause of ca death?
prostate cancer. First MCC death is lung ca
32
PSA sensitive or specific?
sensitive. PSA is elevated in 90% of prostate adeno CA but, controversy over screening tool
33
Where does prostate ca often metastasize?
via lymph/ blood causing osteoblastic lesions
34
What is the primary cause of impotence
``` erectile dysfunction due to... psychological decreaased testosterone hypo/hyperthyroid Cushings syndrome Increased prolactin ```
35
What are some causes for secondary erectile dysfunction
vascular dz Drugs Neurologic dz
36
**How can you differentiate psychogenic from organic causes of erectile dysfunction
nocturnal penile tumescence
37
What is the mechanism of action of Sildenafil, tadalafil, Vardenafil etc?
Cyclic GMP-specific PDE5 inhibitor which improves relaxation of smooth muscles in corpora cavernosum
38
What is an absolute contraindication to PDE5 inhibitors?
Use of nitrates
39
Decreased vision secondary to fafilure of development of the pathway between the retina and visual cortex before ages 7-11
ambylopia
40
What sx might a person with ambylopia have
Esotropia (inward rotation of eyes) exotropia ( outwardly rotated walled eyes) Refractive error not correctable with lenses
41
Unable to see in bilateral temporal fields usually caused by a pituitary tumor
bitemporal hemianopsia
42
Lesion of the medial longitudinnal fasciculus classically found in multiple sclerosis
internuclear opthalmoplegia
43
What is the defecit caused by internuclear opthalmoplegia?Why?
inability to adduct the ipsilateral eye past midline on lateral conjugate gaze lack of communication between the contralateral cn Vi nucleus and ipsilateral CNIII nucleus
44
Midbrain tectum lesion that results in paralysis of upward gaze and is associated with pineal tumor
Parinaud's syndrome
45
Afferent defect of cn ii causing pupil not to react to direct light, but will react consensually when light is shined into contralateral eye
Marcus Gunn Pupil
46
How to test marcus gun pupil?
swinging flashlight test - denervated eye will appear to dilate when light is shone in because it is dilating back to baseline when consensual light is removed from other eye
47
pathognomonic for tertiary syphilis (neurosyphilis
Argyll Robertson pupil (pupils constrict with accomodation but do not constrict to direct light stimulation)
48
upward lens dislocation
Marfans
49
downward lens dislocation
homocystinuria
50
variable lens dislocation
Alport's syndrome
51
Ring of golden pigment around the iris
Kayser Fleisher Ring
52
Fleshy growth from conjunctiva onto nasal side of cornea associated with exposure to wind, sand, sun, dust etc
Pteryguim
53
Benign yellowish nodules on either side of the cornea seen in pts >35, may have foreign body sensation in eye
Pinguecula
54
Spontaneous onset of a painless right red patch on the sclera - benign self limited condition usually seen after over exertion
Subconjunctivial hemorrhage
55
If you see subconjunctival hemorrhage in setting of trauma, what must be done?
r/o ruptured globe
56
Rapid loss of vision and pain upon mocing the eye, spontaneously remitting in 2-8 weeks, but each relapse damages more of the eye. Caused by inflammation of the optic nerve, usually unilateral.+APD. Dx? Tx? What is the first sign of?
Retrobulbar neuritis tx - corticcosteroids 1st sign of multiple sclerosis
57
Inflammation of the optic nerve within the eye, can be caused by infection, meningitis, syphillis, tumor. variable vision loss and decreased pupillary light reflex. +Affarent pupillary defect if unilateral. Dx? Tx?
optic neuritis | Tx corticosteroids
58
What does the fundoscopic exam look like in pt with optic neuritis?
disk hyperemia
59
Inflammation of the internal meiobomian sebaceous gland that presents with swelling on conjunctival surface of eyelid. Dx? Tx?
Chalazion | tx: warm compress/steroid ointment
60
Infection of the external sebaceous glands of Zeiss or Mol that presents with tender red swelling at lid margin. Dx? tx?
Hordeolum (stye) | Tx: hot compress add antibiotics
61
Inflammation of the eyelids and eyelashes resulting from infection ususally S. aureus, or secondary to seborrhea. Presents as red, swollen eyelid margins with dry flakes noted on eyelashes. Dx? Tx?
Blepharitis. | Tx: Wash lid margins daily with baby shampoo control scalp seborrhea with shampoo
62
Marked swelling and erythema of the eye often with proptosis, decreased vision, limited eye movement. Can spread to cavernous sinus leading to thrombosis and meningitis. Dx? Tx?
Oribital cellulitis | Tx emergently with IV vancomycin, + 3rd gen cephalosporin, CT scan to r/o abscess
63
How do you differentiate pre septal and oribital cellulitis?
Pre-septal cellulitis will not have changes in vision or limited eye moment.
64
Infection of the lacrimal sac, usually caused by S.aureus, s. pneumo, h. influe, or s. pyogenes
Dacryocystitis
65
What is the differential Dx for Red eye?
``` Bacterial conjunctivitis Viral conjunctivitis Allergic conjunctivitis Hyphema Xerophthalmia Corneal abrasion Keratitis Uveitis Angle closure glaucoma Subconjunctival hemorrhage ```
66
Pt with minimal pain, no vision changes, has red eye PURULENT discharge, no pupillary changes RaRELY pre-auricular adenopathy (only N.gono)Dx? Tx?
Bacterial conjunctivitis | Topical flouroquinolone or erythromycin
67
``` Pt with minimal pain, no vision changes, red eye WATERY discharge, no pupillary changes Often pre-auricular adenopathy Often pharyngitis Dx? causes? Tx? ```
viral conjunctivitis Causes: adnovirus, HSV, EBC, influenza, echovirus, coxsackie Tx: None required,self-limited
68
No pain, vision, or pupil changes. red eye marked pruritis Bilaterla WaTERY eyes dx? Tx?
Allergic conjunctivitis | Antihistamine or steroid drops
69
Blood in anterior chamber of the eye, fluid level noted. Pain, no vision changes, red eye noted, No discharge, no pupil changes Dx? Cause? Tx?
Hyphema caused by blunt ocular trauma Tx: check intraocular pressure
70
Minimal pain, vision blurry, no pupillary changes no discharge. Bitot's spots and keratoconjunctivitis sicca seen. dx? causes? tx?
Xerophthalmia Causes: Sjogren's dz or vitamin a defeciency Tx artificial tears, vitamin A
71
What are bitot spots?
desquamated conjunctival cells seen in Xerophthalmia
72
How do you diagnose Keratoconjunctivitis sicca seen in Sjrogen's?
Schirmer test - place filter paper over eyelid and if not wet in 15 mins, Dx.
73
Painful, with photophobia red eye. | No puil changes, watery discharge. flourescein stain shows corneal defect...dx? Tx?
Corneal abrasion Caused by direct trauma to eye Tx: antibiotics, eye back, examine daily
74
Pain, photophobia, tearing DeCREASED VIsiOn. | Flourescein stain shows dendritic branching. Pus in anterior chamber (hypopyon - grave sign). Dx? Cause? Tx
Keratitis caused by Herpes simplex , but can be caused by adenovirus, HsV, pseudomonas, s. pneumo, staph, moraxella. Tx: emergency immediate opthalmology consult and topical vidarabine
75
Inflammation of the iris, ciliary body, and/or choroid Pain, miosis, photophobia Flare and cells seen on aqueous humor on slit lamp examination. Dx? Causes? Tx?
Uveitis Seen in seronegative spondyloarthropathy, IBD, sarcoidosis or infection (cmv, syphillis, TB) Tx: underlying disease
76
Severe eye pain, red eye, decreased vision, halos around lights, fixed mid-dilated pupil, eyeball firm to pressure and vomiting. Dx? Cause? Tx?
Acute closure glaucoma decreased aqueous humor outflow via canal of Schlemm - mydriatics can also cause Tx: EMERGENCY - IV mannitol and glaucoma acetazolamide, laser iridotomy, timolol bromonidine
77
Spontaneous onset of painless bright red patch caused by rupture of episcleral vessel. Dx? Cause? Tx?
Subconjunctival hemorrhage overexertion, valsalva, or trauma Can also be seen in pts with uncontrolled HTN Tx: self limited, check blood pressure
78
Yellow eye (icterus) caused by
bilirubin staining the sclera
79
yellow vision seen in what drug toxicity?
digoxin
80
Blue vision due to what drug use?
Viagra
81
Blue sclera seen in what 2 dz?
Osteogenesis imperfecta OR Marfans
82
Opaque Eye DDx
``` Cataracts Tumor Glaucoma congenital Diabetes- sorbital precipitation Hurler's disease ```
83
If child has opaque eye, what to r/o?
Retinoblastoma
84
Defect in iduronidase causing multiorgan mucopolysaccaride accumulation, dwarfism, hepatosplenomegaly, corenal clouding, progressive mental retardation, death by age 10
Hurler's disease
85
How long after diabetes does retinopathy occur?
about 10 years
86
What is the best predictor of diabetic retinopathy?
direct correlation of A1c
87
What are the 2 types diabetic retinopathy?
Background type | Proliferative type
88
What does the retina look like in background type retinopathy? tx?
Flame hemorrhages, microaneurysms and hard/soft exudates (cotton-wool spots) on retina tx: strict glucose and HTN control
89
What does the retina look like in proliferative type diabetic retinopathy? tx?
More advanced dz, with neovascularization easily visible around the fundus (hyperemia) and hard exudates. Tx: photocoagulation (laser ablation of blood vessels in the retinal) which slows the progression but is not curative.
90
Painless loss of visual acuity and presents with altered pigmentation in the macula. Pt retains peripheral vision. Dx? tx?
Age related macular degeneration | antioxidants, and anti-VEGF
91
Presents with painless dark vitreous floaters, flashes of light (photopsias), blurry vision, eventually progressing to a cutain of blindness as it worsens. dx? Tx?
Retinal detachment | Tx urgent opthamology consult
92
Slowly progressive defect in night vision (often starts in young children) with ring shaped scotoma (blind spot) that gradually increases in size to obscure more vision. Dx? Cause? What syndrome is this part of? Tx?
Retinitis Pigmentosa Hereditary, not clcear part of Laurence-Moon-Biedl syndrome No Tx
93
Absent red reflex, actually appears white seen in retinoblastoma
Leukocoria
94
small hemorrhagic spots with central clearing associated with endocarditis
Roth Spots
95
Copper wiring, flame hemorrhages, AV nicking seen in what?
subacute HTN and/or arthrosclerosis
96
_______ appears as disk hyperemia, blurring, and elevation. associated with increased intracranial pressure
Papilledema
97
________ neovascularization seen in sickle cell anemia
Sea Fan
98
______ Seen on retina during retinal detachment
Wrinkles
99
_________ seen on macula seen in Tay Sachs, Niemann pick dz and central renal artery occlusion
Cherry red spot macula
100
Yellow cholesterol emboli in retinal artery
Hollenhorst plaque
101
Brown raised macule on the retina
Malignant melanoma (MC intraocular tumor in adults)
102
Read about glaucoma p 444
open vs closed glaucoma?
103
What is the most common adult orbital tumor?
cavernous hemangioma - large well circumscribed vascular tumor (proptosis of the eye)
104
From where do most of the metastases to the oribit come from?
breast, lung, prostate
105
What kind of orbital tumors show a spectrum from benign reactive lymphoid hyperplasia to lymphoma in older pts?
Lymphoid tumors
106
Mesenchymal orbital tumor
fibrous hystiocytoma
107
cystic mass of sinuses caused by duct obstruction, frontal and ethmoid sinuses most commonly involves.
Mucocele
108
Bony tumor -orbital
fiberous dysplasia
109
Tumor of the peripheral nerve seen in neurofibromatosis
schwannoma
110
what's the most common orbital tumor in children (vascular)? Dx? tx?
capillary hemangioma | tx: beta blockers
111
benign cystic mass with connective tissue and skin appendages (hair, sebaceous glands)
Dermoid cyst
112
What is the most common orbital malignancy in children?
rhabdomyosarcoma
113
tumor of early childhood with large lymph channels, often have hemorrhage
lymphangioma
114
Most common metastatic tumor in children, ecchymosis with proptosis
neuroblastoma
115
what is the gold standard for imaging orbit esp for foreign body?
CT scan, never MRI bc magnet might move object if it's metallic.
116
Review p 448- 451
eye-related trauma and opthalmic medications