Urological cancers Flashcards

(42 cards)

1
Q

What is the most common type of kidney cancer?

A

Renal cell carcinoma (adenocarcinoma)

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2
Q

What is the name of the cancer where malignant cells form in the renl pelvis (top part of the kidney) and ureter?

A

Transitional cell carcinoma

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3
Q

What is a red flag symptom that can reflect any urological malignancy in the kidney, ureter, bladder or urethra?

A

Painless haematuria or Persistent microscopic haematuria (latter often in incidental scanning)

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4
Q

What is the most common presentation in kidney cancer patients?

A

Haematuria

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5
Q

What could you expect to find on physical examination of a kidney cancer patient?

A

Palpable mass

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6
Q

If you suspect kidney cancer, what should be done?

A

CT renal triple phase - assessment of renal masses

Staging CT Chest

Bone scan if symptomatic

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7
Q

What does the T1-4 mean in the TNM staging of RCC?

A

T1 – Tumour ≤ 7cm

T2 – Tumour >7cm

T3 – Extends outside kidney but not beyond ipsilateral adrenal or perinephric fascia

T4 – Tumour beyond perinephric fascia into surrounding structures

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8
Q

Define the N1-2 in the TNM staging of RCC?

A

N1 - Metastasis in single regional lymph node

N2 - Metastasis in ≥2 regional lymph nodes

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9
Q

What is meant by M1 in TNM staging of RCC?

A

Distant metastasis.

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10
Q

What grading system do you use for kidney cancer and describe what the different grades mean

A

FUHRMANS GRADE
1 = well differentiated

2 = moderate differentiated

3 + 4 = poorly differentiated

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11
Q

What is the gold standard for kidney cancer management?

A

Partial nephrectomy

Radical nephrectomy - especially for RCC

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12
Q

When would you consider partial nephrectomy over a radical nephrectomy?

A

-Single kidney
-Bilateral tumour
-T1 tumours

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13
Q

In patients with small tumours unfit for surgery, what management is considered?

A

Cryosurgery

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14
Q

In metastatic disease, what management is considered?

A

Receptor Tyrsoine Kinase inhibitors

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15
Q

What is the most common type of bladder cancer?

A

90% of bladder cancer is Transitional Cell Carcinoma

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16
Q

Where shistosomiasis is endemic, what type of bladder cancer is most common?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

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17
Q

What are additional features of bladder cancer?

A

Suprapubic pain

Lower urinary tract symptoms - burning pee, bloody urine etc

Metastatic disease symptoms - bone pain, lower limb swelling

Irritative - going to the toilet a lot

18
Q

If a patient has painless visible haematuria but you suspect anaemia, what test might you order?

19
Q

What investigations would you carry out when there is painless visible haematuria?

A

-Flexible cytoscopy
-CT urogram
-Renal function

20
Q

What investigations should be carried out for persistent microscopic haematuria?

A

Flexible cystoscopy

US Kidneys and Urinary Bladder - does not look at ureters in males, this is only seen in females

21
Q

If biopsy is proven muscle invasive, then what investigation set should be done?

A

Staging investigations

22
Q

What is the difference between Ta and Tis in TNM staging of bladder cancer?

A

Ta - non invasive papillary carcinoma

Tis - carcinoma in situ

23
Q

What is the WHO classification grading system for bladder cancer?

A

G1 - Well differentiated

G2 - Moderate differentiated

G3 - Poorly differentiated

24
Q

If the cancer is multifocal, what is treatment is recommended?

A

Bladder chemotherapy

25
What is MRI useful for in bladder cancers?
For fistula detection and investigation
26
What is a fistula?
A fistula is an abnormal connection or passageway that forms between two organs or between an organ and the skin.
27
When a patient acutely presents with haematuria, what investigation is performed?
Cystoscopy + Transuretheral resection of bladder lesion Uses heat to cut out all visible bladder tumour
28
What is the management for non-muscle invasive bladder cancer?
If low grade and no carcinoma in situ: -cystoscopic surveillance +/- intravesicular chemotherapy/Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (intravesicular immunotherapy that triggers immune response of bladder)
29
If the bladder cancer is muscle invasive, then what management should be carried out?
Cystectomy Radiotherapy - but may not be fit enough +/- chemotherapy as neo-adjuvant Palliative treatment
30
What blood tests would you take whilst investigating prostate cancer?
PSA test (prostate specific antigen)
31
Why should you not screen for PSA in a patient with a UTI?
UTI can cause the prostate to enlarge which increases PSA
32
What investigation is superior to the previous gold standard of transrectal ultrasonography-guided prostate biopsies?
Multiparametric MRI before biopsy and then MRI targeted biopsy
33
What is the preferred way of taking a biopsy of the prostate?
Trans perineal prostate biopsy
34
What is meant by T1-4 in the TNM staging of prostate cancer?
T1 – non palpable or visible on imaging T2 – palpable tumour T3 – beyond prostatic capsule into periprostatic fat T4 – tumour fixed onto adjacent structure/pelvic side wall
35
What is meant by T1a-T1c?
T1a means cancer is <5% of removed tissue T1b means cancer is ≥5% of removed tissue T1c cancers are found by biopsy, for example after raised PSA level
36
What does T2a-T2c mean?
T2a - cancer only half on one side of prostate gland T2b - cancer in more than half a side of prostate gland but not on both sides T2c - cancer in both sides but still inside prostate gland
37
What is meant by T3a-T3b?
T3a - cancer broken through capsule of prostate gland T3b - cancer spread into seminal vesicles
38
What is meant by N1 in TNM staging of prostate cancer?
Regional lymph node involvement (pelvis)
39
What is meant by M1a, M1b and M1x in TNM staging of prostate cancer?
M1a- non regional LN (outside the pelvis) M1b- bone M1x- other sites
40
What do you use to report how differentiated a cancer cell is?
Gleason score.
41
If the patient is young and fit, then how does the management change if they have high or low grade cancer?
High grade (7 or +) → Radical prostatectomy/Radiotherapy Low grade → Active surveillance (Regular PSA, MRI and Bx)
42
What are the side effects of the prostatectomy?
Incontinence - due to removal of proximal sphincter and so there is increased urethral length Erectile Dysfunction - damage to cavernous nerves (innervation to bladder and urethra)