Urology Flashcards

(37 cards)

1
Q

Name the structures of the renal hilum from anterior to posterior.

A
  • vein
  • artery
  • ureter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which renal vein can be ligated given more robust collaterals?

A

the left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe the course of the right renal artery.

A

posterior to the IVC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe the relationship of the ureter to major vessels.

A
  • over the iliacs
  • under the uterine artery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the most common cause of urinary retention in males?

A

prostatomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How long does a suprapubic tract take to mature?

A

4-6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How often should chronic indwelling catheters be changed?

A

every 4-6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the most common type of kidney stones?

A

calcium oxalate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Staghorn calculi is a buzzword for what type of nephrolithiasis?

A

struvite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which type of kidney stones are radiolucent?

A
  • urate
  • cysteine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are five indications for surgical intervention for kidney stones?

A
  • intractable pain
  • non-resolving infection
  • progressive obstruction/renal damage
  • stones unlikely to spontaneously pass (>6mm)
  • patient with a solitary kidney
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What size kidney stone is unlikely to pass spontaneously?

A

one that is > 6mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are contraindications to extra-corporeal shock wave lithotripsy?

A
  • pregnancy
  • disposition to easily bleed
  • stones that are several cm in size
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Varicoceles have a predominance for which side? Why?

A

the left because the left gonadal vein drains into the L renal vein (R drains into the IVC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Isolated right sided varicoceles are concerning for what?

A

a retroperitoneal process since the R gonadal drains directly into the IVC and shouldn’t be a source of high pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the differential for a painless enlarged scrotum?

A
  • hydrocele
  • inguinal hernia
  • tumor
  • varicocele
  • spermatocele
17
Q

Hydroceles are an accumulation in what space?

A

between the parietal and visceral layers of the tunica vaginalis

18
Q

What is the natural history of a non-communicating hydrocele in a pediatric patient?

A

most will spontaneously resolve

19
Q

How can you differentiate a spermatocele from a hydrocele on exam?

A

typically can palpate the fluid collection and the testicle for a spermatocele but not for a hydrocele

20
Q

What is the number one cause of cancer-related mortality in young men?

A

testicular cancer

21
Q

What is the diagnostic/staging workup for a testicular tumor?

A
  • scrotal US
  • CT C/A/P
  • B-hCG, AFP, LDH
22
Q

What are the two types of germ cell tumors and what is the fastest way to differentiate between the two?

A
  • seminoma and non-seminoma
  • seminomas have no AFP elevation
23
Q

How are testicular seminomas differentiated from non-seminomas? How are they treated?

A
  • seminomas have normal AFP
  • treat with orchiectomy and retroperitoneal XRT for all stages
  • chemotherapy is reserved for bulky RP metastatic disease
24
Q

How are testicular non-seminomas differentiated from seminomas? How are they treated?

A
  • have an elevated AFP
  • treat with orchiectomy and RP lymph node dissection
  • neoadjuvant therapy for anyone with spread beyond the testis
25
What is the recommendation for prostate cancer screening?
- PSA every 1-2 years - no DRE - begin at age 40-45 for high risk men - begin at age 50 for average risk
26
Describe the staging workup for prostate cancer.
- CT C/A/P - bone scan - trans-rectal US-guideed biopsy - alk phos and PSA
27
What red flag symptom should prompt evaluation for bladder cancer?
painless hematuria
28
What is the most common cause of acute renal insufficiency after surgery?
hypotension
29
What childhood condition leads to an increased risk of testicular cancer?
undescended testicles increase the risk of seminoma
30
What is the treatment for testicular torsion?
- detorision - resection if ischemic - bilateral orchiopexy
31
How can you distinguish testicular torsion from epididymitis?
ultrasound
32
How does testicular rupture appear on ultrasound?
heterogenous echo patterns of the testis and disruption of the tunica albuginea
33
What is the most common tumor in the kidney?
mets from breast cancer
34
What is the most common location for RCC mets?
the lung
35
What are the most predominate features of Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome?
- multifocal and recurrent RCC - pheochromocytomas - CNS tumors
36
What is the most common primary and metastatic tumor sites for prostate cancer?
- primary: posterior lobe - mets: bone
37
What is the diagnosis and treatment for seizures and AMS after a TURP?
- hyponatremia secondary to irrigation with water - treat with diuresis to correct Na