Urology Flashcards

1
Q

Name the structures of the renal hilum from anterior to posterior.

A
  • vein
  • artery
  • ureter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which renal vein can be ligated given more robust collaterals?

A

the left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe the course of the right renal artery.

A

posterior to the IVC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe the relationship of the ureter to major vessels.

A
  • over the iliacs
  • under the uterine artery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the most common cause of urinary retention in males?

A

prostatomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How long does a suprapubic tract take to mature?

A

4-6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How often should chronic indwelling catheters be changed?

A

every 4-6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the most common type of kidney stones?

A

calcium oxalate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Staghorn calculi is a buzzword for what type of nephrolithiasis?

A

struvite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which type of kidney stones are radiolucent?

A
  • urate
  • cysteine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are five indications for surgical intervention for kidney stones?

A
  • intractable pain
  • non-resolving infection
  • progressive obstruction/renal damage
  • stones unlikely to spontaneously pass (>6mm)
  • patient with a solitary kidney
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What size kidney stone is unlikely to pass spontaneously?

A

one that is > 6mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are contraindications to extra-corporeal shock wave lithotripsy?

A
  • pregnancy
  • disposition to easily bleed
  • stones that are several cm in size
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Varicoceles have a predominance for which side? Why?

A

the left because the left gonadal vein drains into the L renal vein (R drains into the IVC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Isolated right sided varicoceles are concerning for what?

A

a retroperitoneal process since the R gonadal drains directly into the IVC and shouldn’t be a source of high pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the differential for a painless enlarged scrotum?

A
  • hydrocele
  • inguinal hernia
  • tumor
  • varicocele
  • spermatocele
17
Q

Hydroceles are an accumulation in what space?

A

between the parietal and visceral layers of the tunica vaginalis

18
Q

What is the natural history of a non-communicating hydrocele in a pediatric patient?

A

most will spontaneously resolve

19
Q

How can you differentiate a spermatocele from a hydrocele on exam?

A

typically can palpate the fluid collection and the testicle for a spermatocele but not for a hydrocele

20
Q

What is the number one cause of cancer-related mortality in young men?

A

testicular cancer

21
Q

What is the diagnostic/staging workup for a testicular tumor?

A
  • scrotal US
  • CT C/A/P
  • B-hCG, AFP, LDH
22
Q

What are the two types of germ cell tumors and what is the fastest way to differentiate between the two?

A
  • seminoma and non-seminoma
  • seminomas have no AFP elevation
23
Q

How are testicular seminomas differentiated from non-seminomas? How are they treated?

A
  • seminomas have normal AFP
  • treat with orchiectomy and retroperitoneal XRT for all stages
  • chemotherapy is reserved for bulky RP metastatic disease
24
Q

How are testicular non-seminomas differentiated from seminomas? How are they treated?

A
  • have an elevated AFP
  • treat with orchiectomy and RP lymph node dissection
  • neoadjuvant therapy for anyone with spread beyond the testis
25
Q

What is the recommendation for prostate cancer screening?

A
  • PSA every 1-2 years
  • no DRE
  • begin at age 40-45 for high risk men
  • begin at age 50 for average risk
26
Q

Describe the staging workup for prostate cancer.

A
  • CT C/A/P
  • bone scan
  • trans-rectal US-guideed biopsy
  • alk phos and PSA
27
Q

What red flag symptom should prompt evaluation for bladder cancer?

A

painless hematuria

28
Q

What is the most common cause of acute renal insufficiency after surgery?

A

hypotension

29
Q

What childhood condition leads to an increased risk of testicular cancer?

A

undescended testicles increase the risk of seminoma

30
Q

What is the treatment for testicular torsion?

A
  • detorision
  • resection if ischemic
  • bilateral orchiopexy
31
Q

How can you distinguish testicular torsion from epididymitis?

A

ultrasound

32
Q

How does testicular rupture appear on ultrasound?

A

heterogenous echo patterns of the testis and disruption of the tunica albuginea

33
Q

What is the most common tumor in the kidney?

A

mets from breast cancer

34
Q

What is the most common location for RCC mets?

A

the lung

35
Q

What are the most predominate features of Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome?

A
  • multifocal and recurrent RCC
  • pheochromocytomas
  • CNS tumors
36
Q

What is the most common primary and metastatic tumor sites for prostate cancer?

A
  • primary: posterior lobe
  • mets: bone
37
Q

What is the diagnosis and treatment for seizures and AMS after a TURP?

A
  • hyponatremia secondary to irrigation with water
  • treat with diuresis to correct Na