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Flashcards in Urology Exam Deck (239)
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1
Q

Upper UTIs

A

To kidneys

pyelonephritis: renal abscess, perirenal abscess

2
Q

Lower UTIs

A

urethritis, cystitis, (prostatitis)

3
Q

Classifications of UTIs

A

community acquired
nosocomial (from catheter)
upper v lower
complicated v non-complicated

4
Q

UTI in elderly

A

40-50% asymptomatic bacteruria

5
Q

group w/highest prevalence of UTIs

A

reproductive age females

6
Q

Renal abscess

A

pus pocket in kidneys

7
Q

perirenal abscess

A

abscess in fascia and fat

8
Q

Mechanisms of UTI

A

Ascending infection
hematogenous
fistula

9
Q

Pregnancy effect on UTIs

A

4-10% incidence

20-40% untreated get pyelonephritis

10
Q

What bacteria causes 80% of first UTIs?

A

E. coli (1, 4, 6, 18, 75)

11
Q

What are the two differential diagnoses for UTIs?

A

dysuria (infectious, non-infect)

acute intra-abdominal diseases (appendicitis, cholecystitis, etc.)

12
Q

What organism causes UTI in 10-15% young females?

A

staph. saprophyticus

13
Q

Factors that predispose UTI

A
Age
pregnancy
diabetes
MS
spinal cord injuries
immun compromised
malignancy
14
Q

Organisms that cause complicated and uncomplicated UTIs

A

uncomplicated: E. coli
complicated: s. saprophyticus, resistant: pseudomonas, proteus

15
Q

UTI is one of top ten concurrent illness with…?

A

Diabetes!

16
Q

UTI general symptoms

A

suprapubic pain/heaviness
hematuria
pain near/in epigastrium - radiate inferiorly

17
Q

How many colonies of pathogen accounts for acute urethral syndrome (urethritis)? and what is it during pregnancy?

A

<100,000

pregnancy: 10,000

18
Q

definition of hemorrhagic cystitis

A

bladder inflammation w/dysuria, hematuria, or hemorrhage

19
Q

interstitial cystitis (aka bladder pain syndrome)

A

pain w/full bladder (urinary urgency, pain relieved by emptying)
Dx of exclusion (unknown cause)

20
Q

most common symptoms of interstitial cystitis*

A

bladder pain, nocturia, frequency, urgency, suprapubic pain

21
Q

Hunner’s lesions (ulcers)

A

In interstitial cystitis
thinning of bladder wall and pinpoint bleeding
causes pain if come in contact w/other bladder surfaces

22
Q

Pyelonephritis

A

infection of renal parenchyma and pelvis

women 5X men

23
Q

Presentation of pyelonephritis

A
fever >102F, chills (may be absent in 1/3 elderly)
flank pain
N/V
CVAT- UNI-lateral
pyuria
leukocytosis
24
Q

How to Dx Pyelonephritis

A
CBC: leukocytosis
urine culture: 90% positive!!
Urinalysis: pyuria, nitrates, hematuria
Gram Stain: before empiric Tx
Blood cultures: only if Dx uncertain
25
Q

Normal urine culture results

A

<10,000 organisms/ml

26
Q

Abnormal urine culture results

A

> 100,000 organisms/ml - WOMEN

>10,000 organisms/ ml - PREG, MEN

27
Q

Pyelonephritis Tx

A

fluoroquinolone (Cipro)

amoxicillin

28
Q

azotemia

A

elevated BUN

get w/late renal obstruction

29
Q

Red Flags for urolithiasis

A
flank pain
fever
elevated WBC 
gravel (small stones)
immunocompromised
children 
recurrent/nonresolving infection
30
Q

Tx for urolithiasis

A

Penicillins - can have resistance quickly (E. coli)
Sulfonamides - G6PD deficiency (hemolysis)
macrobid (nitroflurantoin)
cipro - least resistance for e. coli

31
Q

Tx for interstitial cystitis

A

elmiron (PO)

DMSO - through catheter into bladder to coat lining

32
Q

Moderate to Severe kidney infection tx

A

IV ceftrioxone or gentamycin

33
Q

Dx for UTI

A

urinalysis
urine dip stick
culture: predispositions

34
Q

What does cranberry juice do for UTIs?

A

Acidify urine

35
Q

Why does prostate involvement in UTIs cause lower back pain?

A

prostate drains to sacral lymph node and up spine

36
Q

What urine is best for urinalysis?

A

First voided urine

mid-stream (vulva/plans penis cleansed beforehand)

37
Q

When is microscopic urinalysis done and what does it look at?

A

if urinalysis/dipstick abnormal

cellular elements, cats, crystals, RBC, WBC, yeast, malignancy

38
Q

Basic urinalysis/dip stick

A

gross exam

chemical: pH, glu, bili, protein, ketones, blood, nitrate

39
Q

milky urine

A

pyruia, lipiduria, chyluria (lymph fluid)

40
Q

cloudy urine

A

bacteria, yeast, calculi, fecal, sperm, prostate fluid

41
Q

How can myoglobinuria (from muscle trauma) change urine

A

red or bown-black

42
Q

Rhabdomyolysis

A

muscle breakdown –> kidney damage –> black urine

43
Q

Pseudomonas infection change urine to…?

A

blue, green, blue-green (also chlorophyll: cancer, wound healing, weight control, liver detox)

44
Q

specific gravity

A

density of specimen, correlates w/urine osmolality

normal: 1.001-1.035

45
Q

urine osmolality

A

particles/weight of fluid

46
Q

fixed specific gravity at 1.01

A

isosthenuria (intrinsic renal insufficiency)

47
Q

normal urine pH

A

5.0 - 6.0

48
Q

relative hydration v relative dehydration in specific gravity

A

value of less than 1.010 –> relative hydration

value greater than 1.020 –> relative dehydration

49
Q

causes of low specific gravity

A

DI, pyleno/glomerulo, diuretics, adrenal insufficiency

50
Q

causes of high specific gravity

A

dehydration, glycosuria, impaired renal function, SIADH

51
Q

Relationship between urinary pH and serum pH*

A

urinary pH reflects the pH in the serum

52
Q

Risk of alkaline pH

A

staghorn calculi

pseudomonas, proteus infection

53
Q

How to further evaluate persistent positive proteinuria on dipstick?

A

24hr urine collect

54
Q

Postural Proteinuria

A

prolonged standing –> proteinuria
(during day but not night)
“orthostatic” proteinuria

55
Q

order of severity of different proteinurias

A

microalbuminuria –> albuminuria –> proteinuria –> heavy proteinuria

56
Q

microalbumin helps detect..?

A

early DM (–> renal mortality)

57
Q

Glycosuria in..?

A

DM
Fanconi’s syndrome
liver/pancreatic disease

58
Q

How to determine site of bleeding

A

blood beginning of stream: urethral
diffuse: bladder or above (total, all throughout)
blood end of stream: prostate, base of bladder

59
Q

Dipstick in detecting UTI

A

85-95% effective as culture

>10 WBC/hpf –> inflam.

60
Q

How do nitrites get in urine?

A

bacteria produce reductase to reduce urinary nitrate to nitrite
E. coli, klebsiella, enterobacter, proteus, staph., pseudomonas

61
Q

significance of conjugated bilirubin and urobilinogen in urine

A

usually undetectable levels in urine
liver dysfunction, biliary obstruction
hemolysis (urobilinogen)

62
Q

What part of urine is examined in microscopic exam?

A

centrifuged sediment

very helpful as confirmatory and detecting new info

63
Q

casts (urine)

A

tube shaped proteins

helps localize disease to specific location in GU

64
Q

What amount of RBC is abnormal in urine

A

> 3 RBC/HFP

65
Q

Most common cause of WBC in urine*

A

UTI

66
Q

ATN = acute tubular necrosis

A

kidney disorder: damage to tubule cells of kidneys –> acute kidney failure

67
Q

significance of a lot of squamous epithelial cells in urine sediment

A

contamination

68
Q

Painless gross hematuria is…?*

A

CANCER UNTIL PROVEN OTHERWISE
(85% bladder, 40%renal cell)
usually uroepithelial tumor

69
Q

Is hematuria screened?

A

No, bc common and asymptomatic in many

70
Q

Types of hematuria diseases

A

maple syrup urine disease: autosomal recessive, branched chain AAs
iced tea urine: dehydration or acute kidney injury
coca-cola urine: choluria, bile in urine

71
Q

clots in urine USUALLY indicate…?

A

lower urinary tract source

72
Q

True or false: Amount of blood loss does not correlate to color change

A

true

73
Q

1st step w/gross hematuria specimen*

A

centrifugation

74
Q

after centrifugation, SEDIMENT is red. what does it mean?

A

hematuria

75
Q

after centrifugation, supernatant is red. what does it mean?

A

need to dipstick for other causes

76
Q

Red supernatant, heme negative dipstick

A

porphyria, phenazopyridine, beeturia

77
Q

Red supernatant, heme positive dipstick

A

myoglobinuria (clear plasma), hemoglobinuria (red plasma)

78
Q

microscopic hematuria is found…?

A

incidentally

79
Q

Source of microscopic hematuria*

A

most commonly RENAL

80
Q

Source of gross hematuria*

A

most commonly UROEPITHELIAL

81
Q

causes of hematuria

A

prerenal: systemic
renal: glomerular, non-glomerular
postrenal: ureters, bladder, urethra, prostate

82
Q

Prerenal hematuria: systemic examples

A

coagulopathy
anticoagulation
collagen vascular disease
sickle cell

83
Q

Red cell casts and what can be Dx*

A
cylindrical structure (microscopy)
Dx: glomerulonephritis or vasculitis --> kidney biopsy
84
Q

Isomorphic RBC in urine sediment marks what type of bleeding?

A

non-glomerular

85
Q

Dysmorphic RBC in urine sediment marks what type of disease?

A

glomerular diseases

86
Q

What to rule out w/postrenal causes?*

A

malignancy of bladder and ureter!

87
Q

Differential Dx of hematuria

A

TICS

88
Q

What is a big risk factor for malignancy from hematuria findings?*

A

tobacco use (2x)

89
Q

most common urologic cancer

A

transitional cell carcinoma (bladder cancer)

90
Q

what Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) do to urine?

A

make it dark orange to red

91
Q

when is cytology used?

A

in conjunction w/other tests for cancer (only in sepcific situations)

92
Q

What can CT urography show?

A

stones very well (more than U/S)
blood
cancers

93
Q

when to use cystoscopy

A

gross hematuria:

  • no evidence of glomerular disease or infection
  • OR with clots
94
Q

conditions that causes ulceration of penis*

A

HPV
Syphilis
chancre
chancroid

95
Q

categories of prostate disease

A

benign neoplastic (BPH)
infectious (prostatitis)
malignant (prostate ca)

96
Q

Leading cancer diagnosed in males?

A

prostate cancer (men die with not of)

97
Q

crenated cell*

A

RBC with spikey appearance

when in hypertonic urine

98
Q

ghost cell*

A

RBC that lost hemoglobin bc in hypotonic cell and absorbed water –> swollen

99
Q

waxy cast

A

deteriorated from granular cast

smooth

100
Q

Frequency of BPH (benign prostatic hyperplasia)

A

50% males at 50yo

101
Q

Functions of prostate

A

muscle seals off bladder during ejaculation, propels
30% semen
gland: secrete alkaline fluid, protects sperm in acidic vagina

102
Q

prostate specific antigen (PSA) function

A

produced by prostate that dissolves cervical mucous cap

evaluated for prostate function

103
Q

Growth of prostate accessory organs are dependent on what?

A

androgens (have androgen receptors)

104
Q

What hormone regulates prostate?

A

5-alpha reductase metabolize testosterone to DHT –> regulates prostate

105
Q

3 zones of prostate

A

central
transitional
peripheral: post lat

106
Q

which zone of prostate is where 70% of cancer

A

peripheral zone

107
Q

which zone of prostate is responsible for BPH

A

Transitional

108
Q

When does growth phase begin again for prostate?

A

40-50yo

109
Q

Symptoms of BPH (LUTS)*

A

bladder outlet obstruction
hypertrophy of detrusor muscle
decreased capacity of bladder

110
Q

most common urologic emergency

A

Acute Urinary Retention

111
Q

Bladder volume in Acute Urinary Retention*

A

≥300 cc of urine

112
Q

Absolute contraindication for catheterization in urologic emergencies?*

A

urethral injury (blood) at meatus or hematuria

113
Q

Most common pathogen in UTI for men/women*

A

E. coli

114
Q

Renal colic

A

type of pain w/kidney stones on affected side
comes in waves
stone stuck in urinary tract

115
Q

what size stone usually passes through?

A

<10mm

116
Q

Significance of UTI in males?*

A

ALWAYS complicated!

117
Q

What is urosepsis caused by?

A

UTI traveling up –> systemic infection

emergency

118
Q

Tx of testicular torsion

A

surgical detorsion
4-6 hrs: 100% viability
12hrs: 20%
24hrs: 0%!!!

119
Q

most common age for testicular torsion?

A

12-18 yo

120
Q

differential Dx for testicular torision

A

twisting of vestigial appendage along testicle (younger pts) - blue dot sign (necrosis/infarct)
use doppler U/S to differentiate
pain resolves 5-10 days

121
Q

penile fracture

A

rupture of one of tunica albuginea
“eggplant deformity”
during tumescence

122
Q

priapism

A

prolonged erection not w/sex stimulus
doppler U/S
ISCHEMIC V NON-ISCHEMIC

123
Q

Ischemic v Non-ischemic priapism

A

ischemic: blood doesn’t drain from penis properly –> can permanent ED, emergency surgery, painful
non-ischemic: Connection forming b/t an artery and corpus cavernosum, painless, not emergency

124
Q

azoospermia*

A

no sperm in semen

125
Q

What can kill sperm?

A

high temp

126
Q

PRE-TESTICULAR cause of infertility

A

gonadotropic hypogonadism
pituitary disease
endocrine: androgen excess, glucocorticoid, thyroidisms
hyperprolactinemia: inhibit GNRH

127
Q

examples of gonadotropic hypogonadism in pre-testicular infertility

A

isolated gonadotropin (Kalman’s)
isolate LH or FSH
congenital

128
Q

examples of pituitary disease in pre-testicular infertility

A

pituitary insufficiency
hemochromatosis: iron deposits
exogenous hormones: excess estrogen

129
Q

TESTICULAR causes of infertility

A

GENETICS: primary failure
varicocele: 40% primary and secondary

130
Q

Most common attributable cause of primary and secondary infertility in males- 40%*

A

varicocele

131
Q

Which side is more common for varicocele?

A

left (80-90%)

132
Q

POST-TESTICULAR cause of infertility

A

disorders of sperm transport

disorders of sperm motility/function: congenital, maturation

133
Q

Globozoospermia*

A

maturation defect

No acrosin-no penetration of zona pellucida

134
Q

Sperm DNA fragmentation

A

greater than 30% index –> reduce fertility

“Normal” (morphology and motility) sperm may have DNA fragmentation!*

135
Q

biggest concern for sperm DNA fragmentation

A

age! >46yo

136
Q

biggest cause of azoospermia*

A

40% obstructive

137
Q

what happens in andropause by age 80?**

A

testosterone levels around pre-pubertal levels

138
Q

Psychological symptoms of andropause?

A

anxiety

depression

139
Q

sexual symptoms of andropause?*

A

impotence: loss of erection

140
Q

Physiologically, what does low testosterone do?

A

increase cholesterol (precursor)

141
Q

function of draping

A

separate surgically clean areas away from non-surgically clean areas to prevent further contamination

142
Q

International prostate symptom score

A

1-7 mild

20-35 severe

143
Q

Tx of BPH

A

mild: watch
mild-moderate: alpha blocker (hytrin)
severe: alpha blocker, 5 alpha reductase inhibitor (effective on 30% patients)
severe: surgery (TURP)

144
Q

turp

A

trans urethral resection of prostate

gold standard for BPH

145
Q

Effect of chronic bacterial prostatitis

A

recurrent UTIs, uncommon (acute least common)

146
Q

Types of prostatitis

A

acute/chronic bacterial prostatitis
chronic prostatitis
asymptomatic inflammatory prostatitis

147
Q

rectal exam result in acute bacterial prostatitis

A

exquisitely tender, swollen, firm and hot prostate

148
Q

prostate cancer symptoms

A

may be asymptomatic or mimic BPH

149
Q

Gleeson grading system

A

quantify cancer aggressiveness

150
Q

Prostate cancer treatment in young patients

A

radical prostatectomy

151
Q

lab result in BPH

A

PSA slightly elevated

152
Q

Conditions for ulcerations of penis*

A

chancre: primary syphilis, painless, palpate edge
chancroid: painful, soft edge, inguinal adenopathy
syphilis
HSV: ulcerating painful lesions
Erythroplasia of Queyrat
fixed drug eruption

153
Q

Phimosis v. Paraphimosis*

A

Phi: foreskin cannot be fully retracted
Para: UROLOGIC EMERGENCY; foreskin cant go back over glans!

154
Q

Paraphimosis*

A

Inability to return the retracted foreskin to its natural position covering the glans. –> EDEMA AND CONGESTION OF GLANS* –> PENILE NECROSIS

155
Q

Meatal Stenosis, in child?

A

narrowing of the opening of theurethra

sx: Urine flow reduced and hesitant. Urine stream goes upward instead of downward

156
Q

Hypospadius*

A
urethral meatus more proximal
unknown cause (hormonal defic. or compression in utero?)
157
Q

Peyronie’s Disease*

A

by fibrous scarring or plaques within the tunica albuginea
cause: micro/macrotrauma (break penis)
“saxophone penis”

158
Q

Reactive Arthritis*

A

REITER’S SYNDROME

159
Q

Another name for Erythroplasia of Queyrat*

A

Bowman’s disease of glans penis

160
Q

Chordee (assoc w/hypospadius)

A

deficiency of ventral skin compared to dorsal skin

illusion of curvature OF GLANS when the penis is erect

161
Q

Chordee (assoc w/hypospadius)*

A

deficiency of ventral skin compared to dorsal skin

illusion of curvature OF GLANS when the penis is erect

162
Q

risk assoc w/hypospadius*

A

9% cryptorchidism (cancer risk)

9% inguinal hernia (w/hydrocele)

163
Q

RISK FACTORS FOR PEYRONIE’S DISEASE**

A
HTN
DM
gout
beta-blockers
possible vit E deficiency
NOT hygiene
164
Q

Peyronie’s disease –> associated disorders?

A

Dupuytren’s contractures
ledderhose disease
autoimmune conditions

165
Q

Dupuytren’s contractures

A

progressive thickening and shorting of the palmar fascia leading to debilitating digital contractures

166
Q

Ledderhose disease

A

plantar fibromatosischaracterized by thickening of the foot’s deep connective tissue

167
Q

Indications for surgical Tx of peyronie’s disease

A

disease for 1 year
Dx for 6 months
severity in sexual dysfunction

168
Q

Phimosis

A

foreskin cannot be fully retracted (urine breaks down skin)

congenital or acquired

169
Q

Risk of acquired phimosis*

A
repeated catheterization; forceful foreskin retraction***
infections
poor hygiene
lichen sclerosis
DM
170
Q

common symptoms of phimosis

A

Unable to retract prepuce
Narrowing or diversion of the urinary stream
Ballooning of prepuce with urination

171
Q

Tx of phimosis

A

elective circumcision - procedure of choice

children: wait until 5 yo (may resolve)

172
Q

Risk of paraphimosis*

A

Iatrogenic: Health care provider leaves foreskin retracted after penile examination, cleaning, cystoscopy, or catheter insertion.

173
Q

Balanoposthitis*

A

Inflammation of glans (balanitis) and foreskin (posthitis)

causes: STD

174
Q

Fournier’s Gangrene*

A

Bacterial infection of the skin on genitals and perineum from wound infection

175
Q

Penile cancer can start from what?*

A

condyloma accuminata, HPV 16 50%

176
Q

Penile cancer

A

get bad very quickly, need to be caught early!

177
Q

Buschke-Löwenstein tumor

A

HPV 6 and 11 - verrucous carcinoma of the penis

178
Q

Erythroplasia of Queyrat

A

In situ form of squamous cell carcinoma on glans penis

multiple red plaques

179
Q

who is most commonly affected by Erythroplasia of Queyra

A

older uncircumcised men

180
Q

psoriasis on penis

A

thick, scaly plaques

181
Q

Reiter’s disease

A

reactive arthritis
infection Autoimmune response (chlamydia)
Sx: arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis (can’t see, can’t pee, can’t climb a tree)
20-40% (men): painless penile lesions (balanitis circinata) distinctive winding erosions

182
Q

cremaster reflex

A

stroke inside of thighs, testicle rises

183
Q

testicular pain differentials

A

Epididymitis/Epididymo-Orchitis
Orchitis
Testicular Torsion
Torsion of Testicular appendix

184
Q

torsion testicle

A

abrupt severe pain
no cremaster reflex affected side
high riding testing, transverse lie
prehn’s sign

185
Q

prehn’s sign

A

lack of pain relief with testicle elevation

in testicular torsion

186
Q

How to Dx testicular torsion

A

U/S

dont wanna miss!! Timing critical!

187
Q

How to Dx testicular torsion*

A

U/S

SURGICAL EMERGENCY

188
Q

Testicular torsion causes

A

testes “swinging freely” - anatomical defect

“bell clapper deformity”: no normal posterior anchoring

189
Q

intravaginal v extravaginal testicular torsion

A

Intravaginal: testicle rotates on the spermatic cord within the tunica vaginalis
Extravaginal: torsion OUTSIDE the tunica vaginalis (scrotal ligament)

190
Q

bell clapper deformity

A

testis lies HORIZONTALLY

tunica vaginalis extends up over spermatic cord –> testis suspended in tunica vaginalis by spermatic cord.

191
Q

Testicle salvage rate after 24hrs

A

0-10%

192
Q

Appendiceal Torsion

A

affect upper pole
92% remnant of mullerian duct
“blue dot sign”

193
Q

blue dot sign

A

Appendiceal Torsion - necrosis of appendage

194
Q

Tx for epididymitis*

A

<35yo: doxycycline 14 days

>50yo: cipro (WITH CAUTION)

195
Q

Mumps virus can cause…?*

A

orchitis (70% unilaterally) -

most common cause of orchitis

196
Q

Orchitis usually accompanied by…?

A

epididymitis

197
Q

bacterial orchitis Tx*

A

<35yo: Ceftriaxone AND either doxycycline or azithromycin

>50yo: Fluoroquinolone

198
Q

VIRAL ORCHITIS tX

A

Bedrest

supportive care

199
Q

Orchitis Sx

A

pain
swollen testes
hematuria

200
Q

testicular cancers are..?*

A

painless scrotal mass

201
Q

most common side of varicocele

A

left side

202
Q

Hydrocele etiology*

A

Failure of patent processus vaginalis to close & failure of peritoneal fluid to be re-absorbed
common in newborn boys

203
Q

transilluminating mass on exam

A

hydrocele

204
Q

hydrocele can be associated with..?

A

indirect hernia

205
Q

Non-communicating forms of hydrocele may result from…?*

A

trauma, infection, or neoplasm

206
Q

hydrocele Tx

A

may resolve on its own

surgical resection

207
Q

communicating v noncommunicating hydrocele

A

communicating: free flow of abdominal fluid to sac
non: doesnt

208
Q

spermatocele

A

Usually asymptomatic, small mass of the epididymis
benign (epididymis dilation)
epididymal cyst >2cm

209
Q

Where you feel inguinal hernias during exam

A

direct: side of finger
indirect: tip

210
Q

complications of hernias*

A

incarceration: not easily reduced

strangulation –> need herniorrhaphy (emergency)

211
Q

complications of cryptorchidism*

A

infertility

malignancy

212
Q

Klinefelter’s (XXY) put you at risk for…? (testicular disorder)

A

testicular cancer

hypogonadism

213
Q

most common sign of testicular cancer*

A

hard, painless lump

214
Q

most common type of testicular cancer*

A

germ cell tumors

215
Q

before metastasis of testicular cancer…

A

nearly 100% cure!

216
Q

Cystoscopy

A

rigid v flexible

can resect bladder tumor, prostate (TURP)

217
Q

Malecot & Pezzer catheters

A

Surgical placement

218
Q

ionic v nonionic IV contrast material

A

ionic: higher osmolality, more side effects

non-ionic: lower, less

219
Q

IV contrast in high risk patients

A

dont use them! use other!

220
Q

IV contrast risks

A

acute renal impairment

221
Q

Iv contrast and DM pts

A

can cause Fatal metabolic acidosis (lactic acidosis)

222
Q

IV contrast risks

A

acute renal impairment

nephrotoxic

223
Q

Iv contrast and DM pts

A

can cause Fatal metabolic acidosis (lactic acidosis)

hold metformin if using contrast

224
Q

idiosyncratic rxn to IV contrast

A

iodine anaphylactoid response

225
Q

How many views in an abdominal series X-ray

A

3 views:
CXR
abdominal “flat plate” (kidney, ureter, bladder)
upright abdominal film

226
Q

abdominal flat plate

A

KUB: kidney, ureter, bladder

“scout film”

227
Q

CT

A

“Multiple plain films”

Computer reconstruction of 2D view, CUTS

228
Q

spiral CT (sCT ) or helical CT

A

Thin collimation of 1-mm image reconstruction and multiple detectors

229
Q

CT

A

“Multiple plain films”
Computer reconstruction of 2D view
cross section

230
Q

When to use CT scan in urology

A

renal: mass, cyst (U/S 1st), trauma, calculi

231
Q

BEST IMAGING FOR RENAL CALCULI*

A

Spiral/Helical CT

232
Q

MRI urology

A

Very useful for soft tissue GU diagnosis

gadolinium contrast - safer than iodinated

233
Q

Transrectal Ultrasound (TRUS)

A

good for prostate

234
Q

Radionuclide Imaging

A

IV administration of radionuclide tagged cells
identify where the cells have traveled/concentrated
good for physiologic studies (blood flow, kidney function, excretion)

235
Q

GU angiograph

A

Radio-opaque contrast injected IV and then imaged using x-ray based imaging modality such as fluoroscopy (real-time moving x-ray images)

236
Q

Voiding Cystourethrogram

A
  1. Water-soluble contrast material delivered to bladder
  2. “spot film” taken while pts void
    (used in voiding difficulties, vesicoenteric fistula)
237
Q

static cystograms**

A

films taken prior to voiding

238
Q

Intravenous Pyelograms (IVP)

A

3 films: w/contrast
scout film
nephrogram phase (after 2-3min)
excretion films (after 15-20min)

239
Q

Retrograde Pyelography (RGP)

A

Demonstrates ureter and renal collecting system (pelvis & calyces).
FILL CONTRAST INTO URETER w/cystoscope(NOT IV)