Urology - general Flashcards

1
Q

Define AKI

A
  • Urine output is <0.5ml/kg/h for >6 consecutive hours
  • Serum creatinine rises by >26.4 μmol/L within 48h
  • Serum creatinine rises >1.5x from the reference value known to have occurred within one week/ 50% or greater serum creatinine rise in the preceding 7 days
  • > 25% fall in eGFR in children + young people within the past 7 days
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2
Q

Pre-renal causes of AKI

A
  • Hypotension (intravascular volume loss or redistribution)
  • Hypovolaemia (extracellular volume loss)- Reduced effective arterial volume
  • HF, protein losing encephalopathy (decreased CO)
  • Drugs
  • ACEi, NSAIDs, ARB, diuretics

Interstitial nephritis (renal AKI)

  • secondary to NSAIDs, chronic frusemide use
  • caused by - infections, drugs, immune diseases e.g. SLE, lymphoma, tumour lysis syndrome following chemo
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3
Q

Renal causes of AKI

A
  • Tubular disease
  • acute tubular necrosis (post-ischaemic. nephrotoxic)
  • Glomerular disease
  • Interstitial disease
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4
Q

Palpable kidneys

A
  • Polycystic kidney disease

- Hydronephrosis

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5
Q

Renal angle tenderness

A
  • Renal colic
  • Pyelonephritis
  • Any other pathology that stretches the renal capsule
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6
Q

Classification of CKD (5)

A

eGFR (ml/min) >90 kidney damage with preserved GFR e.g. proteinuria
60-90 kidney damage with mild renal impairment
30-59 moderate renal impairment
15-29 severe renal impairment
<15 end-stage renal failure

Normal GFR is 90ml/min

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7
Q

Normal Urea value

A

2.5-7.1 mmol/L

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8
Q

Normal Creatinine value

A

79-118 μmol/L

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9
Q

Nephrotic syndrome

A
  1. Proteinuria (>3.5/24h)
  2. Hypoalbuminaemia (<30g/L)
  3. Oedema(+hyperlipidaemia)
    Increased risk of infection - loss of complement + Ig in urine
    Hypercoaguable state - loss of ATIII, hypogammaglobulaemia
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10
Q

Nephritic syndrome

A
  • Haematuria (sometimes macroscopic) – MAIN FEATURE
  • HTN
  • Sub-nephrotic-range proteinuria
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11
Q

Nephrotic range proteinuria

Commonest causes in
Children
Young adults
Older people
Diabetics
A

Children + young adults - minimal change glomerulonephritis

Young adults - FSGC (focal segmental glomerulosclerosis)

Older people - membranous nephropathy

Diabetics - diabetic nephropathy

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12
Q

Places where a renal calculus can get suck

A

Staghorn calculus - in kidney, non-mobile, no pain, incidental finding
Pelviureteric junction
Ureteric stone - pelvic brim
Vesicoureteric junction

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13
Q

Complications of kidneys stones

A
  • Ureteric stricture
  • Infection
  • Acute/chronic pyelonephritis
  • Renal failure
  • Intrarenal/periephric abscess (renal mass with fluid level on US - pus discharges through the renal capsule in the perinephric fat)
  • Xanthogranulomatus pyelonephritis
  • Urine extravasation into pelvic cavity
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14
Q

Patients with PKD are at risk of

A

SAH

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15
Q

Complications of chronic urinary retention (8)

A
  • UTI
  • Incontinence
  • Bladder Stones
  • Hydroureters/hydronephorsis
  • Renal failure
  • Acute-on-chronic retention
  • Bladder wall hypertrophy (trabeculation)
  • Bladder wall outpouchings (diverticula)
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16
Q

Conditions that can lead to acute renal failure (5)

A
  • Wegener’s granulomatosis
  • Goodpasture’s syndrome
  • Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) - pentad of TTP
    Thrombocytopenia
    Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia (MAHA)
    Fever
    Renal failure
    Neurological symptoms
  • HUS
  • Myeloma
  • Retroperitoneal fibrosis
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17
Q

Which part of the prostate is affected in BPH (definition of BPH)

A

slowly progressive nodular hyperplasia of the TRANSITIONAL (periurethral) zone of the prostate gland

It’s a histological diagnosis

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18
Q

What kind of cancers are prostate cancers?

A

malignant tumour of glandular origin situated in the prostate

most are adenocarcinomas arising in the PERIPHERAL zone of the prostate gland

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19
Q

All testicular tumours display an abnormality on Chr

A

12

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20
Q

Which testiular cells are the most vulnerable to ischaemia?

A

Germ cells

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21
Q

Which testis gets twisted most commonly?

A

Left

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22
Q

Direct vs indirect inguinal hernia

A

Direct
Superior and medial to pubic tubercle
Through the abdominal wall
Medial to deep inferior epigastric artery
Through Hesselbach’s triangle
Doesn’t usually extend into scrotum
Cough impulse - will expand outwards (through the defect in the posterior wall of the inguinal canal)
Lower risk of strangulation than indirect hernias
greater tendency for spontaneous reduction

Indirect
More common than direct
Superior and medial to pubic tubercle
Through the deep inguinal ring
Lateral to deep inferior epigastric artery
lateral to Hesselbach’s triangle
More likely to extend into scrotum
Cough impulse - will expand in an inferomedial direction (along the length of the inguinal canal)
Higher risk of strangulation than direct hernias

deep inferior epigastric artery lies medial to the deep inguinal ring

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23
Q

Inguinal vs femoral hernia

A

Inguinal
Superior and medial to pubic tubercle
Still more common in F than femoral

Femoral
Inferior and lateral to pubic tubercle
F>M
Higher risk of stangulation than inguinal because it has a narrower neck

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24
Q

How to distinguish between a direct and an indirect inguinal hernia

A

Reduce the hernia and put your hand over the deep inguinal ring
Get patient to cough - if the hernia reappears then it means it is direct (through the abdominal wall)
if it doesnt reappear it means it’s indirect (through the deep inguinal ring which you are blocking with your hands)
deep inguinal ring:
• Midpoint of inguinal ligament
• 1.5cm above midpoint
• Opening in transversalis fascia

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25
Q

First line ix for any scrotal mass

A

USS testis

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26
Q

What will intermittent episodes of obstruction make you worry of?

A

Hernia

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27
Q

What is radical orchidectomy performed for and how is it performed?

A

• Radical orchidectomy done to remove testicular cancer
Performed via an inguinal incision rather than a scrotal incision

o Lymph node supply of scrotal skin is different to that of the inguinal cord + the testicle - you don’t want to spread cancer cells from one compartment (where the testicle drains) to the other (where the scrotal skin drains)

testis - para-aortic
scrotum - inguinal

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28
Q

Commonest type of testicular tumour in

20-30 y/o
30-50 y/o

A

20-30 - teratoma

30-50 - seminoma

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29
Q

On which testes are varices most common?

A

Left

o R gonadal vein drains directly into IVC at an oblique angle
o L gonadal vein drains into L renal vein at a 90o angle

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30
Q

What does a sudden appearance of L sided varix make you worry of?

A

Renal tumour compressing the L renal vein and compromising the drainage of the L gonadal vein

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31
Q

Commonest causes of epidydimo-orchitis in

Men <35
Men >35

A

o Men <35 y/o - STIs (consider Chlamydia trachomatis (most common), Neisseria gonorrhoeae)

o Men >35 y/o - UTIs (e.g. Escherichia Coli, Enterobacter, Klebsiella)

o Anal intercourse - increases risk of epididymo-orchitis due to exposure to coliforms
o Others - mumps, Candida

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32
Q

Describe idiopathic scrotal oedema

A
Acute onset 
Bilateral
Extends into the groin
Not painful
Resolves over 48-72h 
Needs no further management 

(testicular torsion, epididymo-orchitis - would all result in pain)

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33
Q

Relative positions of the femoral nerve, artery, vein in the inguinal region

A

Medial to lateral - VAN

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34
Q

Why are smokers more likely to develop hernias and suffer hernia recurrence?

A

Impaired connective tissue metabolism causing abdominal wall weakness

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35
Q

What kind of tumours are bladder cancers?

A

Most of them are transitional cell carcinomas (90%)

the rest are squamous cell carcinomas and adenocarcinomas

36
Q

Definition of a hydrocele

A

An excessive collection of serus fluid in the tunica vaginalis

37
Q

Difference between hydrocele and epididymal cyst

A

Hydrocele - can’t separate it from the testis

Epididymal cyst - can separate it from the testis

38
Q

In which nodes to they drain

testis
scrotum

A

testis - para-aortic

scrotum - inguinal

39
Q

Define varicocele

A

Dilated veins of the pampiniform plexus forming a scrotal mass

more common on the L
associated with infertility

40
Q

Hernia ix

A

Clinical

o US – 1st line

41
Q

CKD definition

A

Irreversible reduction in renal function, chronically abnormal renal function/structure present for MORE THAN 3 MONTHS (with assosciated health implications)

or

GFR <60ml/min for >3m

42
Q

CKD caused by DM vs CKD caused by HTN

A

DM
US reveals large kidneys
Kimmestiel- Wilson nodules seen on histology - hallmark of diabetic glomerulosclerosis
SGLT2 inhibitors have been shown to slow progression to ESRFe.g. empagliflozin

HTN
US revels small kidneys
ACEi + ARBs

43
Q

Most reliable prognostic factor in CKD

A

Degree of proteinuria - correlates with the rate of progression of the underlying disease

44
Q

Features of minimal change disease

A
Nephrotic syndrome
Affects children
Related to underlying Hodgkin's disease in adults
Does not progress to ESRF
Podocyte fusion
  • Podocyte fusion/loss of epithelial foot process on microscopy
  • Vacuolation
  • Appearance of microvilli
  • Normal light microscopy
  • Negative immunofluorescence
45
Q

Features of focal segmental glomerulonephritis

A

Nephrotic syndrome
Affects adults
Can be assosciated with HIV, heroin use or can be idiopathic
Progresses to ESRF
Podocyte fusion, segmental scars on histology

46
Q

Features of membranous glomerulonephritis

A

Nephrotic syndrome
Most common nephrotic syndrome in adults
Thickening of the glomerular basement membrane
Deposition of immunoglobulin + graular deposits on GBM
Can progress to ESRF

47
Q

What is crescentic glomerulonephritis/rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis?

A

Nephritic syndrome

  • Anti-GBM disease/Goodpasture’s syndrome
  • Pauci-immune crescentic glomerulonephritis (ANCA)/systemic vasculitis - granulomatosis with polyangiitis, microscopic polyangiiti
  • Immune complex-associated (SLE, IgA, post-infectious glomerulonephritis)

Accumulation of macrophages + epithelial cells outside the capllary loops but within Bowman’s capsule (fill up Bowman’s space)

48
Q

Features of Goodpasture’s syndrome

A

Nephritic syndrome
Autoimmune
Anti-GBM antibodies - affects lung + kidney (attack type IV collagen)
Haemoptysis + haematuria

49
Q

Features of post-strep glomerulonephritis

A
Nephritic syndrome
children
1-2 weeks after URT infection 
Strep pyogenes most common bacterium
IgG, IgM, C3 deposits
50
Q

Features of IgA nephropathy/Berger’s disease

A

Nephritic syndrome
Macrocopic haematuria immediately following URT or GI infections
Children
Mesangial cell proliferation with matrix expansion
IgA, C3 deposits in matrix on biopsy

51
Q

In AKI there is failure to maintain the homeostasis of… (3)

A

Fluid - oliguria, volume overload
Electrolyte - hyperkalaemia, hyperphosphataemia, hypocalcaemia
Acid-base - metabolic acidosis

52
Q

what is Hencoh Schonlein purpura

A
Systemic variant IgA nephropathy
Purpuric rash extensor surfaces 
Haematuria
Polyarthritis
Abdo pain
Scrotal swelling

trad of abdo pain, arthritis, purpuric rash

53
Q

What is pauci immune glomerulonephritis

A

ANCA associated
Negative immunofluorescence in kidney but positive ANCA
Antibodies bound to neutrophils
Activation within glomerular capillary loops

Many patients will also have vasculitis in other systems e.g. skin rash, lung haemorrhage

54
Q

Causes of acute tubular necrosis

A

Ischaemia (low CO (HF, MI), hypovalaemia, systemic dilation (sepsis), renal vasoconstriction, hypotension)
Toxins
Drugs

(NSAIDs, ACE-I, ARB, contrast, aminoglycosides (gentamycin), chemo, immunosuppresants (ciclosporin, MTX) myoglobinuria in rhabdomyolysis, myeloma etc.)

55
Q

Electrolyte disturbanes in AKI

A

Hyperkalaemia
Hyperphosphataemia
Hypocalcaemia

56
Q

What is analgesic nephropathy

A

Analgesic nephropathyis injury to thekidneyscaused byanalgesic medicationssuch asaspirin,phenacetin, andparacetamol

Renal papillary necrosis
Chronic interstitial nephritis

57
Q

Consequences of CKD

A
  1. Progressive failure of homeostatic function
    • Acidosis
    • Hyperkalaemia
  2. Progressive failure of hormonal function
    • Anaemia
    • Renal Bone Disease - Osteomalacia
  3. Cardiovascular disease
    • Vascular calcification
    • Uraemic cardiomyopathy
  4. Uraemia and Death
58
Q

UTI definition

A

The presence of a pure growth of > 10^5 organisms per mL of fresh MSU
Presence of >100,000 of colony-forming units per mm of urine
(1ml = 1000mm)

infection of the kidneys (pyelonephritis), bladder (cystitis), urethra (urethritis) or prostate (prostatitis)

Most common causative organism - E.coli

59
Q

PKD polycystic kidney disease definition

A

fluid filled cysts grow on the kidney, 10% of ESRF

Autosomal dominant inheritance, onset at 30-60 years
1:1000 (85% of PKD1 Chr16, 15% PKD2 Chr4)

rare AR inheritance on Chr6

60
Q

Where does renal cell cancer arise from?

A

• RCC originates from the proximal renal tubular epithelium (renal cortex) – lining of the proximal convoluted tubule

also known as von Grawitz tumour, hypernephroma

61
Q

Which genetic condition is assoscated with renal cell carcinoma RCC

A
Von Hippel Lindau
•	Common association
•	Short arm of Chr 3
•	Benign cyst that forms in the CNS, kidneys – younger, bilateral, VHL gene
•	Vision loss, retina angiomatosis
62
Q

Define renal artery stenosis RAS

A
  • Narrowing of the renal artery lumen
  • Considered angiographically significant if >50% reduction in vessel diameter is present
  • Important cause of secondary HTN + CKD
63
Q

Causes of RAS renal artery stenosis in

  • Older patients
  • Younger female patients
A
  • Older patients - Atherosclerosis

* Younger female patients - Fibromuscular dysplasia

64
Q

Dx for

Muddy brown cast + high creatinine
High urine sodium, low urine osmolality
Low urine:serum urea ratio
Low urine:plasma osmolarity ratio

A

Acute tubular necrosis

In established acute tubular necrosis, the kidneys can’t concentrate the sodium
• Can’t concentrate their urine or conserve sodium
• Urinary sodium >40mmol/L => urine is dilute (osmolarity <350mmol/L)
• Urine:plasma osmolarity ratio <1:1

65
Q

Dx for

Esoinophilic cast, urine dip: protein+blood
Old man, CAP, penicillin Tx, dysuria, back pain

A

Acute interstitial nephritis

Causes of acute interstital nephritis

  • Drugs
  • Infection
  • Immune disorders e.g. SLE
  • Lymphoma
  • Tumour lysis syndrome
66
Q

Indications for a 3-way catheter

A

Recurrent clots
Haematuria
extra lumen for irrigation

https://www.urotoday.com/images/3_way_catheter.jpg

67
Q

Which bacterium can block the cathether by forming a biofilm?

+mx

A

Proteus mirabilis

1st step - bladder wasout
2nd step - replace catheter

68
Q

How to NSAIDs and ACEi contribute to kidney failure?

A

 NSAIDs –> reduce vasodilation of afferent arteriole (block production of PG)

 ACEi –> reduce vasoconstriction of the Efferent arteriole (block conversion of ATI–>ATII)

69
Q

Type of kidney stones that can form in someone who gets recurrent UTIs

A

Magnesium Ammonium Phosphate (MAP)/Struvite stones

Associated with chronic UTIs from gram -ve rods that break down urea into ammonia (pseudomonas, proteus)

70
Q

RF for calcium renal stones

A

Most common
Hyperparathyroidism
Diuretics
Increased gut absorption of Ca

71
Q

Interstitial nephritis can be caused by

A
Infection
NSAIDs
Abx (penicillin, cephalexin)
PPIs 
Allopurinol
Phenytoin
Cimetidine
72
Q

What is renal osteodystrophy caused by?

Radiological signs?

A

renal ostedystrophy = alteration of one morphology in pt w CKD - no absorption of Ca, low Vitamin D

  • Osteopenia
  • Salt + pepper skull
  • Subperiosteal erosions
  • Brown tumours
  • pseudofractures
  • Rugger jersey spine
73
Q

What is overflow incontinence?

A

Overflow incontinence

  • involuntary release of urine from an overfull bladder
  • occurs in people with blockage of the bladder outlet (e.g. BPH, Prostate cancer)

ix using urodynamic studies

74
Q

Why might dialysis patients suffer from carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

2y to dialysis related amyloidosis due to depletion of β2 microglobulin

75
Q

Why does renal failure lead to hyperkalaemia

A

K cant be excreted

Renal tubular damage - inadequate renin secretion and release - hypoaldosteronism - hyperkalaemia

76
Q

What can the use of ACEi in RAS (renal artery stenosis) cause?

A
AKI
Flash pulmonary oedema
   Cough
   Dyspnoea
   Othropnoea
   Bilateral fine inspiratory crackles
Other causes of flash pulmonary oedema
ACEi in RAS
Acute MI
ARDS
Heroin + cocaine use
77
Q

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

Commonest age group
What is it assosciated with
Histology

A

older children + young adults

HIV heroin use

  • Podocyte fusion
  • Segmental scars on histology
78
Q

How to differentiate between a renal cyst, renal abscess, pyelonephritis

A

Renal cyst

  • Usually ASYMPTOMATIC
  • Incidental finding on US

Renal abscess

  • Persistently high FEVER
  • Bacteraemia (+ve blood cultures)
  • High WCC
  • Severe tenderness on examination
  • Non specific symptoms (abominal pain, weight loss, malaise)
  • Failure to improve after appropriate therapy

Pyelonephritis

  • Systemic symptoms - fever, nausea, vomiting, RIGORS, sweating
  • LOCAL symptoms of UTI - dysuria, haematuria, loin pain
79
Q

Give examples of medullary adrenal tumours vs cortex adrenal tumours

A

medullary - phaechromocytoma

cortex
Conn’s syndrome (produces aldosterone)
Cushing’s syndrome (produces cortisol)

80
Q

A 67-year-old diabetic female is brought into accident and emergency following a collapse at her home. She was found by her daughter who said she saw the patient going to the toilet and then hearing her collapse. The patient did not lose consciousness and appears well. Her supine blood pressure is 100/70 and standing 115/79. Urine dipstick is positive for glucose, nitrates, leukocytes and haematuria. The most likely diagnosis is:

A. Diabetic ketoacidosis 
B. UTI 
C. Orthostatic hypotension 
D. Diabetic nephropathy 
E. Hypoglycaemia
A

B. UTI
Severe UTIs - sepsis, hypovolaemia, collapse

Orthostatic hypotenison - drop >20 mmHg in SBP or >10 mmHg in DBP, not just any drop in any BP

Diabetic nephropathy - nephrotic syndorme therefore no haematuria, just proteinuria

Hyoglycaemia - sweating, tachycardia, palpitations, irritability tremor

81
Q

An 18-year-old man presents with general malaise and lethargy for the last 2 weeks, he denies any weight loss and has maintained a good appetite. On examination, there are no abnormalities except for sacral oedema and a polyphonic wheeze. Urine dipstick is positive for protein only and blood pressure is 140/90. The most likely diagnosis is:

A. Nephritic syndrome 
B. Nephrotic syndrome 
C. Goodpasture’s disease 
D. Thin-basement membrane nephropathy
E. Minimal change glomerulonephritis
A

E. Minimal change glomerulonephritis
most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults + young children

thin basement membrane nephropathy + IgA nephrotpathy
benign conditions
thinning of the GBM
DO NOT IMPACT RENAL FUNCTION - no sacral oedema!!

goodpastures triad of
glomerulonephritis
pulmonary damage causing haemorrahge 
anti-GBM antibodies
T2 autoimmune rxn

Nephrotic syndrome
The nephrotic syndrome (B) is likely in this patient with proteinuria resulting in oedema, however, the cause of these symptoms is minimal change glomerulonephritis, hence this is the best answer.

82
Q

In cases of urethral obstruction, would you get bladder dilation or hydronephrosis first?

A

Hydronephrosis before bladder dilation

Bladder is a strong muscular organ that requires significant built up of pressure before it becomes dilated

83
Q

A 19-year-old man is recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes and attends your clinic to ask about possible complications in the future. He mentions an uncle who has end-stage renal disease due to poorly controlled diabetes and specifically enquires about testing for early signs of renal impairment. The most appropriate investigation is:

A. Blood pressure 
B. Microalbuminuria 
C. Serum creatinine 
D. Serum electrolytes 
E. Urine dipstick for glucose
A

B. Microalbuminuria

urine dipstick is not sensitive enough to detect microaluminuria

Elevation of serum creatinine which is usually excreted by the kidney is a late marker of renal impairment + not appropriate for early risk identification

84
Q

What is a von Grawitz tumour?

A

RCC

85
Q

A 49-year-old woman attends your clinic suffering from chronic renal failure due to progressive glomerular disease. She appears well and her blood pressure is 141/92 mmHg. Blood tests reveal elevated phosphate, serum creatinine and urea, while calcium levels are low. Her estimated glomerular filtration rate is 35 mL/min/1.73 m2. You also notice the patient’s cholesterol levels are moderately raised. The most appropriate management is:

A. Sevelamer 
B. Parathyroidectomy
C. Oral vitamin D 
D. Cinacalcet 
E. Renal dialysis
A

A. Sevelamer = phosphate binder (also lowers Ca and cholesterol)

Hyperphosphataemia can cause vascular calcification
Should be treated asap

Oral vitamin D
Oral vitamin D therapy (C) is useful in early renal disease as it lowers PTH levels, however it is not appropriate as first-line therapy since it increases calcium and phosphate reabsorption and so can inadvertently exacerbate the patient’s symptoms (normally, vitamin D increases Ca absorption + increases PO43- excretion but in CKD, PO43- can’t be excreted by the kidney)
High levels of phosphate (which can’t be excreted) cause it to find and stick to any available calcium (which is increased if the patient is given vitamin D), which forms bone-like crystals in places that they shouldn’t be
Once phosphate levels have been lowered, vitamin D therapy is then beneficial

86
Q

How to differentiate between Post-infectious glomerulonephritis and IgA nephropathy

A

Both cause nephritic syndrome (HTN, hameaturia, proteinuria)

Post-infectious glomerulonephritis – tends to occur 4-6 weeks after a streptococcal infection (e.g. streptococcal pharyngitis, cellulitis)

IgA nephropathy – tends to occur 5-7 days after the patient experiences symptoms of pharyngitis

Hypertension – more common in post-strep glomerulonephritis

Heavy proteinuria, systemic symptoms (abdo pain, skin rashes, arthritis) – more common in IgA nephropathy

87
Q

Different types of incontinence

Stress incontinence
Urge incontinence 
Functional incontinence 
Overflow incontinence 
Double incontinence
A

Stress incontinence – incontinence when there is increased intra-abdominal pressure

Urge incontinence – detrusor overactivity (neurological problem, intrinsic problem with the detrusor muscle)

Functional incontinence – patients are unable to find a toilet before urinating (immobility, unfamiliar surroundings, not due to a physiological dysfunction)

Overflow incontinence – involuntary release of urine from an overfull bladder (bladder outflow obstruction, detrusor weakness)

Double incontinence – urinary + faecal incontinence (neurological disorders – MS, AD)