Urology II Flashcards
(43 cards)
Which of the following has been shown to increase the risk of prostate cancer? (Please select 1 option) Caucasian race Exposure to cadmium Family history of colon cancer Low intake of animal fats Occupational exposure to dust
Cadmium
Black ethnicity is associated with a higher risk of prostate cancer than Caucasian.
A family history of breast cancer increases the risk of prostate cancer as does a family history of prostate cancer.
An occupation in farming also seems to increase the risk of prostate cancer.
High intake of animal fats and low selenium intake as well as exposure to radiation and cadmium all increase the risk of prostate cancer.
A 56-year-old male who has presented with chest pain, has a PSA of 45 ng/ml (normal s management?
(Please select 1 option)
An elevated PSA is a definitive test for prostate cancer
High selenium intake is related to prostate cancer
Prostate cancer is more aggressive with increasing age
Prostate cancer is typically squamous call carcinoma
The most commonly used pathological grading system is the Gleason score
The most commonly used pathological grading system is the Gleason score CorrectCorrect
Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) may be elevated in
Prostatitis
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
Prostate cancer.
As a rule, prostate cancer is more aggressive in younger men.
Prostate cancer is an adenocarcinoma.
The Gleason score is recommended by the American College of Pathologists.
The most well differentiated tumours have a Gleason score of 2, and the most poorly differentiated a Gleason score of 10.
High intake of animal fats is related to prostate cancer as well as low intake of selenium.
A 56-year-old male presents with pain in the lower back.
The pain has a girdle-like distribution beginning in the lower back and radiating to the lower abdomen. He has not been on any drugs.
The patient is hypertensive but there are no other physical signs of note. Investigations reveal a normocytic normochromic anaemia, raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C reactive protein. Renal function is impaired. Ultrasound scanning reveals bilateral hydronephrosis.
Which of the following investigations is most likely to give you the diagnosis?
(Please select 1 option)
Computerised tomogram of abdomen
Intravenous urogram
Isotope renogram
Renal biopsy
Retrograde urogram
CT abdo
The patient has idiopathic retroperitoneal fibrosis (peri-aortitis).
This is a condition in which the ureters become embedded in dense fibrous tissue usually at the junction of the middle and lower thirds of the ureters. This results in unilateral or bilateral ureteric obstruction.
CT scanning will show a peri-aortic mass.
Histological confirmation is obtained by CT guided biopsy or laparotomy.
A 15-year-old boy presents with acute left testicular pain. He is not sexually active. On examination the scrotum appears normal but he has a tender, swollen left testis. Right testis appears normal. What is the most likely diagnosis? (Please select 1 option) Acute epididymitis Mumps orchitis Ruptured epididymal cyst Testicular neoplasm Testicular torsion
Testicular torsion This is the correct answerThis is the correct answer
The features of acute testicular pain suggest testicular torsion and should prompt surgical referral.
Torsion: acute pain and swelling of testis, with absent cremasteric reflex.
Epididimitis: acute pain and swelling. Rare before puberty, and commoner in sexually active.
A 23-year-old man with a teratoma of the testis attended for review following chemotherapy. Which one of the following serum tumour markers is of most value in monitoring the clinical progression of his disease? (Please select 1 option) Alpha-fetoprotein Carbohydrate antigen CA 15-3 Carbohydrate antigen CA 19-9 Carbohydrate antigen CA 125 Carcinoembryonic antigen
AFP
Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), beta-hCG and PLAP (placental like isoenzyme of alkaline phosphatase) are the major tumour markers in use for the monitoring of testicular teratoma.
CA 125 is a tumour marker used for ovarian tumours.
CA 15-3 is a tumour marker for breast carcinoma, and CA 19-9 is used in pancreatic tumours.
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a marker for colonic tumours.
Which one of the following is true of undescended testes?
(Please select 1 option)
25% of undescended testes descend in the first year of life
Is associated with a reduced risk of testicular malignancy
Is associated with normal fertility
Laparoscopy is indicated for impalpable testes
Surgery should be considered in the neonatal period
Laparoscopy is indicated for impalpable testes
Undescended testes affect 3% of full-term boys. However, the majority of these lie in the inguinal canal and approximately 75% of undescended testes descend into the scrotum during the first year of life.
Undescended testes are associated with an increased risk of testicular malignancy which develops in 5% of intra-abdominal testes.
Overall, 80% of males with bilateral descended testes are fertile but only 30% of men with bilateral undescended testes have normal fertility.
Surgery should be performed at 12-18 months of age.
Boys with an undescended but palpable testis should undergo a routine orchidopexy.
Impalpable testes should be assessed with laparoscopy
A 28-year-old male presents with a small painless lump in his left testis. On examination the lump lies within the testes and does not transilluminate.
Neoplasm of the testes
Testicular tumours are the most common in males between the age of 20-40. In 80% of cases the patient notices a painless lump in one testis, or that one testis is larger than the other.
A 32-year-old male presents with pain in his left testis. On examination his left testicle is red tender and swollen. Prehn’s sign is positive.
Acute epididymitis
Neoplasm of the testes
Testicular tumours are the most common in males between the age of 20-40. In 80% of cases the patient notices a painless lump in one testis, or that one testis is larger than the other.
A 25-year-old army officer presents with a discomfort of his left testicle. On examination his testicle feels like a bag of worms with a cough impulse.
Varicocele of the testes
A varicocele is a dilation of the pampiniform venous plexus and the internal spermatic vein.
A 14-year-old boy presents with severe pain in his right testicle. On examination the testis is tender and high in the scrotum. Prehn’s sign is negative
Torsion of the testes
Torsion of the testes is a surgical emergency and typically presents with severe painful, swollen and tender testes. Prehn’s sign distinguishes between bacterial epididymitis and testicular torsion. Scrotal elevation relieves pain in epididymitis but not torsion.
A 58-year-old gentleman presents with vomiting and anorexia of six days duration. He has had a right nephrectomy for chronic pyelonephritis two years ago and now suffers from recurrent left renal calculi. His urea is 27 mmol/l and creatinine 456 µmol/l.
Normal ranges are:
Urea 3-8 mmol/l
Creatinine 50-110 µmol/l
ESR 1-10 mm/hr
ARF
This patient has developed acute renal failure secondary to obstruction due to renal calculi (since he has got only one kidney). It is essential to exclude obstruction as the cause for acute renal failure particularly in patients with a solitary kidney. The obstruction needs to be relieved either surgically (neprostomy/ extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy) or radiologically (percutaneous) depending on the level and type of calculi, and the patient’s general health.
Normal ranges are: Urea 3-8 mmol/l Creatinine 50-110 µmol/l ESR 1-10 mm/hr 38-year-old gentleman of Pakistani origin complains of increased urinary frequency, haematuria and evening pyrexia. His ESR is 98 mm/hr but routine urine culture is negative.
Renal tuberculosis
Renal tuberculosis usually occurs between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in men. Urinary frequency is often the earliest symptom. The urine shows sterile pyuria and urine culture is negative. Haematuria is present in 5% of cases. Constitutional symptoms such as weight loss and evening pyrexia are common. ESR may be raised. The patient may have other symptoms such as cough, haemoptysis suggestive of lung involvement or symptoms of intestinal tuberculosis.
Normal ranges are: Urea 3-8 mmol/l Creatinine 50-110 µmol/l ESR 1-10 mm/hr A 65-year-old man undergoes nephrostomy to relieve hydronephrosis of his left kidney. Four hours post-operatively he develops rigors, pyrexia and his blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg. Investigations show a urea of 28 mmol/l and a creatinine of 330 µmol/l.
Gram negative sepsis
This patient has developed Gram negative sepsis due to instrumentation of the renal tract. The common organisms include Escherichia coli, coliforms, and Bacteroides. Prophylaxis with an aminoglycoside such as gentamicin is usually recommended before surgery or instrumentation of the renal tract.
A 73-year-old man presents to the surgical outpatient clinic with a three month history of difficulty in passing urine. On further questioning, he states that he wakes up frequently at night to pass urine but has difficulty in voiding or in maintaining the stream.
After baseline investigations, he is referred to the urologists who make a diagnosis of carcinoma of the prostate. He does not have any local or regional metastasis. He undergoes a transurethral resection of prostate and makes an uneventful post-operative recovery.
Assuming he remains symptom-free for the next five years, what is the most appropriate investigation to follow up this patient's condition? From the options below choose the one that you think is the most appropriate answer: (Please select 1 option) Bone scan Computerised topographic scan Magnetic resonance imaging Prostate specific antigen level Transrectal ultrasonography
PSA
The prostate specific antigen (PSA) level will be the most appropriate investigation in this patient since it is an excellent marker in the follow up of patients with established prostate cancer.
PSA is an enzyme produced by the prostate. Its normal function is to liquefy gelatinous semen after ejaculation, thus allowing the spermatozoa more easily to navigate through the cervix. PSA levels less than 4 ng/mL are generally considered normal; however, an age-specific PSA reference range level is widely used.
Transrectal ultrasonography may be used in the diagnosis of carcinoma prostate but has no role in the follow up of the disease.
CT scan may be used for staging of the disease and not for prognostic purposes.
Bone scan is indicated in patients with suspected bone metastasis and again not used as a prognostic marker.
A 13-year-old boy presents with a three hour history of right testicular pain. Urinalysis does not reveal any abnormality. On clinical examination he is tender over the superior pole of the right testis and a black spot is visible through the scrotal skin.
Torted appendix testis
The appendix testis may undergo torsion and mimic the presentation of testicular torsion. It usually presents in boys under the age of 16 but can occur in adults. There is acute testicular pain, confined to the upper pole of the testis. There may be a black spot visible through the scrotal skin which suggests this diagnosis. Where there is any doubt the testicle should be explored, if a firm diagnosis can be made the patient can be treated with rest and analgesia and the pain will subside in five to seven days.
A 22-year-old man presents with a two day history of left testicular pain and swelling. Urinalysis reveals leucocytes, blood and nitrites. On examination he has a swollen erythematous scrotum, the testis is non-tender, the epididymis is swollen and exquisitely tender.
Epididymitis
Epididymitis usually occurs in young and middle aged men. There is often a history of lower urinary tract symptoms preceding the testicular pain, urinalysis may show pyuria / nitrites, the scrotal skin may be oedematous and red, there may be a secondary hydrocele and careful examination of the affected side may reveal tenderness confined to a swollen epididymis.
A 21-year-old man presents with a two hour history of severe right testicular pain and swelling. Urinalysis does not reveal any abnormality. On examination his scrotum is swollen and erythematous, his testis is high in the scrotum and exquisitely tender.
Testicular torsion
Testicular torsion most commonly affects adolescent males presenting with severe testicular pain. The overlying skin may be red and oedematous as in epididymitis. The testis is high in the scrotum and the testis and cord cannot be identified as separate structures. Immediate exploration is indicated in all acute presentations with testicular pain where torsion cannot confidently be excluded.
Which of the following is correct concerning undescended testes?
(Please select 1 option)
Are commonly associated with a direct inguinal hernia
Are located in the abdomen in 50% of cases
Detected at one year of age have a 50% chance of spontaneously completing their descent by 5 years
Surgically relocated in the scrotum before puberty have a reduced risk of subsequent malignancy compared with no surgical relocation
Which occupy an ectopic site are usually of a reduced prepubertal size
Surgically relocated in the scrotum before puberty have a reduced risk of subsequent malignancy compared with no surgical relocation
Failure to find one or both testes in the scrotum may indicate any variety of congenital or acquired conditions, for example, ectopic testes, maldescended testes, retractile or absent testes.
Maldescended or ectopic testes and true undescended testicles are differentiated from each other surgically.
The ectopic testis has completed its descent through the inguinal canal but ends up in a subcutaneous location. Spontaneous testicular descent does not occur after the age of 1 year. Complications include infertility in adulthood, associated hernias and torsion and tumour development in the affected testis.
The patient with cryptorchidism has a 20-40% chance of developing malignancy, and those most at risk are those untreated or those whose surgery was carried out during or after puberty.
Which of the following is the correct advice to a mother who is concerned because she cannot retract the prepuce of her two year old son?
(Please select 1 option)
Circumcision is indicated
He is likely to get recurrent balanitis
Regular retraction of the prepuce during bathing
This is a completely normal condition at this age
Urethral valves are well known association and further investigations are required
This is a completely normal condition at this age
This question relates to the natural history of the foreskin. The foreskin is still developing at birth and hence is often non-retractable up to the age of 3 years.
The process of separation is spontaneous and does not require manipulation.
By the age of 3 years 90% of boys will have a retractable foreskin. In a small proportion of boys this natural process of separation continues well into childhood.
The right ureter lies in close relationship to which of the following?
(Please select 1 option)
Bifurcation of the aorta
Inferior mesenteric artery
Infundibulopelvic ligament
Median sacral artery
Parietal attachment of the sigmoid mesocolon
Infundibulopelvic ligament
At its origin the right ureter is usually covered by the descending part of the duodenum, and, in its course downward, lies to the right of the inferior vena cava, and is crossed by the right colic and ileocolic vessels.
Near the superior aperture of the pelvis it passes behind the lower part of the mesentery and the terminal part of the ileum. The left ureter is crossed by the left colic vessels, and near the superior aperture of the pelvis passes behind the sigmoid colon and its mesentery.
The ureter forms, as it lies in relation to the wall of the pelvis, the posterior boundary of a shallow depression named the ovarian fossa, in which the ovary is situated.
It then runs medialward and forward on the lateral aspect of the cervix uteri and upper part of the vagina to reach the fundus of the bladder.
In this part of its course it is accompanied for about 2.5 cm by the uterine artery, which then crosses in front of the ureter and ascends between the two layers of the broad ligament. The ureter is distant about 2 cm from the side of the cervix of the uterus.
The ureter is sometimes duplicated on one or both sides, and the two tubes may remain distinct as far as the fundus of the bladder. On rare occasions they open separately into the bladder cavity.
Which of the following is correct concerning the urinary bladder?
(Please select 1 option)
Has a venous plexus draining to the external iliac veins
Has an epithelium derived from the ectoderm
Is related superomedially to the levator ani muscle
Is separated from the symphysis pubis by a fold of peritoneum
Is situated in the abdomen of the young child
Is situated in the abdomen of the young child This is the correct answerThis is the correct answer
The bladder is derived from two sources, the cloaca and mesonephric ducts. The primitive cloaca is divided by the urorectal septum into the urogenital sinus and rectum.
The bladder largely develops from the vesicle part of the urogenital sinus.
The mesonephric ducts are drawn into the floor of the bladder as it expands, to form the trigone.
The epithelium is derived from the endoderm of the urogenital sinus, whereas the ureter and pelvis epithelium are derived from mesoderm.
Venous drain is to the internal iliac veins.
The vertex is directed forward towards the upper part of the symphysis pubis (fascial separation), and from it the middle umbilical ligament continues upward on the back of the anterior abdominal wall to the umbilicus.
The peritoneum is carried by it from the vertex of the bladder on to the abdominal wall to form the middle umbilical fold.
During the development of the urinary system, which of the following is true?
(Please select 1 option)
Fundus of the bladder is derived from the mesonephric ducts
Hilum of the metanephros faces posteriorly
Mesonephros completely disappears
Metanephros becomes functional at birth
Ureteric bud gives rise to the collecting tubules of the metanephros
Ureteric bud gives rise to the collecting tubules of the metanephros This is the correct answerThis is the correct answer
The kidneys, urinary tract and the majority of the reproductive organs arise in the intermediate mesoderm between the somites and the lateral plate.
The kidney goes through three stages of development that recapitulate evolution of the kidney:
pronephros
mesonephros
metanephros.
In the majority of vertebrates the pronephros becomes atrophic early in their embryonic life. The mesonephros becomes replaced by the metanephros.
In adult humans remnant mesonephric tissues are a source of cysts and tumors.
The metanpehros is responsible for the formation of the majority of the urogenital system and is functional well before birth.
Which of the following is true regarding undescended testis?
(Please select 1 option)
In the inguinal canal cannot undergo torsion
Is often associated with a hernia
Is present in 5% of the male population at 6 months of age
The risk of malignancy is not significantly increased
The testes and epididymis are usually not affected
Hernia
Failure to find one or both testes in the scrotum may indicate any variety of congenital or acquired conditions, for example:
Ectopic testes
Maldescended testes, and
Retractile or absent testes.
4.5% of males have an undescended testis at birth, falling to 0.8% by six months.
Maldescended or ectopic testes and true undescended testicles are differentiated from each other surgically.
The ectopic testis has completed its descent through the inguinal canal but ends up in a subcutaneous location. Spontaneous testicular descent does not occur after the age of one year.
Complications include infertility in adulthood, associated hernias and torsion and tumour development in the affected testis (if not operated on before 11 years).
The patient with cryptorchidism has a 20-40% chance of developing malignancy, and those most at risk are those untreated or those whose surgery was carried out during or after puberty.
Which of the following is correct regarding the female urethra?
(Please select 1 option)
Corresponds developmentally to the prostatic urethra in the male
Has a muscular layer continuous with that of the bladder
Has an external sphincter supplied by the obturator nerve
Is embedded in the posterior wall of the vagina
Is lined throughout by transitional epithelium
Has a muscular layer continuous with that of the bladder
The female urethra is a narrow membranous canal, about 4 cm long, extending from the internal to the external urethral orifice.
It is placed behind the symphysis pubis, embedded in the anterior wall of the vagina, and its direction is obliquely downward and forward; it is slightly curved with the concavity directed forward.
Its lining is composed of stratified squamous epithelium, which becomes transitional near the bladder.
The urethra consists of three coats:
Muscular
Erectile, and
Mucous
The muscular layer is a continuation of that of the bladder.
Between the superior and inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm, the female urethra is surrounded by the sphincter urethrae.
Somatic innervation of the external urethral sphincter is supplied by the pudendal nerve.
The uro-genital sinus may be divided into three component parts. The first of these is the cranial portion which is continuous with the allantois and forms the bladder proper. The pelvic part of the sinus forms the prostatic urethra and epithelium as well as the membranous urethra and bulbo urethral glands in the male and the membranous urethra and part of the vagina in females.